Chapters 25 to 29: Exam 3 Part 2
Essential flashcards focusing on recognition and management of anaphylactic shock and cardiogenic hypoperfusion. Includes proper treatment protocols and identification of critical symptoms in emergency scenarios.
Pleural fluid is contained between the:
Select one:
A. parietal pleura and the heart.
B. visceral and parietal pleurae.
C. parietal pleura and the chest wall.
D. visceral pleura and the lung.
B. visceral and parietal pleurae.
Key Terms
Pleural fluid is contained between the:
Select one:
A. parietal pleura and the heart.
B. visceral and parietal pleurae.
C. parietal pleura and the chest wall.
D. visceral pleura and the lung.
B. visceral and parietal pleurae.
The nerves control the diaphragm.
Select one:
A. vagus
B. intercostal
C. costal
D. phrenic
D. phrenic
The phrenic nerves control the diaphragm and exit the spinal cord at:
Select one:
A. C1 and C2.
B. C3, C4, and C5.
C. C3 and C4.
D. C1, C2, and C3.
B. C3, C4, and C5.
Which of the following organs or structures does NOT reside within the mediastinum?
Select one:
A. Vena cavae
B. Lungs
C. Trachea
D. Esophagus
B. Lungs
Accumulation of blood in the abdominal cavity will MOST likely cause:
Select one:
A. nausea or vomiting.
B. distention.
C. diffuse bruising.
D. referred pain.
B. distention.
Assuming that no obvious signs of intra-abdominal injury are present, which of the following injuries would MOST likely cause an injury to the liver or spleen to be overlooked?
Select one:
A. Shoulder fracture
B. Pelvic fracture
C. Lumbar spine fracture
D. Femur fracture
A. Shoulder fracture
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| Term | Definition |
|---|---|
Pleural fluid is contained between the: Select one: A. parietal pleura and the heart. | B. visceral and parietal pleurae. |
The nerves control the diaphragm. Select one: A. vagus | D. phrenic |
The phrenic nerves control the diaphragm and exit the spinal cord at: Select one: A. C1 and C2. | B. C3, C4, and C5. |
Which of the following organs or structures does NOT reside within the mediastinum? Select one: A. Vena cavae | B. Lungs |
Accumulation of blood in the abdominal cavity will MOST likely cause: Select one: A. nausea or vomiting. | B. distention. |
Assuming that no obvious signs of intra-abdominal injury are present, which of the following injuries would MOST likely cause an injury to the liver or spleen to be overlooked? Select one: A. Shoulder fracture | A. Shoulder fracture |
Bruising to the right upper quadrant of the abdomen following blunt trauma is MOST suggestive of injury to the: Select one: A. kidney. | C. liver. |
Contraction or tensing of the abdominal muscles in an effort to ease pain is called: Select one: A. guarding. | A. guarding. |
During your assessment of a patient who experienced blunt trauma to the abdomen, you notice bruising around the umbilicus. This is a sign of: Select one: A. intra-abdominal bleeding. | A. intra-abdominal bleeding. |
Early bruising following abdominal trauma often manifests as: Select one: A. red areas of skin. | A. red areas of skin. |
Peritonitis usually occurs when: Select one: A. hollow abdominal organs are damaged and spill their contents into the peritoneal cavity. | A. hollow abdominal organs are damaged and spill their contents into the peritoneal cavity. |
The mesentery is: Select one: A. a complex network of blood vessels that supply blood to the liver. | B. a membranous fold that attaches the intestines to the walls of the body. |
The presence of tachycardia following a significant abdominal injury: Select one: A. should be assumed to be a sign of shock. | A. should be assumed to be a sign of shock. |
When worn properly, a seatbelt should lie: Select one: A. across the abdominal wall at the level of the diaphragm and below the hip joints. | C. below the anterior superior iliac spines of the pelvis and against the hip joints. |
A 20-year-old male collided with another player during a hockey game and complains of severe pain to the left shoulder. Assessment reveals that the clavicle is bulging anteriorly at the shoulder. The EMT should suspect: Select one: A. separation of the acromioclavicular joint. | A. separation of the acromioclavicular joint. |
A 45-year-old female was the unrestrained passenger of a small car that rear-ended another vehicle at a moderate rate of speed. She is conscious and alert, but complains of pain to both of her knees. There is visible damage to the dashboard on the passenger's side of the vehicle. In addition to fractures or dislocations of the knees, you should be MOST suspicious for: Select one: A. a thoracic spine fracture. | D. posterior hip dislocation. |
A 77-year-old woman slipped and fell on a throw rug and landed on her left hip. She denies striking her head or losing consciousness. Assessment of her left leg reveals that it is shortened and externally rotated. Distal pulses, sensory, and motor functions are intact. You should: Select one: A. manually stabilize her left leg, apply a traction splint, and then secure her to a long backboard or scoop. | C. place her onto a scoop stretcher, pad around her left hip with pillows, and secure her to the scoop with straps. |
A Colles fracture involves a fracture of the: Select one: A. distal radius. | A. distal radius. |
A fracture caused by minimal force that is associated with diseases such as cancer and osteoporosis is called a __ fracture. Select one: A. comminuted | D. pathologic |
A person who experiences a calcaneus fracture after jumping and landing on his or her feet would MOST likely experience an accompanying fracture of the: Select one: A. lumbar spine. | A. lumbar spine. |
A(n) __ fracture occurs in the growth section of a child's bone and may lead to bone growth abnormalities. Select one: A. metaphyseal | C. epiphyseal |
Atrophy is a condition that occurs when: | A. muscle decreases in size and function. |
Bone marrow produces: Select one: A. cartilage. B. electrolytes. C. lymphocytes. D. blood cells. | D. blood cells. |
Bones are connected to other bones by bands of tough fibrous tissues called: Select one: A. bursa. B. ligaments. C. cartilage. D. tendons. | B. ligaments. |
Care for a patient with a fractured tibia and suspected compartment syndrome includes: | A. keeping the leg at the level of the heart. |
Common signs and symptoms of a sprain include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. swelling. B. deformity. C. ecchymosis. D. point tenderness. | B. deformity. |
Deformity caused by a fracture would MOST likely be masked by: Select one: A. swelling. B. ecchymosis. C. crepitus. D. guarding. | A. swelling. |
Femoral shaft fractures can result in up to _____ mL of internal blood loss. Select one: A. 1,500 B. 4,000 C. 2,000 D. 1,000 | D. 1,000 |
Following direct trauma to the left upper back, a 44-year-old male presents with diaphoresis and restlessness. His blood pressure is 100/50 mm Hg, his pulse rate is 120 beats/min and weak, and his respirations are 24 breaths/min and labored. Your assessment reveals abrasions and contusions over the left scapula. You should: | C. apply high-flow oxygen, consider spinal precautions, and transport without delay. |
If a dislocated shoulder has spontaneously reduced before your arrival, the only way to confirm the injury is by noting: Select one: A. the presence of deformity. B. bruising to the shoulder. C. distal circulation. D. the patient history. | D. the patient history. |
In moving joints, the ends of the bones are covered with: Select one: A. articular cartilage. B. gliding cartilage. C. synovial tendons. D. muscular fascia. | A. articular cartilage. |
The act of pulling on a body structure in the direction of its normal alignment is called: Select one: A. traction. B. reduction. C. stabilization. D. immobilization. | A. traction. |
The MOST common and significant complication associated with fractures or dislocations of the knee is: Select one: A. ligament and cartilage damage. B. total depletion of synovial fluid. C. neurovascular compromise. D. internal bleeding and shock. | C. neurovascular compromise. |
The MOST commonly fractured bone(s) in the body is/are the: Select one: A. clavicle. B. radius and ulna. C. midshaft femur. D. scapula. | A. clavicle. |
A factory worker was splashed in the eyes with a strong acid chemical. He complains of intense pain and blurred vision. Your ambulance does not carry bottles of sterile saline or water. You should: Select one: A. irrigate both eyes continuously for 20 minutes with plain water. | A. irrigate both eyes continuously for 20 minutes with plain water. |
A 39-year-old male was struck in the head by a baseball during a game. He is confused and has slurred speech. He has a large hematoma in the center of his forehead and cannot remember the events preceding the injury. After manually stabilizing his head and assessing his airway, you should: Select one: A. administer high-flow oxygen. B. apply ice to the hematoma. C. perform a neurologic exam. D. palpate his radial pulses. | A. administer high-flow oxygen. Explanation The patient is exhibiting signs of a concussion (MOI, altered mental status, slurred speech, cannot remember the event) and needs to see a physician for possible traumatic brain injuries (TBI). Especially since hematomas are associates with severe tissue damage, and this example in the area of the brain, which is sensitive to pressure changes. Our focus here is to slow down the damage of possible secondary brain injury. Airway compromise from TBI comes in many forms. Irreversible brain damage can occur in TBI patients after only four minutes of anoxia, which can be caused by a compromised airway, altered respiratory patterns from the head injury, or lung injury in multi-system trauma. Use pulse-oximetry, skin color, and respiratory rate to assess adequate oxygenation. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula, non-rebreather mask, or bag valve to maintain a pulse-ox reading of at least 95%. Following MARCH algorithm: M - Massive Bleed Control - None Apparent - move to ABC's A - Airway Patent (AVPU, GCS, C-Spine Considerations) - Stabilized R - Respiration - Administer High Flow Oxygen (Correct Answer) C- Circulation - Pulse Rate, Blood Pressure H - Head Injuries & Other Injuries B. Incorrect - apply ice to the hematoma. This is not part of the primary assessment. This may play a role once life-threats have been cared for first. C. Incorrect - perform a neurologic exam. This will come into play after the ABC's have been managed. D. Incorrect - palpate his radial pulses. This is the C in both the ABC & MARCH algorithms, which follows breathing. High flow oxygen comes first. |
Which of the following statements regarding gunshot wounds is correct? Select one: A. high- velocity bullets will cause less severe internal injuries | D. the speed of a bullet has the greatest impact on producing injury |
A 4-year-old female has a peanut lodged in the external auditory canal of her right ear. You should: Select one: A. transport her to the emergency department. | A. transport her to the emergency department. |
A 67-year-old male presents with weakness, dizziness, and melena that began approximately 2 days ago. He denies a history of trauma. His blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg and his pulse is 120 beats/min and thready. You should be MOST suspicious that this patient is experiencing: Select one: A. acute appendicitis. | C. gastrointestinal bleeding. |
The ideal procedure for moving an injured patient from the ground to a backboard is: Select one: A. the use of a scoop stretcher. | D. the four-person log roll. |
Which of the following statements regarding the vitreous humor is correct? Select one: A. It is a clear, watery fluid surrounding the eye and can be replaced if it is lost. | B. It is a clear, jellylike fluid near the back of the eye that cannot be replaced if it is lost. |
What part of the nervous system controls the body's voluntary activities? Select one: A. Central | C. Somatic |
A 43-year-old man is experiencing a severe nosebleed. His blood pressure is 190/110 mm Hg and his heart rate is 90 beats/min and bounding. The preferred treatment for this patient includes: Select one: A. placing a rolled 4² × 4² dressing between his lower lip and gum. B. having the patient pinch his own nostrils and then lie supine. C. pinching the patient's nostrils and having him lean forward. D. packing both nostrils with gauze pads until the bleeding stops. | C. pinching the patient's nostrils and having him lean forward. Explanation The elevated blood pressure (which may be the cause of the nose bleed) indicates that the blood vessels need to be closed off (i.e. pinch). Leaning forward keeps the blood in one spot and contributes to clotting. Also, this prevents an airway obstruction as the blood doesn't drain down the throat. A. Incorrect - placing a rolled 4² × 4² dressing between his lower lip and gum. This does little to stop the bleed other than waiting on the clotting factors. The increased blood pressure, possibly what caused the bleed, indicates clotting faster may need help. B. Incorrect - having the patient pinch his own nostrils and then lie supine. Laying down will keep the blood drawing away from the wound. Keeping the blood at the wound increases clotting factors. Also, this has the potential to create an airway obstruction as the blood drains down the throat. D. Incorrect - packing both nostrils with gauze pads until the bleeding stops. This can make the bleeding worse. |
In which of the following patients should you remove an impaled object? Select one: A. A pulseless and apneic patient with a knife impaled in the back B. A semiconscious patient with an ice pick impaled in the chest C. An apneic patient with a shard of glass impaled in the abdomen D. A conscious and alert patient with a fishhook impaled in the eye | A. A pulseless and apneic patient with a knife impaled in the back Explanation "The only exceptions to the rule of not removing an impaled object are the objects in the cheek or mouth that obstruct breathing and objects in the chest that directly interfere with performing CPR on a patient who is already in cardiac arrest." (pg 920) Being pulseless and apneic, the patient is already in cardiac arrest and the position of the knife would make it impossible to perform CPR. B. Incorrect - A semiconscious patient with an ice pick impaled in the chest This patient is not in cardiac arrest as they are semiconscious. Also, depending on the location of the ice pick, it may or may not interfere with CPR. With the provided information, removal is not indicated. C. Incorrect - An apneic patient with a shard of glass impaled in the abdomen This patient has a shard of glass in their abdomen and will not compromise CPR. Also, this patient is apneic, and it is possible to be apneic with cardiac activity, albeit not for long, thus it is not indicated that they are in cardiac arrest. D. Incorrect - A conscious and alert patient with a fishhook impaled in the eye The fishhook does not impair CPR, and there is a high probability that definitive care is required to remove the hook to salvaged function in the eye. |
Internal bleeding into a fractured extremity is MOST often controlled by: Select one: A. splinting the extremity. B. applying a tourniquet. C. keeping the patient warm. D. applying chemical ice pack. | A. splinting the extremity (pg 894) Explanation "Air splints (commonly known as soft splints or pressure splints) can control internal or external bleeding associated with severe extremity injuries, such as fractures. They also immobilize the fracture itself. An air splint acts like a pressure dressing applied to an entire extremity rather than to a small local area." (pg 894) B. applying a tourniquet. This cuts off blood but would not stop the bone shards from tearing into surrounding tissues increasing bleeding once the tourniquet is removed, and does not stop the bone tissues from being further damaged due to movement. C. keeping the patient warm. This will help to treat shock, but will not stop bleeding nor prevent the fracture from becoming worse. D. applying chemical ice pack. This can help reduce blood rushing to the area, but it may not stop the bleeding not stabilize the fracture. |
What mechanism(s) does the body use to control bleeding? Select one: A. Clotting B. Coagulation C. Vasoconstriction D. All of these answers are correct. | D. All of these answers are correct. |
Which types of motor vehicle collisions present the greatest potential for multiple impacts? Select one: A. Lateral and rollover | C. Rotational and rollover |
Burns to pediatric patients are generally considered more serious than burns to adults because: Select one: A. most burns in children are the result of child abuse. B. pediatric patients have a proportionately larger volume of blood. C. pediatric patients are more prone to hyperthermia. D. pediatric patients have more surface area relative to total body mass. | D. pediatric patients have more surface area relative to total body mass. Explanation (pg. 927) "Burns to children are generally considered more serious than burns to adults. The reason is infants and children have more surface area relative to body mass, which means greater fluid and heat loss. In addition, children do not tolerate burns as well as adults do. Children are also more likely to go into shock, have hypothermia develop, and experience airway difficulties because of the unique differences associated with their ages and anatomy. Many burns in infants and children result from child abuse. The classic burn resulting from deliberate immersion involves the hands and wrists, as well as the feet, lower legs, and buttocks. Similarly burns around the genitals and multiple cigarette burns should be viewed as possible abuse. Report all suspected cases of abuse to the proper authorities, especially those where significant delaying evaluation and treatment is evident. A. Incorrect - most burns in children are the result of child abuse. This is a serious concern, that needs to be taken into account. Priority goes to the life-threatening conditions first. B. Incorrect - pediatric patients have a proportionately larger volume of blood. Despite a smaller stature, burned children have a greater body surface area per mass than adults. Cardiac function, mean blood volume, and normal hemoglobin levels are age-dependent in children; hence, children have a higher blood transfusion/unit volume ratio. C. Incorrect - pediatric patients are more prone to hyperthermia. This is secondary to the burn area. |
A 21-year-old male was working in an auto repair shop and sustained radiator burns to the anterior aspect of both arms and to his anterior chest. According to the rule of nines, this patient has burns that cover _ of his BSA. Select one: A. 45% B. 27% C. 18% D. 36% | C. 18% Explanation (scroll down and click on the picture for visual) One side of Right Arm = 4.5% One side of Left Arm = 4.5% Upper Chest Area = 9% Total = 18% |
Once a cervical collar has been applied to a patient with a possible spinal injury, it should not be removed unless: Select one: A. sensory and motor functions remain intact. | D. it causes a problem managing the airway. |
A 6-year-old female was riding her bicycle and struck a clothesline with her throat. She is breathing, but with obvious difficulty. Your assessment reveals a crackling sensation in the soft tissues of her neck and facial cyanosis. In addition to the appropriate airway management, the intervention that will MOST likely improve her chance of survival is: Select one: A. careful monitoring her vital signs. | B. rapidly transporting her to the hospital. |
When assessing a patient who experienced a blast injury, it is important to remember that: Select one: A. solid organs usually rupture from the pressure wave. | C. primary blast injuries are the most easily overlooked. Explanation: Types of Blast Injuries Primary blast injury: Primary blast injury is due to the supersonic over-pressurization blast wave unique to high-order (HE) explosives. HE devices involve a detonation or the nearly instantaneous transformation of solid or liquid into a gas state. When this blast over-pressure wave strikes body surfaces, it can cause pulmonary barotrauma, rupture of the eardrum, perforation of gas-filled structures like the intestines or gallbladder, ocular rupture and concussion – even in the absence of obvious physical head injury. Secondary blast injury: Low-order (LE) explosions are typically deflagrations whose exothermic wave is subsonic and isn’t nearly as powerful. By definition, LE explosions are unable to cause primary blast injury. However, they may cause injury resulting from flying debris, bomb fragments and projectiles causing blunt and penetrating trauma known as secondary blast injury. When documenting injury from pieces of a device itself, it is more correct to use the term “fragmentation” as opposed to "shrapnel." Shrapnel injury technically can only come from actual shrapnel shells where relatively low velocity lead balls are ejected from a casing that remains intact. Tertiary blast injuries: Tertiary blast injury results from the human body actually being thrown by the blast wind and may manifest as fractures, traumatic amputations and brain injuries. Quaternary blast injuries: Quaternary blast injury is everything else not caused by primary, secondary or tertiary mechanisms. Examples include burns, angina, crush injuries, asthma or COPD exacerbations due to dust, smoke or toxic fumes. |
Which of the following statements regarding crush syndrome is correct? Select one: A. With crush syndrome, massive blood vessel damage occurs following severe soft-tissue injuries, such as amputation of an extremity. B. Tissue damage that occurs in crush syndrome is severe, but kidney injury is unlikely because toxins are quickly eliminated from the body. C. Compromised arterial blood flow leads to crush syndrome and can occur when an area of the body is trapped for longer than 4 hours. D. Provided that a patient with a crush injury is freed from entrapment within 6 hours, the amount of tissue damaged is generally minimal. | C. Compromised arterial blood flow leads to crush syndrome and can occur when an area of the body is trapped for longer than 4 hours. Explanation A crushing injury occurs when significant force is applied to the body. The extent of the damage depends on how much force is applied and how long it is applied. In addition to causing direct soft tissue damage, continued compression of the soft tissues cut off circulation, producing further tissue destruction. […] When an area of the body is trapped for longer than 4 hours and arterial blood is compromised, crushed syndrome can develop. What a patient's tissues are crisp and repair, muscle cells die and release harmful substances into the surrounding tissues. The opposing force prevents blood from returning to the injured part of the body, so these harmful substances are released into the body circulation after the Lamb is freed and blood flow is returned. (pg 908) A. Incorrect - With crush syndrome, massive blood vessel damage occurs following severe soft-tissue injuries, such as amputation of an extremity. With course syndrome, massive blood vessel damage does occur, but not by a severing soft-tissue injury, such as amputation. With crush syndrome, the patient's tissues are crushed beyond repair, muscle cells die, and release harmful substances into the surrounding tissues while they are still attached to the patient's body. (pg 908) B. Incorrect - Tissue damage that occurs in crush syndrome is severe, but kidney injury is unlikely because toxins are quickly eliminated from the body. "Bring the limb or the body part from entrapment not only results in the release of the byproducts of metabolism and harmful products of tissue destruction, but also creates the potential for cardiac and renal failure." (pg 908) D. Incorrect - Provided that a patient with a crush injury is freed from entrapment within 6 hours, the amount of tissue damaged is generally minimal. As described above, 4 hours of the body being trapped in arterial blood flow being compromised is sufficient to indicate crushed syndrome. |
A man jumped from the roof of his house and landed on his feet. He complains of pain to his heels, knees, and lower back. This mechanism of injury is an example of: Select one: A. hyperflexion. | B. axial loading. |
Which of the following breathing patterns is MOST indicative of increased intracranial pressure? Select one: A. Increased rate with a normal inspiratory time and a prolonged expiratory time B. Increased rate and depth with the distinct odor of acetone on the patient's breath C. Irregular rate, pattern, and volume of breathing with intermittent periods of apnea D. Slow, shallow, occasional gasps that progress to prolonged periods of apnea | C. Irregular rate, pattern, and volume of breathing with intermittent periods of apnea |
A 56-year-old male has an incomplete avulsion to his right forearm. After controlling any bleeding from the wound, you should: Select one: A. carefully remove the avulsed flap and wrap it in a moist, sterile trauma dressing. B. replace the avulsed flap to its original position and cover it with a sterile dressing. C. thoroughly irrigate the wound with sterile water and cover it with a sterile dressing. D. carefully probe the wound to determine if the bleeding is venous or arterial. | B. replace the avulsed flap to its original position and cover it with a sterile dressing. Explanation (pg. 909) "If the avulsion tissue is hanging from a small piece of skin, the circulation through the flap may be at risk. If you can, replace the flat ovals flap in its original position as long as it is not visibly contaminated with dirt and/or other floor materials." A. Incorrect - carefully remove the avulsed flap and wrap it in a moist, sterile trauma dressing. Removing that flap of skin may prolong the healing process; if it is still vascularized, removing it will cause more damage. C. Incorrect - thoroughly irrigate the wound with sterile water and cover it with a sterile dressing. Irrigating is a good step to remove debris. This is missing the replacement of the flap (i.e. incomplete avulsion). Only after replacing the flap would you cover an incomplete avulsion with a sterile dressing. Rinse the wound with water or saline solution, the cleaner the better. Sterile irrigation is the best. This will restart the bleeding in many cases. That's OK. It's good to clean the wound as well as stop the bleeding. If the bleeding was difficult to stop and you are concerned that it will be out of control if you rinse the wound, then don't worry about it. Get the patient to an emergency department immediately. D. Incorrect - carefully probe the wound to determine if the bleeding is venous or arterial. Probing the wound will cause more damage. Knowing whether it's capillary, arterial, or venous is not necessary. It's better to gauge the amount of bleeding and aid in sterilizing & clotting. |
A tight-fitting motorcycle helmet should be left in place unless: Select one: A. the patient must be placed onto a long backboard. | D. it interferes with your assessment of the airway. |
While en route to a major motor vehicle crash, an on-scene police officer advises you that a 6-year-old male who was riding in the front seat is involved. He further states that the child was only wearing a lap belt and that the air bag deployed. On the basis of this information, you should be MOST suspicious that the child has experienced: Select one: A. neck and facial injuries | A. neck and facial injuries |
According to the Association of Air Medical Services, you should consider air medical transport of a trauma patient if: Select one: A. the patient requires advanced life support care and stabilization, and the nearest ALS-ground ambulance is more than 5 to 10 minutes away. B. traffic conditions hamper the ability to get the patient to a trauma center by ground within the ideal time frame for the best clinical outcome. C. ground transport will take your ambulance out of service for an extended period of time, regardless of the severity of the patient's injuries. D. he or she was involved in a motor vehicle crash in which another occupant in the same vehicle was killed, even if your patient's injuries are minor. | B. traffic conditions hamper the ability to get the patient to a trauma center by ground within the ideal time frame for the best clinical outcome. |
The five sections of the spinal column, in descending order, are the: Select one: A. thoracic, cervical, lumbar, coccygeal, and sacral. | C. cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacral, and coccygeal. |
During your primary assessment of a 19-year-old unconscious male who experienced severe head trauma, you note that his respirations are rapid, irregular, and shallow. He has bloody secretions draining from his mouth and nose. You should: Select one: A. assist his ventilations with a BVM. | D. suction his oropharynx for up to 15 seconds. |
A 15-year-old female was struck by a small car while riding her bicycle. She was wearing a helmet and was thrown to the ground, striking her head. In addition to managing problems associated with airway, breathing, and circulation, it is MOST important for you to: Select one: A. leave her bicycle helmet on. | C. stabilize her entire spine. |
The severity of bleeding should be based on all of the following findings, EXCEPT: Select one: A. clinical signs and symptoms. B. the mechanism of injury. C. systolic blood pressure. D. poor general appearance. | C. systolic blood pressure. Explanation "Remember that blood pressure may be the last measurable factor to change in shock. As we have seen, the body has serval automatic mechanisms to compensate for the initial blood loss and to help maintain blood pressure. Thus, by the time you detect a drop in blood pressure, shock is well developed." (pg 496-497) |
Which of the following interventions is the MOST critical to the outcome of a patient with multisystem trauma? Select one: A. Intravenous fluid administration | C. Rapid transport to a trauma center |
A 33-year-old male sustained an abdominal evisceration to the left lower quadrant of his abdomen after he was cut with a large knife. After appropriately managing his ABCs and assessing him for other life-threatening injuries, how you should care for his wound? Select one: A. Carefully replace the exposed bowel into the abdomen and transport. B. Cover it with moist, sterile gauze and secure with an occlusive dressing. C. Irrigate it with sterile water and cover it with a dry dressing. D. Cover the exposed bowel and keep his legs in a straight position. | B. Cover it with moist, sterile gauze and secure with an occlusive dressing Explanation The wound is managed in the prehospital setting by covering the eviscerated contents with a moist, sterile gauze or trauma dressing to prevent further contamination and drying. Abdominal eviscerations are a surgical emergency. The protruding organ requires careful cleaning and evaluation prior to reinsertion into the peritoneal cavity by definitive care. No attempt should be made to replace eviscerated organs into the peritoneal cavity A. Incorrect - Carefully replace the exposed bowel into the abdomen and transport. This has a high potential cause harm to the bowels due to exerted force on the bowels by pushing or tugging on them; this is in addition to the high probability to transfer microorganisms to the exposed organs. C. Incorrect - Irrigate it with sterile water and cover it with a dry dressing. Only a surgical staff should clean the bowels. A dry dressing would adhere to the organs and cause further damage D. Incorrect - Cover the exposed bowel and keep his legs in a straight position. This does not specify the moist sterile gauze, not the need for an occlusive dressing to maintain the moisture. |
In older patients, the first indicator of non-traumatic internal bleeding may be: Select one: A. a low blood pressure. B. weakness or dizziness. C. diaphoresis and pale skin. D. a heart rate over 120 beats/min. | B. weakness or dizziness. (pg 885) Explanation Basically, it's because the book says so and doesn't offer more on as to why this is a first indicator. A. a low blood pressure. Low blood pressure (LBP) alone is a late stage of shock and would be traumatic. Non-traumatic, LBP can also be caused by certain medications that are more prevalent in older patients C. diaphoresis and pale skin. Diaphoresis and pale skin are indicators of shock D. a heart rate over 120 beats/min. This is simply tachycardic |
In contrast to a cerebral concussion, a cerebral contusion: Select one: A. does not cause pressure within the skull. | B. involves physical injury to the brain tissue. |
Common signs and symptoms of a serious head injury include all of the following, EXCEPT: Select one: A. widening pulse pressure. | B. a rapid, thready pulse. |
The index of suspicion is MOST accurately defined as: Select one: A. the detection of less obvious life-threatening injuries. | C. your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying injuries. |
Which of the following statements regarding secondary brain injury is correct? Select one: A. Because cerebral edema develops quickly, it is considered to be a primary brain injury. B. Hypoxia and hypotension are the two most common causes of secondary brain injury. C. It results from direct brain trauma following an impact to the head. D. Signs are often present immediately after an impact to the head. | B. Hypoxia and hypotension are the two most common causes of secondary brain injury. |
You should be MOST suspicious that a patient has experienced a significant head injury if his or her pulse is: Select one: A. rapid. | C. slow. |
When caring for a patient with an open facial injury, the EMT's immediate priority should be to: Select one: A. manually stabilize the patient's head. | B. wear gloves and facial protection. |
When the speed of a motor vehicle doubles, the amount of kinetic energy: Select one: A. quadruples. | A. quadruples. |
The MOST significant complication associated with facial injuries is: Select one: A. damage to the eyes. | D. airway compromise. |
Which of the following open soft-tissue injuries is limited to the superficial layer of the skin and results in the least amount of blood loss? Select one: A. Avulsion B. Incision C. Laceration D. Abrasion | D. Abrasion Explanation An abrasion is a wound of the superficial layer of the skin, caused by friction when a body part rubs or scrapes across a rough or hard surface. An abrasion usually does not penetrate completely through the dermis, but blood may ooze from the injured capillaries in the dermis. Also known as road rash, road burn, and rug burn, abrasions can be extremely painful because the nerve endings are located in this area. (pg. 909) A. Incorrect - Avulsion An avulsion is an injury that separates various layers of soft tissue (usually between the subcutaneous layer & fascia) so they become either completely detached or hang by a flap. Often there is significant bleeding. (pg 909) B. Incorrect - Incision A sharp, smooth cut. The depth and severity of the injury can vary. (pg 909) C. Incorrect - Laceration A jagged cut in the skin caused by a sharp object or blunt force that tears the skin. The depth and severity of the injury can vary. (pg 909) |
If your patient swallows blood following facial trauma, there is an increased risk of . Select one: A. altered LOC | D. vomiting |
Bleeding from soft-tissue injuries to the face is MOST effectively controlled with: Select one: A. direct pressure using dry, sterile dressings. | A. direct pressure using dry, sterile dressings. |
Which of the following is a severe burn in a 65-year-old patient? Select one: A. Superficial burn to 30% of the BSA B. Second-degree burn covering 10% of the BSA C. Full-thickness burn to 1% of the BSA D. Partial-thickness burn to 20% of the BSA | D. Partial-thickness burns to 20% of the BSA Explanation Burns that would be considered "moderate" on a young adult are classified as "Severe" on patients younger than 5 years or older than 55 years. (pg 925; Table 26-1) These include: (moderate in young adults, severe in over 55 years old) Superficial burns covering more than 50% of the Body's Total Surface Area (BSA) A. Superficial burn to 30% of the BSA This superficial burn is under 50% BSA and does not meet the 50% BSA threshold. B. Incorrect - Second-degree burn covering 10% of the BSA This is a partial-thickness under 15% BSA and does not meet the 15% to 30% threshold. C. Incorrect - Full-thickness burn to 1% of the BSA This is a full-thickness under 2% BSA and does not meet the 2% to 10% threshold. |
The Adam's apple is: Select one: A. below the thyroid cartilage and forms the upper part of the trachea. B. the lower part of the larynx that is formed by the cricoid cartilage. C. the small indentation in between the thyroid and cricoid cartilages. D. the upper part of the larynx that is formed by the thyroid cartilage. | D. the upper part of the larynx that is formed by the thyroid cartilage. |
A young male was shot in the abdomen by an unknown type of gun. He is semiconscious, has shallow breathing, and is bleeding externally from the wound. As you control the external bleeding, your partner should: Select one: A. apply a nonrebreathing mask. B. assist the patient's ventilation. C. obtain baseline vital signs. D. perform a secondary assessment. | B. assist the patient's ventilation Explanation Semiconscious & shallow breathing indicates that the patient needs aid in increasing their respiration gas exchange (aka ventilation) A. Incorrect - apply a nonrebreathing mask. Semiconscious & shallow breathing contraindicate a nonrebreather mask as the patient may not be breathing sufficiently on heir own for this method to be effective C. Incorrect - obtain baseline vital signs Once the massive bleeding has received care, the next step is to take care of the ABC's (airway, breathing, circulation). Vitals are taken in process of the primary assessment & secondary assessment Another version of this is the MARCH algorithm. M- Massive Hemorrhage A - Airway R - Respiration C - Circulatory H - Head-to-Toe, Hypothermia D. Incorrect - perform a secondary assessment. Once the massive bleeding has received care, the next step is to take care of the ABC's (airway, breathing, circulation). These take priority over a secondary assessment. |
In addition to severe bleeding, the MOST life-threatening complication associated with an open neck injury is: Select one: A. a spinal fracture. B. an ischemic stroke. C. nerve fiber damage. D. an air embolism. | D. an air embolism. Explanation: For air to enter a closed system (i.e. vascular system), a connection must occur between the gas, the vessel, and a pressure gradient, that enables the flow of air into the vessel. An open neck injury presents this opportunity. Venous gas embolism can go to the lungs and block pulmonary blood flow. This can create pulmonary hypertension & right-heart failure quickly. A gas embolism that enters the heart can cause an "air lock" in the right side of the heart: the heart valves do not work properly, and the heart cannot eject the gas. Cardiac out then falls rapidly. This is fatal. A gas embolism that enters the arterial system or reaches the left side of the heart can be pumped into the arterial circulation, and then cause an infarction (i.e. blood flow blockage, lack of oxygen delivery, tissue death) in the vital organs, including the heart and brain. A. Incorrect - a spinal fracture. Spinal fracture with a neck injury is a consideration, but severe bleeding and an open neck injury indicate a gas embolism is likely. B. Incorrect - an ischemic stroke. Ischemic strokes occur in arteries where blood only. A gas embolism can enter either the venous or arterial system. Uniquely saying it can cause an ischemic stroke leaves a venous blockage out and thus is less complete of an answer as "air embolism." C. Incorrect - nerve fiber damage. Nerve fiber damage with a neck injury is a consideration, but severe bleeding and an open neck injury indicate a gas embolism is likely. |
Which of the following processes occurs during the inflammation phase of the healing process? Select one: A. The veins and arteries at the injury site constrict and platelets aggregate, which stops bleeding and causes a temporary increase in the size of the wound. B. The blood vessels in and around the injury site constrict, which forces bacteria and other microorganisms away, thus preventing significant infection. C. White blood cells are forced away from the injury site, thus allowing an increase in the flow of red blood cells, resulting in increased blood flow. D. The immune system releases histamines, which cause vasodilation and increased capillary permeability, resulting in local redness and swelling. | D. The immune system releases histamines, which cause vasodilation and increased capillary permeability, resulting in local redness and swelling. Explanation: Histamine is not only the major mediator of the acute inflammatory and immediate hypersensitivity responses but has also been demonstrated to affect chronic inflammation and regulate several essential events in the immune response. A. Incorrect - The veins and arteries at the injury site constrict and platelets aggregate, which stops bleeding and causes a temporary increase in the size of the wound. This is the process of coagulation, not inflammation. (pg 883) B. Incorrect - The blood vessels in and around the injury site constrict, which forces bacteria and other microorganisms away, thus preventing significant infection. Constricting blood vessels reduces inflammation. The vessels' permeability drops so they do not leak and blood moves faster through them lessening the time it has to leave the vessel. C. Incorrect - White blood cells are forced away from the injury site, thus allowing an increase in the flow of red blood cells, resulting in increased blood flow. White blood cells flood areas of injury along with red blood cells. |
When immobilizing a trauma patient's spine, the EMT manually stabilizing the head should not let go until: Select one: A. the patient has been secured to the ambulance stretcher. B. the patient has been completely secured to the backboard. C. an appropriately sized cervical collar has been applied. D. the head has been stabilized with lateral immobilization. | B. the patient has been completely secured to the backboard. |