EPPP - EPPP Test Questions Part 2

d. shows little distress when separated from his/her mother and turns away from her when she returns. - CORRECT In Ainsworth’s "strange situation," insecure/anxious-avoidant children are uninterested in exploration, show little distress when separated from their mothers, and avoid her when she returns. Attachment patterns are categorized in terms of four types: secure, insecure/anxious-avoidant, insecure/anxious-ambivalent, and disorganized-disoriented.

a. is very distressed when separated from his/her mother and continues to be highly anxious when she returns. - Incorrect

b. is more anxious when his/her mother is present than absent and resists contact with her when she returns following separation. - Incorrect

c. is very distressed when separated from his/her mother but pulls away from her when she returns. - Incorrect

(Lifespan Development)

d. the degree of post-divorce conflict between the parents. - CORRECT Of the factors listed in the answers, the frequency and severity of post-divorce conflict between the parents has most consistently been linked to children’s adjustment. In fact, some experts argue that it is marital conflict – and not the divorce itself – that is responsible for children’s adjustment problems. A number of child and parent factors have been linked to children’s adjustment to the divorce of their parents.

(Lifespan Development)

d. the parents‭’ ‬childrearing behaviors -

CORRECT Patterson et al.’s “coercive family interaction model” attributes aggression in children primarily to interactions between parents and their children, especially interactions involving the parents’ childrearing behaviors. The social learning approach of Patterson and his colleagues focuses on the family factors that contribute to aggressiveness in children.

(Lifespan Development)

b. gender identity - CORRECT According to Kohlberg (1969), gender identity is the first stage in the acquisition of gender-role behaviors and occurs at about age 2 to 3. It is followed by gender stability (age 4) and then gender constancy (ages 6 to 7). Kohlberg’s cognitive-developmental model identifies three stages of gender-role acquisition – gender identity, gender stability, and gender constancy.

(Lifespan Development)

a. assimilation. - CORRECT Assimilation involves incorporating new knowledge into existing cognitive structures or schemes. The child in the question doesn't know what a dog is and is incorporating it into her existing “kitty” scheme. Piaget distinguished between two complementary processes that underlie cognitive development: assimilation and accommodation.

b. accommodation. - Incorrect Accommodation involves modifying an existing scheme or creating a new one.

c. categorization. - Incorrect Piaget did not use the term “categorization” to describe the incorporation of new knowledge into an existing cognitive scheme.

d. centration. - Incorrect Centration is a limitation of the preoperational stage and refers to the tendency to focus on the most salient aspect of an object.

(Lifespan Development)

d. Prader-Willi syndrome - CORRECT Prader-Willi syndrome is caused by a chromosomal deletion, which occurs when part of a chromosome is missing. Approximately 1 in 200 babies is born with a chromosomal abnormality.

a. Down Syndrome - Incorrect Down syndrome is attributable to the presence of an extra chromosome.

b. Turner syndrome - Incorrect Turner syndrome is caused by the absence of a chromosome. It occurs only in females and involves the absence of one X chromosome.

c. Klinefelter syndrome. - Incorrect Klinefelter syndrome is due to the presence of an extra chromosome.

(Lifespan Development)

c. 8‭ ‬to‭ ‬10 - CORRECT Although the experts differ somewhat with regard to the exact age of onset of stranger anxiety, most agree that it begins during the second half of the first year. Stranger anxiety involves anxious, fearful responses in the presence of a stranger, especially when a caregiver is not present.

(Lifespan Development)

a. disorganized/disoriented - CORRECT Mary Main, a student of Ainsworth, found that about 80% of maltreated children exhibit a disorganized/disoriented attachment pattern. Children who have been maltreated often exhibit disorganized, contradictory behaviors in the presence of their caregivers – e.g., they might reach out for the caregiver while backing away.

b. distant/disengaged. - Incorrect

c. insecure/avoidant. - Incorrect

d. insecure/ambivalent - Incorrect

(Lifespan Development)

a. removal of environmental toxins. - Incorrect

b. blood transfusions. - Incorrect

c. a special diet. - CORRECT PKU involves an inability to metabolize the amino acid phenylalanine. Mental retardation and other symptoms of PKU can be reduced or eliminated by a diet low in phenylalanine beginning at birth. PKU (phenylketonuria) is a recessive gene disorder.

d. antibiotics. - Incorrect

(Lifespan Development)

a. a critical period for attachment - CORRECT The ethologist Lorenz found that geese bonded to the first moving object they encounter during the first few days following birth. His research led to a search for a similar “critical period” for attachment in human infants. “Imprinting” refers to the bond that develops during a critical period following birth in some non-human species.

b. a biological explanation for language acquisition. - Incorrect

c. a sensitive period for social referencing - Incorrect See explanation for response a.

d. a biological mechanism for recognition memory. - Incorrect

(Lifespan Development)

b. cerebral cortex - CORRECT The cerebral cortex, which is responsible for higher-level cognitive skills, complex motor behaviors, language, and spatial skills, is almost completely undeveloped at birth. Not surprisingly, it is the higher centers of the brain that are least developed at birth.

(Lifespan Development)

c. differential validity. - CORRECT A test has differential validity when its validity coefficient for one group is different from its validity coefficient for another group. The selection test described in this question has different levels of validity for males and females.

a. incremental validity.- Incorrect A test's incremental validity refers to the benefits that use of the test provides with regard to decision-making accuracy.

b. discriminant validity. - Incorrect A test has discriminant (divergent) validity when it has low correlations with tests that measure different traits, characteristics, or abilities. Discriminant validity provides evidence of a test's construct validity.

d. convergent validity. - Incorrect A test has convergent validity when it correlates highly with tests that measure the same trait. Convergent validity provides evidence of construct validity.

(Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

a. the employee’s beliefs about the value of rewards provided for successful performance. - CORRECT According to expectancy theory, motivation is a function of three components: expectancy, instrumentality, and valence. Valence refers to the value a worker places on the outcomes that will be provided for successful performance. When these outcomes have positive valence, this increases the worker's motivation to perform.

b. the employee’s beliefs about the inherent‭ (‬intrinsic‭) ‬value of the work itself. - Incorrect

c. the strength of the worker's motivation and organizational commitment. - Incorrect

d. the strength of the effort‭ (‬versus ability‭) ‬component of the worker’s motivation. - Incorrect

(Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

b. are more effective than low LPC leaders in moderately favorable situations. - CORRECT According to Fiedler, low LPC leaders are most effective in low and high favorable situations, while high LPC leaders are most effective in moderately favorable situations. Fiedler's LPC (least preferred coworker) scale measures the extent to which a leader describes ineffective subordinates in positive terms. A high LPC leader is one who has nice things to say even about inefficient workers.

a. are always more effective than low LPC leaders. - Incorrect Fiedler's theory is a “contingency” theory and predicts that the most effective leadership style depends on the nature of the situation.

c. elicit less trust from supervisees than do low LPC leaders. - Incorrect This is not predicted by Fiedler’s theory.

d. elicit less intrinsic motivation from supervisees than do low LPC leaders. - Incorrect Fielder did not directly address the issue of job motivation but, because his theory is a contingency theory, it implies that the ability of high and low LPC leaders to foster the motivation of employees would depend on the nature of the situation.

(Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

a. make the organization’s goals more meaningful to employees. - CORRECT Transformational leaders recognize the need for change and are able to communicate that need to employees. Framing is one technique these leaders use to inspire employees and involves describing the organization’s goals in a way that makes them more meaningful to employees. Even if you're unfamiliar with “framing,” you may have been able to identify the correct answer with your knowledge of transformational leadership.

b. clarify the consequences of undesirable performance. - Incorrect

c. reduce personal biases in decision-making. - Incorrect The term “framing” is also used to refer to a type of decision-making bias. In that context, framing occurs when the description of a problem in a positive or negative way influences the type of decision that is made. However, this question is asking about the use of framing by transformational leaders.

d. adapt his/her leadership style to the characteristics of subordinates. - Incorrect

(Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

c. employees were not sufficiently involved in decision-making. - CORRECT Although TQM emphasizes team involvement in decision-making, too often decisions are made unilaterally by the supervisor. The primary goal of TQM is to continuously improve the quality of the organization’s products and services. This is accomplished by evaluating customer satisfaction, maximizing employee involvement and empowerment, and making continuous improvements in organizational processes. a. the team leader lacks adequate leadership skills. - Incorrect Although leader ability is always important, it has not been identified as a particular problem in TQM, which emphasizes the involvement of employees in decision-making processes. b. there was too much reliance on team‭ (‬versus individual) ‬effort. - Incorrect Team work is considered a key feature of TQM; and the research has shown that, under the right circumstances, team work is associated with positive outcomes for the company.‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ d. pay and other benefits were not adequately linked to team performance. - Incorrect This hasn't been identified as a problem by the research on TQM. (Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

d. job evaluation - CORRECT A job evaluation is conducted specifically for the purpose of determining the relative worth of jobs in order to set wages and salaries. Of the procedures listed in the answers, only one is conducted specifically to facilitate decisions related to compensation.

a. needs assessment - Incorrect A needs assessment is conducted to identify training needs.

b. organizational analysis - Incorrect An organizational analysis is often part of a needs assessment and is conducted to identify the organization’s goal

c. job analysis - Incorrect A job analysis is conducted to identify the essential characteristics of a job. Job analysis serves several functions in an organization and may be the first step in a job evaluation.

(Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

b. hire and promote managers. - CORRECT Assessment centers are used to evaluate managerial-level employees for the purpose of selection, promotion, or training and involve having participants engage in a variety of exercises, many of which simulate the actual tasks a manager performs on-the-job. Assessment centers were originally used during World War II as a means of selecting OSS agents. They are now used primarily for evaluating and predicting the performance of managerial-level employees.

(Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

a. a selection procedure is having an adverse impact. - CORRECT The 80% rule is described in the EEOC’s Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures and is used to determine if a selection test or other employment procedure is discriminating against members of a group protected by law. As defined by the 80% rule, a selection test is having an adverse impact when the proportion of minority-group applicants who are selected is less than 80% of the proportion of majority-group applicants who are selected.

b. a selection procedure is cost effective - Incorrect

c. a performance appraisal measure has adequate relevance.- Incorrect

d. a performance appraisal measure has adequate utility. Incorrect

(Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

a. unfreezing,‭ ‬changing,‭ ‬and refreezing - ‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬

CORRECT Unfreezing, changing, and refreezing are the three stages of planned change identified by Lewin. According to Lewin (1951), organizations continuously respond to forces that either promote or resist change.

b. forming,‭ ‬performing,‭ ‬and re-forming - Incorrect

c. identifying,‭ ‬planning,‭ ‬and acting - Incorrect

d. setting the stage, ‬problem-solving, ‬and reaching an agreement - Incorrect

(Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

d. reduce employee dissatisfaction and turnover. - CORRECT Two assumptions underlying the use of realistic job previews are that turnover is related to unrealistic expectations about the job and that providing applicants with accurate information about what the job entails will reduce unrealistic expectations and thereby decrease dissatisfaction and turnover. Realistic job previews may consist of job descriptions, videos, discussions with current employees, work samples, and/or other procedures or techniques.

(Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

c. positive effects on attitudes but little or no impact on productivity. - CORRECT Overall, alternative work schedules have been found to have more beneficial effects on attitudes than on productivity and this seems to be particularly true for the compressed workweek. For example, a meta-analysis of the research on the compressed workweek by Baltes and his colleagues (1999) found an effect size of .59 for satisfaction and .04 for productivity. The compressed workweek requires employees to work a 4-day, 40-hourweek.

d. positive effects on attitudes initially but, ‬over time,‭ ‬increasingly negative effects on both attitudes and productivity. - Incorrect

(Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

c. Because employees value money more than other incentives,‭ ‬pay is the most effective motivator. - CORRECT Taylor believed that employees are motivated primarily by economic self-interest and, therefore, that money is the most effective motivator. Scientific management was developed by Frederick Taylor (1911) who applied the scientific method to the study of job productivity

a. Employees view work‭ “‬as natural as play‭” ‬and actively seek autonomy and responsibility. Incorrect This describes McGregor’s Theory Y managers.‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬

b. An employee's relationships with his/her coworkers are important determinants of job satisfaction. - Incorrect This is an assumption of the human relations movement, which was an alternative to scientific management.

d. An employee's unfulfilled needs take precedence over other needs,‭ ‬and rewards should be determined accordingly. - Incorrect This sounds like Maslow’s need hierarchy theory.‬‬‬‬‬‬ (Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

a. evaluate an employee’s‭ ‬job performance. - CORRECT When using the paired comparison technique, an employee is compared to every other employee on each dimension of job performance. The paired comparison technique is a method of performance appraisal.

b. make hiring and placement decisions. Incorrect

c. identify an employee’s training needs -Incorrect

d. determine‭ ‬the appropriate compensation for a job. - Incorrect (Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

a. airline pilot - CORRECT Vestibule training is used when on-the-job training would be too costly or hazardous, as it would be in pilot training. Vestibule training involves the use of a simulated job environment.

b. word processor -Incorrect

c. salesperson. - Incorrect

d. clinical psychologist. - Incorrect (Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

a. needs analysis. - CORRECT Training program development begins with a needs analysis (also known as a needs assessment), which usually consists of three components: an organizational analysis, a job analysis, and a person analysis. For the exam, you want to be able to distinguish between needs analysis, job analysis, and job evaluation.

b. job evaluation. - Incorrect A job evaluation is conducted to determine the appropriate compensation for a job

c. summative evaluation. - Incorrect A summative evaluation is conducted to determine the effects of a training program or intervention after it has been developed.

d. formative evaluation. - Incorrect A formative evaluation is conducted while a training program or intervention is being developed to determine if modifications are required in order for the program or intervention to achieve its goals. (Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

b. adverse impact. - CORRECT As defined by the EEOC, adverse impact is suggested when there is a difference between groups in terms of rates of selection, promotion, et

c. The language in this question is nearly identical to that found in the EEOC’s Uniform Guidelines.

a. test bias. - Incorrect Test bias is a possible cause of adverse impact but is not the best answer to this question.

c. criterion deficiency. - Incorrect Criterion deficiency refers to the extent to which a criterion measure does not assess all of the aspects of the ultimate (accurate and complete) criterion.

d. situational specificity. - Incorrect Situational specificity is occurring when validity information is specific to a particular circumstance and does not generalize to other circumstances. (Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

b. decision-makers have complete information about all alternatives and their consequences before making decisions. -CORRECT From the perspective of the rational-economic model, "rational" means considering all alternatives and their consequences before making a decision. As its name implies, the rational-economic model assumes that decisions are based on a rational process.

a. decision-makers place more emphasis on the costs of certain decisions than on other consequences of their decisions. -Incorrect This is not an assumption of the rational-economic model.

c. individuals are better than groups at making decisions,‭ ‬especially under stressful conditions. - Incorrect This is not an assumption of this model.‬‬‬‬‬‬

d. decision-makers‭’ ‬knowledge about possible alternatives is always incomplete. - Incorrect A criticism of the rational-economic model is that it does not take into account that a decision-maker's knowledge about alternatives is often incomplete.‬‬‬‬‬‬ (Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

d. conjunctive - CORRECT On a conjunctive task, the performance of the least competent member places a limit on the group's product or performance. Mountain climbing is an example of a conjunctive task. Group tasks may be categorized as additive, compensatory, disjunctive, or conjunctive.

a. additive - Incorrect On additive tasks, the coordinated efforts of several people add together to form the group product.

b. compensatory - Incorrect When performing a compensatory task, the average of the contributions of all members of the group represents the group product.

c. disjunctive - Incorrect On a disjunctive task, the solution of one member of the group is chosen by the group to be the group’s solution. (Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

a. life career rainbow - CORRECT The life career rainbow relates the individual’s nine life roles (e.g., child, student, citizen) to five life stages (growth, exploration, establishment, maintenance, and disengagement). Super uses several pictures to illustrate elements of his life-space, life-span theory of career development.

b. life staircase - Incorrect Super does not use a life staircase to depict components of his theory.

c. mandala - Incorrect Super does not use a mandala to depict his theory.

d. octagon - Incorrect Super does not use an octagon to illustrate elements of his theory. (Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

c. skills and willingness to assume responsibility.- CORRECT Hersey and Blanchard distinguish between two aspects of employee maturity: Job maturity refers to the employee's knowledge and skills, while psychological maturity refers to the employee's self-confidence and willingness to assume responsibility. Hersey and Blanchard propose that a leader is most effective when his/her behavior matches the employee's level of maturity. (Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

c. protecting the public welfare. - CORRECT Psychology licensing boards protect the public by creating and enforcing regulations designed to ensure that psychologists meet minimal levels of competence. While the boards sanction psychologists for illegal and unethical behavior (answer b), this is only one of a number of functions that serve the overall goal of protecting public welfare. The primary goal of the psychology licensing board is the protection of the publi

c. (Ethics & Professional Issues)

c. Inflicting pain or stress on animals is acceptable in research only when an alternative‭ (‬nonpainful‭) ‬procedure is unavailable and the use of the procedure is justified by the potential value of the study. -‬‬‬ CORRECT Standard 8.09(e) of the Ethics Code states that “psychologists use a procedure subjecting animals to pain, stress, or privation only when an alternative procedure is unavailable and the goal is justified by its prospective scientific, educational, or applied value.” Principle II.46 of the Canadian Code of Ethics provides a nearly identical guideline. Standard 8.09 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle II.46 of the Canadian Code of Ethics address the use of animals in research. (Ethics & Professional Issues Q - 5140)

c. contact the client first to inform her of your intent to use a collection agency if she does not pay her outstanding fees by a specific date. - CORRECT The use of a collection agency is explicitly addressed by Standard 6.04 of the APA’s Ethics Code and indirectly addressed by Principles I.12 and III.14 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Psychologists always want to treat clients fairly, and the best policy would be to send a letter to the client informing her of your intent to use a collection agency prior to actually doing so. Informing the client is consistent with the provisions of Standard 6.04(e) of the Ethics Code, which states that if psychologists plan to use a collection agency or other legal means to collect unpaid fees, they “first inform the person that such measures will be taken and provide that person an opportunity to make prompt payment.”

a. decide not to do so because using a collection agency is prohibited by the ethical guidelines. - Incorrect Use of a collection agency is not prohibited by ethical guidelines.

b. do so only if you had informed the client at the beginning of therapy that you would do so if she did not pay her fees in a timely manner. - Incorrect Informing the client of your policy at the beginning of therapy is a good idea but is not sufficient.

d. use a collection agency only as a‭ “‬last resort.‭” - Incorrect This answer does not address your ethical obligation in this situation.‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬ (Ethics & Professional Issues)

d. unethical when the solicited individuals are susceptible to exploitation or undue influence. - CORRECT This issue is addressed by Standard 5.06 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle III.31 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Although uninvited in-person solicitation of therapy clients is not entirely prohibited by ethical guidelines, the guidelines limit the types of in-person solicitation that are acceptable. Standard 5.06 states that “psychologists do not engage … in uninvited in-person solicitation of business [from persons who] … are vulnerable to undue influence”; and Principle III.31 states that psychologists do not exploit others by, for example, “taking advantage of trust or dependency to frighten clients into receiving services,” which might occur when in-person solicitations are uninvited. c. unethical only when they provide potential clients with misleading or inaccurate information. - Incorrect Providing individuals with inaccurate or misleading information would be unethical, but this answer states that solicitation is unethical only in this circumstance, which is not the case. (Ethics & Professional Issues)

c. tell Mrs.‭ ‬Lopez that it would be best if you discussed this matter with Leticia. - ‬‬‬‬‬ CORRECT This course of action is most consistent with the ethical guidelines and is also likely to be in the best interests of Leticia from a clinical perspective. Leticia is an adult and, even though her mother is paying for her therapy, this does not limit Leticia’s confidentiality.

a. give Mrs.‭ ‬Lopez the specific advice she has requeste

d. - Incorrect Discussing Leticia’s status with her mother without Leticia’s consent would represent a breach of confidentiality.‬‬‬‬‬‬

b. tell Mrs.‭ ‬Lopez to ask Leticia what she‭ (‬Mrs.‭ ‬Lopez‭) ‬can do to help her. - Incorrect This alternative does not explicitly violate ethical guidelines, but response c is a better answer. ‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬

d. suggest that Mrs.‭ ‬Lopez accompany Leticia to her next therapy session. - Incorrect This would not be the most appropriate course of action from either an ethical or clinical perspective.‬‬‬‬‬‬ (Ethics & Professional Issues)

b. supervisor - CORRECT A psychologist may have vicarious liability when his/her employee or supervisee engages in illegal behavior. Vicarious liability (also known as derivative and secondary liability) is a legal term that refers to a person’s responsibility for the actions of another person. (Ethics & Professional Issues)

d. allow the student to withdraw from the study. - CORRECT This answer is most consistent with ethical guidelines. Standard 8.02(a) states that research participants must be free to “decline to participate and to withdraw from the research once participation has begun”; and Principle I.24 similarly states that research participants must have “the option to refuse or withdraw at any time, without prejudice.” This issue is addressed by Standard 8.02 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle I.24 of the Canadian Code of Ethics.

a. warn the student that withdrawal from the study will affect his course grade. - Incorrect Simply warning the student of the negative consequences of withdrawing from the study would be coercive and, therefore, a violation of the ethical guidelines.

b. remind the student that he signed an informed consent and cannot now request that his data be withdrawn. - Incorrect

c. tell the student that his name will be removed from all data and include his data in the study. - Incorrect (Ethics & Professional Issues)

d. it is unnecessary to advise the client of the consultation as long as the client's identity is not reveale

d. - CORRECT Consultation is addressed in Standard 4.06 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principles I.38 and 45 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. This answer most accurately describes a psychologist’s ethical obligation when consulting with a colleague about a therapy client.

a. it is always necessary to advise the client about the consultation. - Incorrect This answer does not accurately describe ethical requirements related to consultation.

b. it is necessary to get a signed waiver of confidentiality from the client before discussing confidential information with the consultant. - Incorrect Obtaining a waiver of confidentiality is not necessary as long as the client's identity is not reveale

d. c. it is unnecessary to advise the client of the consultation as long as only information that is relevant to the impasse is discusse

d. -Incorrect This answer does not accurately describe ethical requirements related to consultation. (Ethics & Professional Issues)

a. legal and ethical. - CORRECT Pro bono services are not directly addressed by the APA’s Ethics Code or the Canadian Code of Ethics. However, providing services for no compensation to serve the public good is certainly legal and ethical. In terms of ethical requirements, for example, pro bono services are consistent with General Principle A of the Ethics Code which states that psychologists “strive to contribute a portion of their professional time for little or no compensation or personal advantage.” Pro bono services are professional services that are provided for no compensation for the public good.

b. legal but unethical. - Incorrect

c. illegal but ethical. - Incorrect

d. illegal and unethical. - Incorrect (Ethics & Professional Issues Online Quiz - 5159)

d. has acted unethically by violating the requirements of the ethical guidelines regarding employment procedures. - CORRECT Standard 1.08 of the APA’s Ethic Code prohibits denying a person a promotion “based solely upon their having made or their being the subject of an ethics complaint.” Note that this prohibition does not necessarily preclude doing so when a charge against a person has been proven (in the situation described in this question, the charge is unresolved). Although the Canadian Code of Ethics does not explicitly address this situation, Principle I.13 states that psychologists “abide by due process or other natural justice procedures for employment.” This situation is explicitly addressed by Standard 1.08 of the APA’s Ethics Code and indirectly addressed by Principle I.13 of the Canadian Code of Ethics.

a. has acted ethically since sexual harassment is explicitly prohibited by the ethical guidelines. - Incorrect

b. has acted ethically as long as he is willing to consider the psychologist for promotion if he is acquitted of the harassment charge.- Incorrect See explanation for response d. c. has acted ethically as long as his decision is consistent with the stated promotion policy of the mental health facility. - Incorrect (Ethics & Professional Issues)

c. attempt to resolve the conflict but adhere to legal requirements when this is not possible. - CORRECT Standard 1.02 of the APA’s Ethics Code states that “if psychologists’ ethical responsibilities conflict with law, regulations, or other governing legal authority, psychologists make known their commitment to the Ethics Code and take steps to resolve the conflict. If the conflict is unresolvable via such means, psychologists may adhere to the requirements of the law, regulations, or other governing legal authority.” In other words, psychologists are not required to violate the law in order to fulfill their ethical obligations. This issue is addressed by Standard 1.02 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle IV.17 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. (Ethics & Professional Issues)

b. a psychologist’s‭ “‬duty to protect‭” ‬the intended victim of a therapy client. - CORRECT Although the original 1974 Tarasoff decision established a “duty to warn” the intended victim of a therapy client, that decision was superceded by the 1976 rehearing of the case which established a “duty to protect” the intended victim. Specifically, the 1976 ruling states that a psychotherapist has a duty to protect an intended victim of a therapy client by warning “the intended victim or others likely to apprise the victim of the danger, [notifying] the police, or … [taking] whatever other steps are reasonably necessary under the circumstances.” The Tarasoff ruling established that client-therapist confidentiality must be breached when a client is a danger to others.

(Ethics & Professional Issues)

a. ethically acceptable since it serves the best interests of his clients. - CORRECT Sliding scale fees for psychological services are consistent with the “spirit” of ethical guidelines as long as they are fair and serve the best interests of the client. Sliding scale fees are not explicitly addressed in the APA’s Ethics Code or the Canadian Code of Ethics

b. explicitly recommended in the ethical guidelines. - Incorrect

c. ethically unacceptable since it treats clients inequitably. - Incorrect

d. explicitly prohibited in the ethical guidelines. Incorrect

(Ethics & Professional Issues)

c. the best interests of the child. - CORRECT Regardless of who employed the psychologist, the child's best interests (which may or may not be consistent with the child’s desires) are a priority, and a psychologist should make this clear to all parties at the outset. In child custody cases, the child’s best interests are always the primary concern for the psychologist and the court.

(Ethics & Professional Issues)

c. release only that information you believe to be relevant to the school's concerns. - CORRECT The most ethical course of action in this situation would be to release only information that is relevant to the school's role in the boy's treatment. Doing so would be consistent with the provisions of Standard 4.04(a) of the APA’s Ethics Code, which states that written and oral reports include “only information germane to the purpose for which the communication is made.” It is also consistent with the provisions of Principles I.37 and 39 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Since the boy’s parents have signed a release, you would ordinarily provide information to the school principal – but not necessarily all of the information that has been requested.

(Ethics & Professional Issues)

c. Deception is prohibited whenever it involves deceiving potential participants about aspects of the study that would affect their willingness to participate. - CORRECT The use of deception in research is addressed in Standard 8.07 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principles III.23, 24, and 27 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. According to ethical guidelines, deception can be used in research only when it is justified by the study's potential value, when it has been determined that alternative procedures are not available, and when participants are not deceived about aspects of a study that would otherwise influence their willingness to participate in the study.

(Ethics & Professional Issues)

b. begin therapy with her and discuss the potential for conflicts during the initial session and,‭ ‬if necessary,‭ ‬in subsequent sessions. - CORRECT The ethical guidelines discourage multiple relationships whenever there is a potential for exploitation or loss of objectivity. The prohibition against multiple relationships is not absolute, however, so if Dr. Solo is the only psychologist in town, seeing the teacher and discussing the potential for conflict is the best choice. A better course of action might be to see if the teacher can be treated by a therapist in a neighboring town, but this option is not provided by any of the answers. Keep in mind for the licensing exam that the prohibition against multiple relationships is not absolute.‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬

d. begin therapy with her but take special precautions to ensure that client confidentiality is maintained. - Incorrect Confidentiality is not the only issue of concern in multiple relationship situations, so this is not the best answer of those given.

(Ethics & Professional Issues)

c. Psychologists are prohibited from having sexual intimacies with former therapy clients in certain circumstances‭ (‬e.g.,‭ ‬when there is a risk of exploitation‭)‬. - CORRECT Standard 10.08 of the APA’s Ethics Code states that sexual intimacies with former therapy clients may be acceptable two years after termination of therapy when certain conditions are met (e.g., when there is no exploitation of the client), while Principle II.27 of the Canadian Code of Ethics states that sexual intimacies with former therapy clients must be avoided when “the power relationship reasonably could be expected to influence the client’s decision making.” The APA’s Ethics Code and the Canadian Code of Ethics both discourage psychologists from becoming sexually involved with former therapy clients. ‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬‬

a. Psychologists are prohibited from having sexual intimacies with former therapy clients under any circumstances. - Incorrect

b. Psychologists are prohibited from having sexual intimacies with former therapy clients for at least one year following the termination of therapy. - Incorrect

d. Psychologists are‭ ‬not prohibited from having sexual intimacies with former therapy clients. - Incorrect

(Ethics & Professional Issues)

d. continue working with Lisa but consult with a colleague if he believes his attraction might be interfering with his objectivity.- CORRECT The most professional and ethical behavior in this situation would be for Dr. Jones to recognize his feelings while realizing that, as a professional, he cannot act on those feelings. It would be acceptable, under these conditions, for Dr. Jones to continue working with Lisa unless his feelings begin to interfere with his ability to provide treatment to her. If this occurs, Dr. Jones should seek professional consultation to determine the best course of action. As with many exam questions that pose an ethical dilemma, the best answer to this one is the answer that describes the most conservative (cautious) action.

a. recognize that such attraction is normal but proceed with caution. - Incorrect Attraction to a client is not necessarily "normal" and "proceeding with caution" may not be adequate. Therefore, response d is a better answer.

b. confess his attraction to Lisa and make it a topic for mutual examination in therapy. - Incorrect Whether an attraction toward a client should ever be discussed with the client is a controversial issue among therapists. In most cases, however, it is not advisable.

c. recognize that such attraction is inappropriate and refer Lisa to another therapist without explaining the reason to her. - Incorrect Referring Lisa to another therapist might be the appropriate action if Dr. Jones feels that his attraction to Lisa is interfering with his ability to treat her. The information given in the question, however, does not suggest that this is the case, and response d is a better answer.

(Ethics & Professional Issues)

a. the right of parents or legal guardians of a child to inspect the child’s school records. - CORRECT Knowing that the Buckley Amendment is also known as the Family Education Rights and Privacy Act (FERPA) would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. The Buckley Amendment states that any school district may be denied federal funds if parents or other legal guardians of students or students who have reached the age of majority are not given access to the students’ school records.

b. the right of patients to have access to their own hospital records. - Incorrect

c. the requirement for employers to make reasonable modifications to tests for applicants with disabilities. - Incorrect

d. the requirement for schools to provide a‭ “‬free appropriate public education‭” ‬to students with disabilities. - Incorrect

(Ethics & Professional Issues)

a. ethical as long as students can choose to participate in an alternative activity instead. - CORRECT This issue is addressed by Standard 8.04 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle I.36 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. This answer is most consistent with ethical guidelines. Standard 8.04(b), for example, states that “when research participation is a course requirement or an opportunity for extra credit, the prospective participant is given the choice of equitable alternative activities.”

b. ethical as long as students are free to choose the research project they participate in. - Incorrect

c. ethical as long as informed consents are obtained from students before they participate. - Incorrect

d. clearly unethical. - Incorrect

(Ethics & Professional Issues)

b. raise for discussion the possibility of termination and referral to another therapist. -

CORRECT Termination of therapy is addressed in Standard 10.10 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle II.37 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. The action described in this answer is most consistent with ethical requirements. Standard 10.10(a), for example, states that “psychologists terminate therapy when it becomes reasonably clear that the client/patient no longer needs the service, is not likely to benefit, or is being harmed by continued service,” and Standard 10.10(c) states that, prior to termination, psychologists “suggest alternative service providers as appropriate.”

d. continue seeing the client since fourteen months is not an unusually long time for therapy to continue without a significant change in symptoms. - Incorrect In many cases, fourteen months is sufficiently long to consider the possibility of termination when a client has shown “no apparent change” in symptoms.

(Ethics & Professional Issues)

a. illegal and unethical. - CORRECT The practice described in this question represents insurance fraud, which is both illegal and unethical. Billing an insurance company for missed appointments would be acceptable only if the company agreed to this practice (which is, of course, unlikely). For questions about insurance coverage, always choose the answer that is most consistent with legal and ethical requirements.

b. illegal but ethical. Incorrect

c. legal and ethical. Incorrect

d. legal but unethical. Incorrect

(Ethics & Professional Issues)

b. the client. - CORRECT Privilege is a legal term that refers to “privileged communication.” Privilege is a legal requirement that prohibits (with some exceptions) confidential client information from being disclosed in legal proceedings. The client is the holder of the privilege – i.e., in most circumstances, only the client can determine when confidential information may be disclosed.

c. the therapist and client jointly. - Incorrect

d. the court. - Incorrect

(Ethics & Professional Issues)

b. Dr.‭ ‬Z should be listed as second author if her contribution warrants it.- CORRECT Publication credit is addressed in Standard 8.12 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle III.7 of the Canadian Code of Ethics. Of the responses given, this one is best because it addresses the need to consider Dr. Z’s contribution to the research project (and Dr. X’s lack of contribution). Ethical guidelines emphasize that it is a person's contribution, not his or her position or status, that determines publication credit. Moreover, when a research study is based on a student's dissertation, the student should ordinarily be listed as first author.

(Ethics & Professional Issues Online - 5144)

c. acting ethically as long as Marla is a student in a department other than the psychology department and will not be taking any classes in the psychology department. - CORRECT Dating students is ordinarily prohibited or discouraged because doing so represents a multiple relationship. If Marla is a graduate student in another department, a relationship with her would not represent a multiple relationship because Dr. Carlson is not likely to be her instructor or advisor.

a. clearly violating ethical guidelines.- Incorrect Dr. Carlson may or may not be violating ethical guidelines, depending on the circumstances (see response c).

b. acting ethically since he is not the one who initiated a potential relationship. - Incorrect The fact that Marla initiated the potential relationship is not relevant.

d. acting ethically as long as he does not become sexually involved with Marla until she is no longer affiliated with the university. - Incorrect As long as Dr. Carlson does not have “supervisory, evaluative, or other authority” over Marla, it would be acceptable for Dr. Carlson to become sexually involved with Marla (see Standards 3.08 and 7.07 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle II.28 of the Canadian Code of Ethics). (Note that personal relationships with students might be prohibited by university policy but that this question is asking about ethical guidelines.)

(Ethics & Professional Issues)

D. learning and memory (CORRECT) LTP is a widely accepted model for the synaptic changes that underlie learning and memory. Long-term potentiation (LTP) is a physiological process that involves physical modification of nerve synapses, especially at glutamate receptors in the hippocampus.

(Physiological Psychology/Psychopharmacology)

C. children with hearing impairments - (CORRECT) A distinctive feature of the Leiter International Performance Scale is its non-reliance on verbal instructions or responses. Because of this feature, it is an appropriate test for individuals with hearing and language impairments.The Leiter International Performance Scale was developed as a culture-fair test for children ages 2 through 12.

A. adults with visual impairments - Incorrect The Haptic Intelligence Scale can be used to assess the intelligence of individuals with visual impairments.

B. children under the age of two - Incorrect Tests used to assess the intellectual development of infants under age 2 include the Bayley Scales of Infant Development and the Fagan Test of Intelligence.

D. adults who are mentally retarded - Incorrect The intelligence of individuals with mental retardation is commonly assessed with the Stanford-Binet.

(Psychological Assessment)

C. Hydrocephalus - (CORRECT) The accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid in the ventricles (usually as the result of an obstruction) causes hydrocephalus which results in increased intracranial pressure and can lead to brain damage. Knowing that hydrocephalus means “water head” would have helped you identify it as the correct answer to this question.

A. Spina bifida - Incorrect Spinal bifida is a neural tube defect caused by a failure of the fetus’s spine to close appropriately during early development.

B. Meningitis - Incorrect Meningitis is inflammation of the membranes of the brain and spinal cord and is a possible cause of acquired hydrocephalus.

D. Encephalitis - Incorrect Encephalitis is an inflammation of the brain that is usually caused by a virus.

(Physiological Psychology/Psychopharmacology)

D. two-factor theory - (CORRECT) According to two-factor theory, lower-level needs such as physiological and safety needs have little effect on job satisfaction or motivation when they are fulfilled but produce dissatisfaction when they are unfulfilled. In contrast, higher-level needs have little effect on satisfaction and motivation when they are unfulfilled but increase satisfaction and motivation when they are fulfilled. Two-factor theory would, therefore, predict that financial incentives, which address lower-level needs, would not increase motivation and satisfaction. For the exam, you want to be familiar with the basic assumptions and predictions of the major theories of motivation.

A. ERG theory - Incorrect ERG theory predicts that people have three basic needs – existence, relatedness, and growth. From the perspective of ERG theory, opportunities for increased compensation may help satisfy an individual’s needs and thereby lead to increased satisfaction and motivation.

B. expectancy theory - Incorrect Expectancy theory predicts that valued outcomes lead to increased satisfaction and motivation. There is no information provided in the question suggesting that the wage and incentive program is not valued by employees, so this is not the best response.

C. equity theory - Incorrect Equity theory predicts that motivation is related to the comparisons we make between our input/outcome ratio and the input/outcome ratios of workers performing similar jobs. There is no information given in this questions suggesting that this type of comparison is responsible for the employees’ lack of response to the wage and incentive program.

(Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

C. Gerstmann’s syndrome - (CORRECT) These are the characteristic symptoms of Gerstmann’s syndrome. The four symptoms listed in this question are caused by damage to the left (dominant) angular gyrus, which is located at the point of convergence of the parietal, occipital, and temporal lobes.

A. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease - Incorrect Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease is a rare degenerative brain disease that usually leads to dementia and is characterized by memory loss, behavioral changes, loss of coordination, and visual disturbances.

B. Addison’s disease - Incorrect Addison’s disease is due to a lower-than-normal production of cortisol by the adrenal glands. Its symptoms include weight loss, orthostatic hypotension, weakness, fatigue, and hyperpigmentation.

D. Geschwind syndrome - Incorrect Gerschwind syndrome is a personality syndrome associated with temporal lobe epilepsy and is characterized by circumstantiality, hypergraphia, alterations in sexuality, emotional volatility, and, in some cases, hyperreligiosity.

(Physiological Psychology/Psychopharmacology)

C. Long-term - (CORRECT) Information acquired in the past few hours to days would be part of recent long-term memory. The three-store model of memory divides it into three components: sensory, short-term, and long-term memory.

A. Working - Incorrect Working memory is part of short-term memory and is responsible for the temporary storage and manipulation of information (e.g., remembering a phone number until you have dialed it).

B. Sensory - Incorrect Sensory memory stores sensory information for very brief periods (up to several seconds).

D. Prospective - Incorrect Prospective memory refers to the ability to "remember to remember” (e.g., to remember a future appointment).

(Learning Theory & Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies)

C. concurrent - (CORRECT) As noted above, concurrent validity (a type of criterion-related validity) is of concern when the purpose of a test is to estimate an individual's current status on some external criterion. Screening tests are usually used to estimate the results of a more thorough evaluation (the criterion) which, in this case, would be a more thorough diagnostic procedure. When a test developer wants to use a screening test to estimate or evaluate current behavior, he/she will be most interested in the test's concurrent validity.

A. content - Incorrect Content validity is of most concern when test items are expected to be a representative sample of a particular content domain.

B. construct - Incorrect Construct validity is of concern for tests designed to measure a hypothetical trait or construct (e.g., motivation, self-esteem).

D. predictive - Incorrect The screening test is being used to estimate current status, not to predict future status. Therefore, concurrent validity would be of greater concern than would predictive validity.

(Test Construction)

A. clarify boundaries between family members in order to reduce enmeshment.- (CORRECT) Even if you are unfamiliar with Minuchin, you may have been able to guess that structural therapy would be concerned with boundaries. Structural family therapists view family dysfunction as being related to boundaries that are too diffuse (enmeshed) or too rigid (disengaged). As its name implies, structural family therapy focuses on altering the family's structure in order to change the behavior patterns of family members.

B. work initially with the most differentiated family member - Incorrect This is more characteristic of Bowen’s approach to family therapy.

C. use a multiple-therapist team to prevent any one therapist from becoming‭ "‬triangulated‭" ‬into the family system - Incorrect Minuchin's approach does not involve the use of multiple-therapist teams.

D. issue specific‭ "‬directives‭" ‬designed to counteract dysfunctional processes - Incorrect The issuance of directives is more characteristic of strategic family therapy than of structural family therapy.

(Clinical Psychology)

A. absenteeism - (CORRECT) B. B. Baltes et al. report an average effect size of .93 for absenteeism [Flexible and compressed workweek schedules: A meta-analysis of their effects on work-related criteria, Journal of Applied Psychology, 84(4), 496-513, 1999]. Unfortunately, the research on the effects of flexitime and other alternative work schedules has produced inconsistent results. However, this question is asking about a specific meta-analysis of the research.

B. self-rated performance - Incorrect These investigators obtained an average effect size of .04 for self-rated performance.

C. satisfaction with work schedule - Incorrect The average effect size for satisfaction with work schedule was .32.

D. productivity - Incorrect The average effect size for productivity was .45.

(Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

C. chemistry - (CORRECT) In this case, the student's English score is equivalent to a z-score of +1.25, his math score is equivalent to a z-score of +1.0, his chemistry score is equivalent to a z-score of +2.0, and his history score is equivalent to a z-score of 0. Therefore, the student obtained the highest score on the chemistry test. The raw scores on different tests may be compared by converting the scores to z-scores, which is done by subtracting the mean from the examinee’s raw score to calculate a deviation score and then dividing the deviation score by the standard deviation.

(Test Construction)

D. the symbolic function - (CORRECT) The ability for symbolic representation, which is necessary for language use, symbolic play, and deferred imitation, develops during the preoperational stage, which is characteristic of children aged 2 through 7. According to Piaget, the preoperational stage is characterized by the development of the symbolic function, which permits language use, symbolic play, and deferred imitation.

A. conservation - Incorrect Conservation refers to the knowledge that physical properties of objects remain invariant with transformations that do not involve addition or subtraction. Such knowledge is acquired between the ages of 7 and 11 years during the concrete operational period.

B. the object concept - Incorrect The object concept develops during the sensorimotor stage, which is characteristic of children from birth to two years.

C. formal operations - Incorrect Formal operations are characteristic of the final (formal operational) stage of cognitive development.

(Lifespan Development)

B. Milton Erickson - (CORRECT) For the exam, you should have paradoxical techniques and ordeals associated with Milton Erickson and Jay Haley (who was strongly influenced by Erickson). The task described in the question is an example of an "ordeal."

A. Luigia Boscolo - Incorrect Luigi Boscolo is affiliated with the Milan systemic school of family therapy, which is not associated with the use of ordeals.

C. Salvador Minuchin - Incorrect The use of ordeals is more associated with Erickson and Haley than with Minuchin.

D. Marquis de Sade - Incorrect

(Clinical Psychology)

D. unfairness - (CORRECT) The situation described in the question illustrates the EEOC’s definition of unfairness: “When members of one race, sex, or ethnic group characteristically obtain lower scores on a selection procedure than members of another group, and the differences in scores are not reflected in differences in a measure of job performance, use of the selection procedure may unfairly deny opportunities to members of the group that obtains the lower scores” (Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures, Section 14.B.8.a). This is a difficult question, but you may have been able to identify the correct answer through the process of elimination.

A. differential validity- Incorrect Differential validity occurs when a predictor has different validity coefficients for members of different groups. No information is given about the validity coefficients for males and females, so you cannot conclude that the selection test has differential validity.

B. differential selection - Incorrect Differential selection is a threat to the internal validity of a research study and is not relevant to this situation.

C. adverse impact - Incorrect The situation described in the question could lead to adverse impact if females are not hired because of their low scores on the predictor. However, the question does not state that the hiring rate for females is lower than the rate for males, so this is not the best response.

(Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

B. Adler’s individual psychology - (CORRECT) Dreikurs, an associate of Adler’s, described the misbehavior of children as attempts to belong, which reflect faulty beliefs about what it takes to belong (e.g., “I belong only when I'm the center of attention”). Adler believed that all behaviors are goal-directed and purposeful.

(Clinical Psychology)

A. has adequate inter-rater reliability - (CORRECT) Reliability coefficients range from 0 to +1.0, so a coefficient of .90 indicates good reliability. Knowing that the kappa statistic (also known as the kappa coefficient) is a measure of inter-rater reliability would have enabled you to identify the correct response to this question.

B. has adequate internal consistency reliability - Incorrect The kappa statistic is a measure of inter-rater reliability, not internal consistency reliability.

C. has low criterion-related validity - Incorrect

D. has low incremental validity - Incorrect

(Test Construction)

B. integrate the various aspects of the self - CORRECT A primary goal of gestalt therapy is to integrate all aspects of the self; i.e., one’s feelings, thoughts, and actions. For the exam, you want to know that, in Gestalt therapy, the primary goals are increased awareness and integration of all aspects of the self.

A. integrate the present with his/her past and future - Incorrect In Gestalt therapy, the focus is on the present. In fact, its founder, Fritz Perls, argued that “nothing exists but the now.”

C. develop a‭ “‬success identity.‭” - Incorrect This is the goal of reality therapy.

D. develop a‭ “‬healthy style of life.‭” - Incorrect This sounds more like Adlerian therapy.

(Clinical Psychology)

D. refuse to evaluate the inmate for the purpose of parole - (CORRECT) This answer is most consistent with ethical guidelines prohibiting psychologists from becoming involved in multiple relationships that might impair their objectivity and with the APA’s Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychologists, which warns psychologists about the need for caution in dual relationships and roles in forensic settings (the actions described in answer a, b, and c do not constitute sufficient caution). The situation described in this question is addressed by general ethical guidelines for multiple relationships and in the APA’s Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychologists.

(Ethics and Professional Issues)

C. scripts - (CORRECT) Scripts (also known as event schemas) are a type of schema that consist of a sequence of events. Scripts provide the information needed to determine the appropriate behaviors for familiar events or situations. Researchers interested in social knowledge distinguish between several cognitive phenomena including schemas and prototypes.

A. heuristics - Incorrect Heuristics are “mental shortcuts” that help us process complex information.

B. prototypes - Incorrect Prototypes are similar to stereotypes and consist of a set of characteristics that are commonly associated with a particular category of people, objects, or events.

D. life space - Incorrect Life space is a key concept in Lewin’s (1951) field theory and consists of the individual and his/her environment.

(Social Psychology)

D. close and conflictual - (CORRECT) The research indicates that sibling relationships often involve contradictions, but the combination of closeness and conflict seems to be particularly characteristic of siblings during preadolescence. Even if you’re unfamiliar with the research, it makes sense that preadolescent relationships (or any relationship for that matter!) would involve a mixture of positive and negative aspects.

(Lifespan Development)

C. evaluate the impact of pretesting - (CORRECT) The purpose of the Solomon four-group design is to evaluate the impact of pretesting on a study’s internal and external validity. The Solomon four-group design combines the pretest-posttest control group design with the posttest only control group design.

(Statistics and Research Design)

D.doing so helps them satisfy their personal needs - (CORRECT) During the instrumental hedonism stage, children consider the correct action to be the one that best satisfies their own personal needs. To illustrate this stage, Kohlberg described a 10-year old boy who, when asked what it means to be a good son, replied, "Be good to your father and he will be good to you." The preconventional level of moral development consists of two stages: punishment and obedience and instrumental hedonism.

A. they feel they have a personal duty to uphold rules and laws - Incorrect This is characteristic of the second stage of the conventional level.

B. ‭"‬everyone else is doing it.‭" - Incorrect This doesn’t describe the second stage of the preconventional level.

C. doing so helps them avoid punishment - Incorrect This is characteristic of the initial punishment and obedience stage of the preconventional level.

(Lifespan Development)

D. depression - (CORRECT) This is the only answer given that describes a condition that is associated with a higher Verbal IQ score. The conditions listed in answers a, b, and c are associated with a higher Performance IQ score. On the WAIS-III, a Verbal-Performance discrepancy of at least 12 points is statistically significant, but Kaufman and Lichtenberger (1999) suggest that a discrepancy be considered clinically significant only when it is at least 17 points.

(Psychological Assessment)

C. health but not job performance - (CORRECT) The research has found that job satisfaction is a good predictor of longevity and mental and physical health. However, the studies have consistently found low correlations between job satisfaction and performance. For the exam, you want to be familiar with factors that do and do not correlate with job satisfaction.

(Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

C. it helps alleviate leniency and other biases (CORRECT) This technique was developed specifically to reduce rater biases, and there is some evidence that it accomplishes this goal. When using the forced-choice technique, the rater chooses the behavior from two or more behaviors that best describe the employee, with behaviors being paired or grouped so that they are similar in terms of social desirability.

A. it is easy to develop and use - Incorrect In fact, a drawback of this technique is the difficulty of its development.

B. it provides specific information for employee feedback - Incorrect The forced-choice technique is considered more useful for obtaining an overall rating of performance than for obtaining the information needed to give employees feedback about their performance.

D. it provides an objective measure of job performance - Incorrect The forced-choice technique is a subjective measure of job performance.

(Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

A. a test’s reliability on its validity - (CORRECT) The correction for attenuation formula is used to determine the impact of increasing the reliability of the predictor (test) and/or the criterion on the predictor’s validity. For the exam, you’ll want to be familiar with the purpose of several formulas including the correction for attenuation formula.

B. a test’s validity on its reliability - Incorrect

C. the number of test items on the test’s validity - Incorrect

D. the number of test items on the test’s reliability - Incorrect

(Test Construction)

C. substantia nigra - (CORRECT) Knowing the substantia nigra is involved in the control of movement would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. The degeneration of dopamine-producing cells in the substantia nigra results in the motor symptoms associated with this disorder. Although the cause of Parkinson’s disease is still unknown, it has been linked to the degeneration of nerves cells in specific regions of the brain.

A. suprachiasmatic nucleus - Incorrect The suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) is located in the hypothalamus and is involved the regulation of the body’s circadian rhythms.

B. insular cortex - Incorrect The insular cortex is involved in speech and in the processing of autonomic and sensory information.

D. entorhinal cortex - Incorrect The entorhinal cortex plays a role (in conjunction with the hippocampus) in memory consolidation and is one of the first areas of the brain to be affected by Alzheimer’s disease.

(Physiological Psychology/Psychopharmacology)

D. results - (CORRECT) Results criteria are the fourth level in Kirkpatrick’s model and assess the value of the training program in terms of the organization’s goals. According to Kirkpatrick, the higher the level of evaluation, the more difficult and costly the evaluation process are but the more significant the information. Kirkpatrick (1976) distinguishes between four levels of training program evaluation – reaction, learning, behavioral, and results.

A. learning - Incorrect Learning criteria measure how much trainees have learned.

B. behavioral - Incorrect Behavioral criteria assess participants’ change in performance once they return to the job.

C. reaction - Incorrect Reaction criteria assess participants’ subjective reactions to the training program. Reaction criteria represent the first level in Kirkpatrick’s model and provide the least useful information.

(Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

C. brief measure of cognitive ability - (CORRECT) The Wonderlic Personnel Test assesses cognitive ability (general intelligence) and is used in organizations as a selection test. The Wonderlic Personnel Test is a 12-minute, 50-item exam.

(Psychological Assessment)

C. 9‭ ‬to‭ ‬10 - (CORRECT) The research has shown that the deliberate and consistent use of the memory strategies listed in the question begins at about 9 to 10 years of age. The consistent and deliberate use of memory strategies does not occur until age 9 or 10.

A. 2‭ ‬to‭ ‬3 - Incorrect

B. 5‭ ‬to‭ 7 - Incorrect Preschoolers sometimes use memory strategies but do so in non-deliberate and often ineffective ways. In addition, children of this age can be taught to use memory strategies for a specific task but do not apply them to new tasks.

D. 13‭ ‬to‭ ‬15 - Incorrect The use of these strategies continues to be “fine-tuned” during adolescence.

(Lifespan Development)

C. the variability‭ (‬range‭) ‬of scores on the criterion varies for different scores on the predictor - (CORRECT) Heteroscedasticity is occurring when variability of scores on the criterion differs for different scores on the predictor – e.g., when there is a narrow range of criterion scores for low and high predictor scores but a wide range of criterion scores for moderate predictor scores. “Heteroscedasticity” means unequal variability.

A. the relationship between the predictor and criterion cannot be described by a straight line - Incorrect This is not a conclusion that can be drawn from knowing that there is heteroscedasticity in a scattergram.

B. there is a restriction of range of scores on the predictor and/or the criterion - Incorrect This is not a conclusion that can be drawn from knowing that there is heteroscedasticity in a scattergram.

D. there is a statistically significant correlation between the predictor and criterion - Incorrect This is not a conclusion that can be drawn from knowing that there is heteroscedasticity in a scattergram.

(Statistics and Research Design)

A. individualism - (CORRECT) Even if you’re unfamiliar with Hofstede’s research, you probably could have guessed that the United States scores high on individualism. Hofstede’s five cultural dimensions are power distance, uncertainty avoidance, individualism, masculinity, and long-term orientation.

B. individualism and power distance - Incorrect Although the U.S. is high on individualism, it is low on power distance.

C. power distance and masculinity - Incorrect The U.S. is low on power distance and moderate to high on masculinity.

D. uncertainty avoidance - Incorrect The U.S. is low to moderate on uncertainty avoidance.

(Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

C. Dysprosody - (CORRECT) Dysprosody is a disruption in speech melody and rhythm and is characteristic of Broca’s aphasia and other nonfluent aphasias. Although dysprosody has traditionally been linked to right hemisphere damage, its presence in Broca’s aphasia suggests that prosody is also governed, to some degree, by the left hemisphere. The pattern of stress and intonation in speech is referred to as prosody.

A. Dysarthria - Incorrect Dysarthria is a motor speech disorder that produces problems related to articulation.

B. Paraphasia - Incorrect Paraphasia is a type of aphasia that involves the use of unintended syllables, words, or phrases (e.g., unintentionally substituting one word for another).

D. Adynamia - Incorrect Adynamia is a type of aphasia involving difficulty in initiating speech.

(Physiological Psychology / Psychopharmacology )

B. must appear at the deposition as requested - (CORRECT) As noted by R. I. Simon (Clinical psychiatry and the law, Washington, DC, American Psychiatric Publishing, 2003), a subpoena by itself is not "proper legal compulsion" and only requires the psychologist to appear at a deposition or trial, not to testify. After receiving a subpoena, a psychologist should determine if the client has signed a release; if not, the psychologist should assert the privilege rather than provide the information requested in the subpoena when he/she appears at the deposition. A subpoena is a legal document that requests the recipient to appear and testify at legal proceeding.

(Ethics and Professional Issues)

A. heterosexism - (CORRECT) Herek views violence against gays and lesbians to be due to a combination of psychological (individual) and cultural heterosexism. Gregory Herek defines heterosexism is an “ideological system that denies, denigrates, and stigmatizes among nonheterosexual forms of behavior, identity, relationships, or community” (p. 150). [Psychological heterosexism and anti-gay violence: The social psychology of bigotry. In G. M. Herek & K. T. Berrill, Hate crimes: Confronting violence against lesbians and gay men (pp. 149-169), Newbury Park, Sage, 1992].

B. homophobia - Incorrect

C. bigotry - Incorrect

D. stigmatization - Incorrect

(Clinical Psychology)

A. increasing a person’s resistance to persuasion - (CORRECT) Inoculation has been shown to be an effective method for increasing an individual's resistance to persuasion. McGuire found, for example, that it is more effective than providing the individual only with arguments that support his/her initial position.The concept of inoculation (McGuire, 1969) was derived from the medical model and is based on the assumption that a person will be better able to resist a persuasive communication when he/she has been "inoculated" against it. Inoculation involves providing weak arguments against a position and counterarguments refuting those arguments.

B. reducing a communicator''s anxiety prior to delivering a message to a hostile audience - Incorrect This is not the goal of inoculation.

C. distracting a person from a communicator''s message - Incorrect Distraction is associated with increased persuasiveness when a listener is initially opposed to a message and decreased persuasiveness when a listener is initially in favor of a message. Inoculation does not involve distraction.

D.ensuring that attitude change represents internalization rather than mere compliance - Incorrect This is not a goal of inoculation.

(Social Psychology)

A. controlling - (CORRECT) Functional analysis is used to identify the factors (antecedents and consequences) that are controlling the target behavior so that those factors can be altered.The term “functional analysis” is associated with behavioral assessment and involves identifying the antecedents and consequences of the target behavior.

B. moderator - Incorrect

C. dependent - Incorrect

D. organismic - Incorrect

(Learning Theory & Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies)

A. imaginal exposure - (CORRECT) Studies that used a dismantling strategy or compared EMDR to exposure-based treatments have generally confirmed that the essential component of EMDR is exposure to the feared stimulus in imagination rather than to lateral eye movements. See, e.g., S. Taylor et al., Comparative efficacy, speed, and adverse effects of three PTSD treatments: Exposure therapy, EMDR, and relaxation, Journal of Clinical and Consulting Psychology, 2003, 72, 330-338. EMDR was originally developed as a treatment for PTSD and combines rapid lateral eye movements (which purportedly trigger adaptive neurophysiological information-processing mechanisms) with exposure and other techniques.

B. higher-order conditioning - Incorrect

C. relaxation training - Incorrect

D. fixed visual attention - Incorrect

(Learning Theory & Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies)

A. it matches the client’s stage of change - CORRECT The transtheoretical model is based on the premise that interventions are most effective when they match the client’s stage of change. For example, clients in the precontemplation stage benefit most from information that increases their knowledge and motivation to change; while those in the preparation stage need assistance in identifying appropriate change strategies. Knowing that the transtheoretical model is also known as the stages of change model would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.

B. it matches the client’s diagnosis and symptom severity - Incorrect

C. the therapist adopts the behavioral and affective style of the client - Incorrect

D. the client sets his/her own therapy goals and evaluates his/her own progress. - Incorrect

(Clinical Psychology)

B. Cognitive Assessment System - CORRECT The Cognitive Assessment System assesses basic cognitive processes that are central to learning. It is based on the PASS model of intelligence that distinguishes between the four cognitive functions identified by Luria (1980) – planning, attention, simultaneous processing, and sequential processing. For the licensing exam, you’ll want to be familiar with the purpose of the tests listed in the answers to this question.

A. Slosson Intelligence Test Primary - Incorrect The Slosson Intelligence Test Primary is a screening test of intelligence for children aged 2 through 7 years, 11 months. It provides Verbal and Performance Scores and a Total Standard Score.

C. Kuhlman-Anderson Test - Incorrect The Kuhlman-Anderson Test is a group intelligence test for children in grades K through 12.

D. Woodcock Johnson III - Incorrect The Woodcock Johnson III Tests of Cognitive Ability assess general and specific cognitive abilities and are based on the Cattell-Horn-Carroll model of intelligence.

(Psychological Assessment)

C. Tell Mrs.‭ ‬Lopez that it would be best if you discussed this matter with Leticia - CORRECT This course of action is most consistent with the ethical guidelines and is also likely to be in the best interests of Leticia from a clinical perspective. Leticia is an adult and, even though her mother is paying for her therapy, this does not limit Leticia’s confidentiality.

A. Give Mrs.‭ ‬Lopez the specific advice she has requested - Incorrect Discussing Leticia’s status with her mother without Leticia’s consent would represent a breach of confidentiality.

B. Tell Mrs.‭ ‬Lopez to ask Leticia what she‭ (‬Mrs.‭ ‬Lopez‭) ‬can do to help her - Incorrect This alternative does not explicitly violate ethical guidelines, but response c is a better answer.

D. suggest that Mrs.‭ ‬Lopez accompany Leticia to her next therapy session - Incorrect This would not be the most appropriate course of action from either an ethical or clinical perspective.

(Ethics and Professional Issues)

b. moderate levels of arousal - CORRECT Even if you’re not familiar with the Yerkes-Dodson law (which proposes that learning and performance are curvilinearly related to arousal), you may have been able to identify the correct answer on the basis of common sense – i.e., most people perform best when their level of arousal is somewhere between “none” and “a lot.” Moderate levels of arousal are associated with the highest levels of learning and performance. This is particularly true when moderate levels of arousal are combined with moderate task difficulty.

a. low levels of arousal - Incorrect A low level of arousal can lead to boredom which can negatively affect learning and performance.

c. high levels of arousal - Incorrect A high level of arousal can lead to stress and fatigue, which can negatively affect learning and performance.

d. variability in levels of arousal - Incorrect Varying levels of arousal would not be optimal for learning and performance.

(Learning Theory & CBT)

c. a behavior that occurs frequently - CORRECT The Premack Principle is a type of positive reinforcement. When using the Premack Principle, a high-frequency behavior is used as the reinforcer for a low-frequency behavior. The Premack Principle is also known as “Grandma's Rule” – e.g., “you can go out and play once you've cleaned your room.”

(Learning Theory & CBT)

d. arbitrary inference - CORRECT The phenomena listed in the answers to this question are all cognitive distortions that have been identified as contributors to maladaptive behavior. As defined by Beck, arbitrary inference involves drawing a conclusion that is made in the absence of supporting evidence or in the presence of contradictory evidence.

a. mustabatory thinking - Incorrect “Mustabatory thinking” is a term used by Ellis and refers to the belief that certain conditions must be met – e.g., “I must be liked by everyone; if not, I’m a terrible person.”

b. polarized thinking - Incorrect Polarized (dichotomous) thinking involves seeing things as either “black or white.”

c. personalization - Incorrect Pesonalization involves mistakenly viewing oneself as the source of an event that actually had another cause.

(Learning Theory & CBT)