EPPP - EPPP Test Questions Part 3

D. classical conditioning - CORRECT According to the Pavlovian (classical conditioning) explanation for phobias, a fear response to a previously neutral object or event is a classically conditioned response in which fear is attached to the neutral stimulus (the CS) through its pairing with a stimulus that naturally elicits fear (the US). There are several explanations for the phobic reactions. The explanation provided in this question is consistent with the Pavlovian view.

(Learning Theory & Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies

B. A woman cannot remember how she got to the hospital or other events that occurred during the ‬24‭ ‬hours after she was sexually assaulted - CORRECT This answer provides an example of anterograde amnesia – i.e., the woman has no memory for events that occurred after the assault. Anterograde amnesia involves a loss of memory for events that occur after the event that caused the memory loss.

A. As the result of a head injury he received in a car accident,‭ ‬a man cannot remember where he was going before the accident occurred - Incorrect A loss of memory for events that occurred prior to the trauma that caused the memory impairment is referred to as retrograde amnesia.

C. A high school junior who learned Spanish her freshman year is having trouble learning French because she keeps substituting Spanish words for French ones - Incorrect This is an example of proactive interference.

D. A college student can remember information related to an important event but cannot remember how he acquired that information - Incorrect This is an example of source amnesia

(Learning Theory & Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies)

B. mediator variable - CORRECT A mediator variable accounts for (is responsible for) the relationship between two variables. Ellis’s theory proposes that beliefs mediate (are responsible for) the impact of an event on our emotional and behavioral reactions to that event.

A. moderator variable - Incorrect A moderator variable is a variable that affects the strength of the relationship between two other variables. For example, if the size of the correlation between a predictor and criterion differs for older and younger adults, age is a moderator variable. Note that some authors use the terms “moderator variable” and “extraneous variable” interchangeably.

C. latent variable - Incorrect A latent variable is a theoretical variable that is believed to underlie a measured or observed variable.

D. suppressor variable - Incorrect A suppressor variable reduces or conceals the relationship between two variables. Consequently, statistically removing the effects of a suppressor variable increases the correlation between the two variables.

(Statistics and Research Design)

C. work samples that incorporate a structured period of learning and evaluation - CORRECT Trainability tests are similar to work samples except they are given to people who currently do not have sufficient skills or knowledge to perform the job. They are used to determine if a job applicant is likely to benefit from training. As their name implies, trainability tests are used to determine if individuals will benefit from training.

A. paper-and-pencil tests that assess the aptitudes required for a particular job - Incorrect

B. paper-and-pencil tests that assess motivation and other job-related attitudes - Incorrect

D. multimodal assessment techniques used to determine what training current workers require - Incorrect

(Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

C. display genuine interest in the client by asking about his/her family and work or school - CORRECT Although formalismo (a formal communication style) is generally preferred by Latino/Hispanic clients during initial therapy sessions, personalismo is preferred once the therapeutic alliance has been established. Personalismo sounds like what it is – i.e., communication that fosters warmth, rapport, and a personal connection. Therefore, you may have been able to identify the correct response to this question even if you’re unfamiliar with the application of personalismo to therapy.

A. integrate members of the extended family into the intervention - Incorrect Integrating members of the extended family into the intervention would be consistent with the value of familismo.

B. maintain a neutral attitude even when ‬family members are ‬discussing unpleasant topics - Incorrect This is not consistent with personalismo.

D. establish credibility early in therapy by demonstrating knowledge of indigenous healing practices. - Incorrect Demonstrating knowledge of indigenous healing practices may be important but would not necessarily foster personalismo.

(Clinical Psychology)

A. a lack of reinforcement from the environment - CORRECT Lewinsohn attributes depression primarily to a low rate of response-contingent reinforcement and proposes that, when a person’s behaviors are not reinforced, those behaviors are extinguished and the person is at increased risk for pessimism, low self-esteem, and other symptoms associated with depression. Lewinsohn’s (1974) behavioral model is based on operant conditioning and focuses on the consequences of behavior.

B. “accidental” ‬external reinforcement for depressogenic behaviors - Incorrect

C. a high need for perfectionism - Incorrect

D. chronic physical and psychological stress - Incorrect

(Learning Theory & Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies)

B. productivity - CORRECT Of the outcomes listed in the answers, affective commitment is least predictive of productivity.Two types of organizational commitment are distinguished – continuance commitment and affective commitment. Of these, affective commitment is most predictive of work-related outcomes.

(Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

C. tertiary prevention - CORRECT Rehabilitation is the goal of tertiary prevention. In this situation, adolescents and young adults are being provided with services that are intended to reduce the likelihood of future drug abuse (relapse).A. primary prevention - Incorrect Primary prevention's emphasize counteracting harmful circumstances before they have an opportunity to produce mental or physical illness.

B. secondary prevention - Incorrect Secondary prevention's emphasize the early diagnosis and treatment of disorders.

D. social intervention - Incorrect This is a "made up” term.

(Clinical Psychology)

C. fundamental attribution bias - CORRECT The fundamental attribution bias is the tendency to attribute another person's behavior to dispositional factors (e.g., traits) and, therefore, to expect a great deal of consistency in behavior. This question is vague, and you may have had to rely on the process of elimination to identify the correct answer.

A. overjustification hypothesis - Incorrect The overjustification hypothesis predicts that internal motivation to perform a specific action is weakened when one is given external reinforcement for performing the action.

B. self-serving bias - Incorrect The self-serving bias applies to the attributions one makes about one's own behavior and is not relevant to the situation described in this question.

D. self-verification theory - Incorrect Self-verification theory predicts that people prefer receiving information about themselves from others that is consistent with their self-evaluations.

(Social Psychology)

B. decrease the number of false positives - CORRECT Most likely, a personnel director would raise the predictor cutoff in order to decrease the number of false positives since these individuals "cost the company money" (i.e., they would be hired on the basis of their test scores but would be unsuccessful on the job). Raising the predictor cutoff score decreases the number of true and false positives and increases the number of true and false negatives.

A. increase the number of true positives - Incorrect Raising the predictor cutoff score would decrease the number of true positives.

C. increase the number of false negatives - Incorrect Although raising the predictor cutoff score does increase the number of false negatives, this would not be considered desirable in most situations – i.e., a personnel director would not want to increase the number of people who are rejected (not hired) on the basis of their selection test scores but who would have been successful on the job if they had been hired..

D. decrease the number of true negatives - Incorrect Raising the predictor cutoff increases the number of true negatives.(Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

D. Adler - CORRECT Adler believed that people are motivated primarily by an innate social interest and that the goal in life is to act in ways that fulfill social responsibilities. The three tasks listed in the question (friendship, occupation, and love) all involve social interactions. Of the individuals listed, one is most associated with an emphasis on social factors (i.e., social interest).(Clinical Psychology)

C. Cognitive dissonance theory and self-perception theory both predict that participants in the‭ ‬$1.00‭ ‬condition will subsequently report greater liking for the dull experiment than will those in the‭ ‬$20.00‭ ‬condition - CORRECT Cognitive dissonance theory predicts that participants in the $1.00 condition will report liking the dull experiment more than will those in the $20.00 condition in order to reduce the dissonance they feel about describing the dull study as interesting to potential participants. In contrast, self-perception theory predicts that participants in the $1.00 condition will report greater liking for the dull experiment because they will evaluate their actual opinion of the study by looking at their overt behavior (telling others that the experiment was interesting). Cognitive dissonance theory and self-perception theory make the same prediction about the outcome of the study described in this question but do so for different reasons.

A. Cognitive dissonance theory predicts that participants in the‭ ‬$1.00‭ ‬condition will subsequently report greater liking for the dull experiment,‭ ‬while self-perception theory predicts that participants in the‭ ‬$20.00‭ ‬condition will subsequently report greater liking for the dull experiment - Incorrect

B. Self-perception theory predicts that participants in the‭ ‬$1.00‭ ‬condition will subsequently report greater liking for the dull experiment,‭ ‬while cognitive dissonance theory predicts that participants in the‭ ‬$20.00‭ ‬condition will subsequently report greater liking for the dull experiment - Incorrect

D. Cognitive dissonance theory and self-perception theory both predict that participants in the‭ ‬$20.00‭ ‬condition will subsequently report greater liking for the dull experiment than will those in the‭ ‬$1.00‭ ‬condition - Incorrect

(Social Psychology)

A. a study’s independent variable is quantitative - CORRECT Trend analysis is used when a study involves a quantitative independent variable, and the researcher wants to determine the shape of the relationship between the independent and dependent variables. The results of the trend analysis indicate whether or not there is a statistically significant linear or nonlinear (quadratic, cubic, quartic) trend. Trend analysis is a type of analysis of variance that is used to evaluate linear and nonlinear trends.

B. a study’s dependent variable is qualitative - Incorrect

C. a cross-sectional research design has been used -Incorrect

D. a factorial research design has been used - Incorrect

(Statistics and Research Design)

A. remembering word pairs - CORRECT The keyword method is useful for learning pairs of words such as the English and Spanish equivalents for words or the capitals of states.

B. remembering a long list of unrelated words - Incorrect An acronym is more useful for learning lists of unrelated words.

C. recalling the order of mathematical operations - Incorrect The method of loci and the pegword method are useful for recalling ordered information.

D. mastering spatial relationships - Incorrect The keyword method is not useful for this purpose.

(Learning Theory & Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies)

B. near vision - CORRECT People with presbyopia have difficulty focusing on objects that are close. Presbyopia occurs when the lens of the eye loses its ability to focus. Many people begin to experience presbyopia in their mid-40s.

(Lifespan Development)

A. there was a difference of one-half standard deviation between the means of the two groups - CORRECT A Cohen’s d of .50 indicates that one group obtained a mean that is one-half standard deviation higher than the mean obtained by the other group. Cohen’s d is a measure of effect size. It indicates the difference between the means of two groups in terms of standard deviations.

B. there was a difference of one-fourth standard deviation between the means of the two groups - Incorrect

C. the percent of variance accounted for by the difference in treatments was‭ ‬50% - Incorrect

D. the percent of variance accounted for by the difference in treatments was‭ ‬25% - Incorrect

(Statistics and Research Design)

B. is confused and incoherent,‭ ‬may exhibit bizarre behavior,‭ ‬and is unable to care for him/herself - CORRECT The behaviors described in this answer are characteristic of Level 4. The Rancho Los Amigos Scale of Cognitive Functioning was developed as a method for monitoring recovery from head trauma and involves rating the individual in terms of eight levels of functioning.

A. is nonresponsive to visual or auditory stimuli and seems to be in a state of deep sleep - Incorrect This describes behaviors characteristic of Level 1.

C. is alert and oriented and can remember and integrate remote and recent events but may have some impairment in judgment,‭ ‬planning,‭ ‬and abstract reasoning - Incorrect This answer describes Level 8 functioning.

D. is functioning at an intellectual level that is superior for his/her age,‭ ‬education,‭ ‬and demographic background - Incorrect This answer does not accurately describe any of the levels of functioning assessed by the Rancho Los Amigos Scale.

(Psychological Assessment)

C. high ability and low motivation - CORRECT According to Hersey and Blanchard, a participative leadership style is most effective when subordinates have high levels of ability and low levels of motivation. Hersey and Blanchard's situational leadership model proposes that a leader is most effective when his/her leadership style matches subordinates' ability and motivation (willingness to accept responsibility).

A. low ability and low motivation - Incorrect A telling style is most effective for employees low in both ability and motivation.

B. low ability and high motivation - Incorrect A selling style is most effective for employees who are low in ability and high in motivation.

D. high ability and high motivation - Incorrect A delegating style is most effective for employees who are high in both ability and motivation.

(Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

D. severe depression - CORRECT An examinee’s score on the BDI-II can range from 0 to 63, and scores of 29 and above are considered indicative of severe depression. The Beck Depression Inventory-II consists of 21 items that the examinee’s rates on a four-point scale ranging from 0 (minimal) to 3 (severe).

(Psychological Assessment)

B. his/her own feelings,‭ ‬attitudes,‭ ‬and beliefs - CORRECT A person who is low in self-monitoring relies on his/her own feelings, attitudes, and beliefs when determining how to act in social situations and, as a result, acts similarly in different social situations. As defined by Snyder (1987), self-monitoring refers to the degree to which people are concerned about the impressions they convey to others in social situations and are able to control those impressions.

C. the emotional reactions and behaviors of the people he/she is interacting with - Incorrect People who are high in self-monitoring are concerned about the impressions that others have of them and, as a result, adapt their behaviors to the emotional reactions and behaviors of the people in each social situation.

D. internal working models that were acquired during infancy and early childhood - Incorrect.

(Social Psychology)

D. people infer their own attitudes and emotions by observing their own behaviors and the circumstances in which those behaviors occur - CORRECT According to self-perception theory, we’re most likely to rely on external information for determining or judging our internal states when internal cues are ambiguous, weak, or difficult to interpret. Self-perception theory predicts that people judge or determine their own internal states in the same way that they determine the states of other people – i.e., by considering external cues.

A. people experience discomfort (‬dissonance‭) ‬when their behaviors are not consistent with their attitudes,‭ ‬beliefs,‭ ‬or values - Incorrect This is predicted by cognitive dissonance theory but not by self-perception theory.

B. people enhance their own sense of self-worth by associating or identifying with others who are successful - Incorrect This is not a prediction of self-perception theory.

C. people tend to attribute their successes to dispositional factors and failures to situational factors - Incorrect This answer describes the self-serving bias.

(Social Psychology)

C. read a map - CORRECT Of the activities listed in the answers, the ability to read a map would most likely be impaired by damage to the right hemisphere. In contrast, damage to the left hemisphere would have the effects listed in answers a, b, and d. Although the two hemispheres of the cerebral cortex play a role in most behaviors, each hemisphere specializes with regard to certain functions. For most people language, math, and analytical thinking are left hemisphere functions, while the understanding of spatial relations, creativity, intuitive thinking, and the ability to recognize faces are right hemisphere functions.

(Physiological Psychology/Psychopharmacology)

C. fluent but unintelligible speech - CORRECT People with Wernicke's aphasia have fluent speech, but their speech is unintelligible because it contains multiple errors including sound and word substitutions. Wernicke's aphasia is characterized by a disruption in the ability to produce and comprehend language.

(Physiological Psychology/Psychopharmacology)

B. cross-sectional - CORRECT Early cross-sectional studies on the relationship between age and IQ suggested that IQ scores begin to drop in late adolescence or early adulthood. Subsequent longitudinal and cross-sequential studies found, however, that this result was due more to methodology than to actual IQ score declines – i.e., the apparent age-related declines identified in cross-sectional studies were due to cohort (intergenerational) effects. The research has confirmed that the method used to investigate the impact of age on IQ can bias the results of the study.

(Psychological Assessment)

C. tardive dyskinesia - CORRECT The long-term use of an antipsychotic drug – especially chlorpromazine or other conventional antipsychotic – can result in tardive dyskinesia, a neurological movement disorder involving involuntary movements of the lips, tongue, face, trunk, and extremities (e.g., facial grimacing, tongue protrusion, guitar and piano-playing movements).

A. acute hypertensive crisis - Incorrect This is a side effect of the MAOIs.

B. profound anterograde amnesia- Incorrect This is a potential side effect of triazolam and other benzodiazepines.

D. renal toxicity - Incorrect This is associated with the use of lithium.

(Physiological Psychology/Psychopharmacology)

C. basal ganglia - CORRECT The basal ganglia are involved in the control of movement and include the corpus striatum, caudate nucleus, putamen, and globus pallidus. Basal ganglia dysfunction has been implicated in a number of disorders including Tourette’s syndrome, ADHD, OCD, and schizophrenia. Tourette’s syndrome is a tic disorder that involves a combination of motor and vocal tics.

A. dentate gyrus - Incorrect The dentate gyrus is part of the hippocampus and is believed to be involved in memory consolidation.

B. pons - Incorrect The pons is a hindbrain structure that relays sensory information between the cerebellum and cortex, mediates reflexes related to breathing, and may play a role in sleep and dreaming.

D. mammillary bodies - Incorrect The mammillary bodies are connected to the hypothalamus, are involved in memory, and may play a role in the anterograde amnesia associated with Korsakoff's syndrome.

(Physiological Psychology/Psychopharmacology)

A. job satisfaction - CORRECT The correlation between satisfaction and turnover is one of the strongest reported in the literature, with lower levels of satisfaction being associated with higher levels of turnover. The other measures listed in the answers have not been found to correlate highly with turnover. Job satisfaction has been linked to a number of consequences, including turnover.

B. job productivity - Incorrect

C. intelligence - Incorrect

D. motivation - Incorrect

(Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

A. innate factors - CORRECT Chomsky proposed an innate language acquisition device that consists of language rules and that allows children to acquire language just by being exposed to it. As a nativist, Noam Chomsky views language as an innate skill.

B. operant conditioning - Incorrect

C. parental modeling - Incorrect

D. cognitive development - Incorrect

(Lifespan Development)

B. opportunities for catharsis - CORRECT Catharsis has not been found to be an effective way to reduce aggressive behavior. In fact, there is evidence that it may actually increase aggression. Note that this question is asking for the most ineffective method for reducing aggression.

A. exposure to a nonaggressive model - Incorrect The research has shown that exposure to models can increase both positive and negative behaviors.

C. social skills training - Incorrect In many cases, aggressiveness is due to a lack of alternative behaviors. Consequently, social skills training is often effective because its goal is to replace undesirable behaviors (e.g., aggression) with more desirable ones.

D. a threat of retaliation from a high-status person - Incorrect The research has shown that a threat of retaliation reduces aggression, at least in certain circumstances (e.g., when the threat comes from a person with high status or power and is not accompanied by provocation).

(Social Psychology)

B. adrenal and pituitary - CORRECT Selye proposed that the general adaptation syndrome is mediated primarily by the adrenal and pituitary glands. For example, during the initial alarm stage, the hypothalamus activates the adrenal medulla which increases the production of epinephrine. According to Selye (1956), the general adaptation syndrome consists of three stages: alarm, resistance, and exhaustion.

(Physiological Psychology/ Psychopharmacology)

B. determine if a test has adequate convergent and discriminant validity - CORRECT When a measure correlates highly with other measures of the same trait, the measure has convergent validity; when it has low correlations with measures of different traits, it has discriminant (divergent) validity. Convergent and discriminant validity are used as evidence of construct validity, and the multitrait-multimethod matrix contains correlation coefficients that provide information about a measure’s convergent and discriminant validity. A multitrait-multimethod matrix contains the correlation coefficients between measures that do and do not purport to measure the same trait.

A. compare a test''s predictive and concurrent validity - Incorrect Predictive and concurrent validity are types of criterion-related validity. The multitrait-multimethod matrix is used to assess a measure's construct validity.

C. identify the common factors underlying a set of related constructs - Incorrect This answer describes factor analysis, which is used to identify the common factors that underlie a set of tests, test items, or other variables.

D. test hypotheses about the causal relationships among variables - Incorrect This answer doesn't describe the purpose of the multitrait-multimethod matrix.

(Test Construction)

B. .50 - CORRECT When p equals .50, this means that the item provides maximum differentiation between the upper- and lower-scoring examinees – i.e., a large proportion of examinees in the upper group answered the item correctly, while a small proportion of examinees in the lower group answered it correctly. An item difficulty level (p) ranges in value from 0 to +1.0 with a value of 0 indicating a very difficult item and a value of +1.0 indicating a very easy item. A difficulty index of .50 indicates that 50% of examinees in the try-out sample answered the item correctly.

(Test Construction)

C. semantic - CORRECT Craik and Lockhart distinguished between shallow and deep processing. According to their theory, shallow processing (processing words on the basis of their phonemic or orthographic characteristics) is less effective than deep processing (processing words at the semantic or meaning-based level). Craik and Lockhart’s (1972) levels of processing model proposes that the level (depth) of processing of information affects how well that information is retained.

D. perceptual - Incorrect Perceptual processing includes orthographic and phonemic processing, which are shallow levels.

(Learning Theory & Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies)

C. cervical - CORRECT Quadriplegia (the loss of sensory and motor functioning in the arms and legs) results from damage at the cervical level.

A. lumbar - Incorrect Damage at the lumbar level is likely to cause some loss of functioning in the hips and legs.

B. sacral - Incorrect Damage at the sacral level also causes loss of functioning in the hips and legs.

D. thoracic - Incorrect Paraplegia (loss of functioning in the legs) is caused by damage at the thoracic level.

(Physiological Psychology/ Psychopharmacology)

C. demand characteristics - CORRECT Demand characteristics are cues in the experimental setting that inadvertently convey information to participants about what behavior is expected. If participants do not know what the purpose of the study is, they will be less susceptible to the effects of any cues that happen to be present.In the situation described in this question, participants will not know the real purpose of the study. As long as you’re familiar with the phenomena listed in the answers, you should have been able to recognize which phenomenon would be impacted by this lack of knowledge.

A. Hawthorne effect - Incorrect The Hawthorne effect is the tendency for the performance of research participants to improve as the result of the attention they receive as research participants. In other words, it is knowing that they are in a study (not knowing the purpose of the study) that impacts performance.

B. Rosenthal effect - Incorrect The Rosenthal (self-fulfilling prophecy) effect refers to the impact of a teacher's expectations about the performance of his/her students on their actual performance.

D. differential attrition - Incorrect Differential attrition occurs when participants who drop out of one group differ in a systematic way from those who drop out of another group and this difference affects the study’s results.

(Statistics and Research Design)

A. are more creative and better at decision-making - CORRECT Much of the research on group heterogeneity has focused on its effects on creativity and decision-making and has found a positive effect of heterogeneity on both measures of performance. Most studies have found that groups are more effective when members are heterogeneous with regard to gender, personality, experience, skills, etc.

B. are more creative but less productive overall - Incorrect

C. make better decisions but are less productive overall - Incorrect

D. are more creative but worse at decision-making - Incorrect

(Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

A. making new information meaningful - CORRECT The term elaborative rehearsal is used to describe the process of making new information meaningful in order to enhance its retention and retrieval. Relating new information to previously acquired information is one type of elaborative rehearsal. Researchers interested in memory distinguish between two types of rehearsal – elaborative and maintenance.

B. consciously repeating new information - Incorrect This sounds more like maintenance rehearsal which involves the rote repetition of information.

C. practicing a new skill past the point of mastery - Incorrect This describes “overlearning.”

D. ‭“‬thinking aloud‭” ‬while studying - Incorrect This does not describe elaborative rehearsal.

(Learning Theory & Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies)

B. disjunctive - CORRECT For disjunctive tasks, the group selects a solution (ideally the optimal solution) from those proposed by individual group members.

A. compensatory - Incorrect In a compensatory task, the group’s performance is the average of the effort or performance of the individual members.

C. conjunctive - Incorrect On conjunctive tasks, group members act in unison, which means that the group product is limited by the performance of the weakest member.

D. additive - Incorrect When working on an additive task, the group product is the sum of the contributions of each member.

(Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

B. ask more questions - CORRECT Women are more likely to ask questions during a conversation, and men tend to talk for longer periods of time, interrupt more frequently, and make more eye contact. Research has identified several consistent gender differences in conversation style.

(Lifespan Development)

D. less than‭ ‬5‭ ‬seconds - CORRECT Sensory memory includes a separate store for each sense, and the duration of sensory memory varies somewhat, depending on the sense. For iconic (visual) memories, the duration is about .5 to 1.0 seconds; for echoic (auditory) memories, the duration is up to 4 or 5 seconds. Sensory memory provides very brief storage of incoming sensory input.

(Learning Theory & Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies)

C. a temporary increase in the behavior cannot be tolerated - CORRECT Extinction often produces an initial "extinction burst" (temporary increase in the target behavior). Consequently, it would be contraindicated when a temporary increase in the behavior cannot be tolerated. Extinction is accomplished by withholding all reinforcement from a previously reinforced behavior.

A. an alternative behavior cannot be identified - Incorrect It would be helpful to be simultaneously reinforcing an alternative behavior, but the absence of an alternative behavior would not rule out the use of extinction.

B. the behavior has been reinforced on a continuous schedule - Incorrect Behaviors that have been reinforced on a continuous schedule are easier to extinguish than those that have been reinforced on an intermittent schedule.

D. the baseline levels of the behavior cannot be established - Incorrect It would be useful to have a baseline reading to determine the effects of the extinction procedure, but the absence of a baseline measure would not rule out the use of extinction.

(Learning Theory & Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies)

c. showed that the environment influences how a person's behavior is perceived - CORRECT: In the pseudopatient study, researchers were judged by hospital staff to be schizophrenic even though they acted normally while in the hospital. Rosenhan concluded that these results demonstrated the impact of the social environment on impression

formation.

(Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

a. her lack of ability - CORRECT: Research on the self-serving bias has shown that there are exceptions to its predictions. For example, depressed people are likely to attribute their failures to internal (dispositional), stable, and global factors.

(Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

b. actor-observer effect - CORRECT: In this situation, you are attributing your own behavior to a situational factor but the behavior of another person to a dispositional factor. This is consistent with the

actor-observer effect.

(Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

c. fundamental attribution bias - CORRECT: The fundamental attribution error occurs when making attributions about the behavior of another person and involves attributing that behavior to dispositional factors.

(Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

b. doesn't take base rate data into account - CORRECT: The representativeness heuristic involves basing your judgment about the likelihood

that a person, object, or event belongs to a particular category on how similar the person,

object, or event is to that category while ignoring base rate data.

(Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

c. illusory correlation - CORRECT: The illusory correlation is a cognitive error that occurs when we believe that two unrelated events are related.

(Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

d. social comparison - CORRECT: Because high-anxiety participants in Schachter's study preferred to wait with others only when the others were also highly-anxious, Schachter concluded that the desire to affiliate is best explained by social comparison (i.e., the participants’ desire to evaluate their own

anxiety by comparing it to the anxiety of another participant).

(Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

b. in the later stages, each partner's behavior has become more predictable - CORRECT: The emotion-in-relationship model predicts that emotion in close relationships is aroused by unusual or unexpected events. In the later stages of a relationship, a partner is less likely to do something unexpected (e.g., an extravagant birthday present is a surprise during the first and second years of a relationship, but, by the 12th year, it has come to be expected.)

(Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

a. perceptions of his/her own contribution/reward ratio and the ratio of his/her partner - CORRECT: Equity theory predicts that we are satisfied with relationships that we perceive to be equitable. To evaluate the equity of a relationship, we compare our input/outcome (contribution/reward) ratio to the ratio of the other person.

(Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

c. confirm his negative self-evaluations - CORRECT: Self-verification theory predicts that we seek feedback that is consistent with our self-evaluations.

(Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

b. commitment, challenge, and control - CORRECT: Commitment, challenge, and control are the three components that Kobasa et al. identified as being characteristic of hardiness.

(Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

c. conformity to group norms - CORRECT: Sherif used the autokinetic effect to evaluate the willingness of a person to confirm to the group norm in an ambiguous situation.

(Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

b. members supporting the minority position are consistent in expressing their opinion without appearing dogmatic - CORRECT: Moscovici argues that, to change the opinion of the majority, the minority must present its position in a firm, consistent manner without appearing dogmatic.

(Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

c. psychological reactance theory - CORRECT: In the situation described in the question, the college students are doing the opposite of what is required by law (i.e., are doing the opposite of what is desired in a situation in which their personal freedom is being threatened). This is referred to as psychological reactance.

(Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

a. referent - CORRECT: A person has referent power when he is admired, liked, or respected by other people or is viewed as a role model.

(Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

a. attitude toward the behavior, subjective norms, and perceived behavioral control - CORRECT: The theory of planned behavior proposes that attitudes are a good predictor of behavior when the three attitudinal components of a person's behavioral intention are measured — the person's attitude toward engaging in the behavior; what the person believes other people think he or she should do (i.e., his/her perception of subjective norms); and the person's perceived behavioral control.

(Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

b. moderate - CORRECT: The research has found that change in attitude is greatest when the initial level of discrepancy is in the moderate range, especially when the communicator is mildly to

moderately credible.

(Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

b. rated the group as more interesting and enjoyable - CORRECT: As predicted by cognitive dissonance theory, when women had to undergo a difficult initiation to get into a dull group, they experienced dissonance and, to reduce dissonance (i.e., to justify the initiation). they described the dull group as being enjoyable.

(Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

d. he is in a neutral or slightly negative mood - CORRECT: The elaboration likelihood model predicts that we're more likely to use the central

route when we‘re in a neutral or slightly negative mood but the peripheral route when we’re in

a positive mood.

(Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

a. has high ego-involvement with the target issue - CORRECT: According to social judgment theory, the magnitude of the three categories of judgment

are affected by the individual's level of ego-involvement in the target issue. Not surprisingly,

when a person has high ego-involvement, he/she is less likely to be persuaded (i.e., his/her

latitude of rejection is large).

(Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

d. provide the person with arguments against her beliefs and weak refutations of those arguments - CORRECT: McGuire derived his notion of attitude inoculation from the use of inoculation in medicine. It involves providing the recipient of a message with arguments against his/her position and weak counterarguments prior to hearing the message.

(Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

b. there are aggressive cues in the environment - CORRECT: Berkowitz (1971) found that frustration leads to a “readiness for aggression" but that

the actual expression of aggression requires anger arousal plus the presence of aggressive

cues.

(Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

a. tend to overestimate the chance that they will be the victims of violence - CORRECT: The results of the existing studies generally confirm that frequent viewing of media violence is associated with an increased fear of the environment, including fear of being the victim of violence.

(Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

a. deindividuation - CORRECT: Zimbardo‘s detndividuation model predicts that we're more likely to act aggressively when we can do so anonymously.

(Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

c. Institutional - CORRECT: Institutional racism refers to denial or restriction of material conditions (e.g., access to quality education or gainful employment) and access to power to members of minority groups.

(Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

c. symbolic racism theory - CORRECT: One of the characteristics of “symbolic racists" is a tendency to support equality as an abstract principle while opposing concrete methods for achieving it.

(Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

d. assign the students goals that can be achieved only through intergroup cooperation - CORRECT: The Robber‘s Cave Study demonstrated that the best way to reduce intergroup hostility is to introduce super-ordinate goals - i.e., goals that can be achieved only thought intergroup cooperation.

(Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

b. reduces ethnic stereotyping - CORRECT: Introduction of the jigsaw method into the classroom has been found to have a number

of beneficial effects including raising self-esteem, improving cooperation, and reducing ethnic

stereotyping. In terms of academic achievement, it tends to improve the performance of minority-group children and either increase or have no effect on the performance of majority-group children.

(Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

a. there is a single bystander - CORRECT: Research on bystander apathy has shown that. the greater the number of bystanders,

the less likely that a victim will receive help.

(Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

c. a function of both the person's own attributes and the characteristics of the environment - CORRECT: Lewin’s field theory predicts that behavior is a function of the person and his/her physical and social environment.

(Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

b. the closer we get to the goal, the stronger our desire to avoid it - CORRECT: One of the reasons why an approach-avoidance conflict is difficult to resolve is because the closer we get to the goal, the stronger the avoidance motive; and, conversely, the farther we get from the goal, the stronger the approach motive. This causes us to waiver during the decision-making process.

(Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

a. we tend to remember unfinished tasks better than finished ones - CORRECT: The Zeigarnik effect refers to the tendency to remember interrupted and unfinished tasks better than completed ones.

(Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

a. Men are more likely than women to act aggressively in crowded conditions - CORRECT: In general, men are more stressed by and react more negatively to crowded situations.

(Social Psychology Book Review Questions)

C. write a letter to the psychologist,‭ ‬indicating the relevant ethical standards and offering to discuss the matter with him - (CORRECT) By offering to discuss the matter with the psychologist, you are attempting to resolve the matter informally, which is consistent with the requirements of the ethical guidelines. Standard 8.02 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle I.30 of the Canadian Code of Ethics apply to this situation. Both require psychologists to allow participants to withdraw from a research study at any time.

A. refuse to assist with the research project - (Incorrect) Resigning from the project would not correct the ethical violation.

B. immediately file a complaint against the psychologist with the psychology licensing board or ethics committee - (Incorrect) Although a report may eventually be necessary, it is not the best first step since this matter may be amenable to an informal resolution (answer c).

D. follow the psychologist''s instructions since,‭ ‬by‭ "‬discouraging" ‬participants from leaving the group,‭ ‬you are not actually coercing them to participate - (Incorrect) This would be unethical, and in so doing, you would be violating the provisions of Standards 1.04 and 1.05 of the Ethics Code and Principles II.40 and II.41 of the Canadian Code of Ethics, which require psychologists to take action when a colleague acts in an unethical way.

(Ethics Online Quiz)

A. decline the request to testify (CORRECT) Since the psychologist has a therapeutic relationship with the child, it would be in the child's best interests for the psychologist to refrain from testifying. Instead, the psychologist’s role should be to provide the child with continued support.

B. agree to testify only if she obtains consent from both parents. Incorrect - Even if both parents consent to her testimony, the psychologist would be engaging in a multiple relationship which ordinarily should be avoided in custody cases. See Standard II.7 of the APA’s Guidelines for Child Custody Evaluations in Divorce Proceedings.

C. agree to testify only if she can evaluate all of the involved parties. Incorrect - This would be the best course of action when a psychologist does not have a previous relationship with any of the involved parties.

D. agree to testify only if her familiarity with the child won''t bias her testimony. Incorrect - One of the reasons that the psychologist should not testify is because it might be difficult to be objective.

(Ethics Online Quiz)

C. ethically as long as she clarifies her roles with all parties - (CORRECT) According to ethical guidelines, accepting multiple roles may be acceptable as long as certain conditions are met – e.g., as long as the psychologist clarifies the nature of the multiples relationships with all involved parties (see Standard 3.05 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle I.26 of the Canadian Code of Ethics). In addition, the Specialty Guidelines for Forensic Psychologists states that acting as a consultant for one party and a fact witness for another may be acceptable as long as the psychologist clarifies his/her roles with both parties and acts in a way that does not compromise his/her judgment and objectivity.

(Ethics Online Quiz)

B. only if the employee was referred to the program by the supervisor - (CORRECT) Confidentiality is a critical issue in employee assistance programs (EAPs). Under normal circumstances, information about an employee’s condition or treatment is not revealed without the employee's consent. Confidentiality may be breached in the context of EAP's in those situations that it can be breached in other contexts (e.g., when a client is believed to be a danger to him/herself or to others). In addition, when an employee comes for counseling as the result of a referral by his/her supervisor, the supervisor can be given limited information – i.e., the supervisor can be told if the employee kept the appointment, whether the employee needs treatment, and whether the employee has accepted treatment. The supervisor should not be given any other information about the employee without the employee’s consent.

(Ethics Online Quiz)

D. prohibit sexual relationships with supervisees over whom the psychologist has evaluative authority - (CORRECT) Standard 7.07 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle II.28 of the Canadian Code of Ethics prohibit psychologists from becoming involved in sexual relationships with students and supervisees over whom they have evaluative authority. Being familiar with the exact language of the ethical guidelines would have allowed you to identify the correct response to this question.

(Ethics Online Quiz - 5233)

B. ability to comprehend the charges against him/her - (CORRECT) An evaluation for competence to stand trial focuses on the defendant’s ability to comprehend the charges against him/her, to understand the trial process, to cooperate with his/her attorney, etc. The focus of an evaluation to determine a defendant’s competence to stand trial focuses on his/her current psycholegal abilities and impairments.

(Ethics Online Quiz - 5242)

D. allow the student to withdraw from the study - (CORRECT) Ethical guidelines require researchers to allow participants to withdraw at any time from a research study. This answer is most consistent with this requirement. This issue is addressed by Standard 8.02 of the APA’s Ethics Code and Principle I.24 of the Canadian Code of Ethics.

(Ethics Online Q - 5231)

A. notify the attorney who issued the subpoena that the client has asserted the privilege and request that he be released from subpoena - (CORRECT) When the client invokes the privilege in this type of situation, the psychologist should contact the client’s attorney or his/her own attorney to discuss the matter. The psychologist can also contact the attorney who issued the subpoena to request to be released from it. Unless the psychologist receives a written release, he/she must appear as requested but would not reveal confidential (privileged) information without the client’s consent or without an order from the court to do so. A subpoena is a legal document that requires a psychologist to appear at a designated time at a legal proceeding. If the client invokes the privilege (says she does not want the therapist to release confidential information to the court), the subpoena is still valid and the psychologist must appear unless he/she has been released from it.

(Ethics Online Q - 5135)

D. not release any information to the mother without appropriate authorization - (CORRECT) This is the best course of action of those listed in the answers. In general, a psychologist should not release information after a client's death without proper authorization from the client's legal representative. For a discussion of this issue, see R. I. Simon, Clinical psychiatry and the law, American Psychiatric Publishing, Washington, DC, 2003. Laws related to this situation vary from jurisdiction to jurisdiction but, in general, confidentiality does not end when a current or former client dies.

(Ethics Online Quiz - 5201)

B. contact the client to discuss the release of information - (CORRECT) Dr. Browne would want to verify that the client has, in fact, signed a release and discuss the release and its potential consequences with the client before providing the psychologist with the requested information. Even though the person requesting the client’s record is a licensed psychologist, Dr. Browne would not want to breach confidentiality by providing confidential client information to her without knowing specifically what the client has consented to.

(Ethics Online Quiz - 5137)

A. unethically by agreeing to get involved in a dual relationship - (CORRECT) Standard 3.05(a) of the Ethics Code states that “a psychologist refrains from entering into a multiple relationship if the multiple relationship could reasonably be expected to impair the psychologist's objectivity, competence, or effectiveness in performing his or her functions as a psychologist, or otherwise risks exploitation or harm to the person with whom the professional relationship exists.” The psychologist in the situation described in this question is entering into a multiple relationship that may threaten his objectivity and effectiveness as a supervisor and therapist. In most situations, psychologists should avoid dual (multiple) relationships. See, e.g., Standard 3.05(a) of APA's Ethics Code and Principle III.33 of the Canadian Code of Ethics.

B. unethically by violating the intern''s right to privacy - Incorrect There is no indication that privacy is an issue in this situation.

C. ethically because they are working in a community hospital in a small town - Incorrect In some circumstances, multiple relationships may be unavoidable. However, the fact that the intern and psychologist work in a community hospital in a small town does not necessarily mean that no other options are available.

D. ethically because the intern is in desperate need of help - Incorrect There is no indication that the intern is in such “desperate need of help” that she cannot wait to see another professional.

(Ethics Online Q - 5121)

C. computerized interpretations should always be supplemented with other information obtained by the psychologist - (CORRECT) The information in a computerized interpretation is limited and, therefore, the best policy is to always supplement computerized interpretations with information from other tests, interviews, observations, etc. Automated scoring and interpretation services are available for a number of psychological tests including the MMPI-2.

A. the use of computerized interpretations is prohibited by ethical guidelines - Incorrect The use of automated interpretation services is not prohibited by ethical guidelines as long as certain standards are met by both the service and the users of the service.

B. computerized scoring and interpretation services are notoriously unreliable - Incorrect The quality of computer interpretations varies from service to service, and it cannot be concluded that all computerized interpretations are "notoriously unreliable."

D. because of their objectivity,‭ ‬computerized interpretations are preferable to subjective interpretations - Incorrect The information provided by computerized interpretations is limited and the accuracy of the interpretation depends on the quality of the service. Therefore, it cannot be concluded that computerized interpretations are necessarily the preferred method of score interpretation.

(Ethics Online Q - 5123)

A. legally and ethically - (CORRECT) The laws relevant to this situation vary from jurisdiction to jurisdiction but, in general, non-custodial parents have the right to obtain information about their children. In California, for example, the law states that "Notwithstanding any other provision of law, access to records and information pertaining to a minor child, including but not limited to medical, dental, and school records, shall not be denied to a parent because such parent is not the child's custodial parent" (Civil Code 4600.5). The rights of non-custodial parents may be limited in terms of obtaining psychological services for their children. However, custody status does not necessarily affect access to certain kinds of information.

(Ethics Online Q - 5207)

A. He must tell his clients that he is a psychology intern - (CORRECT) This answer is most consistent with ethical guidelines which require interns (trainees) to inform their clients of their professional status. Note that Standard 10.01(c) of the Ethics Code also requires that Mr. DeFoe provide clients with the name of his supervisor.

B. He must tell his clients that his work is being supervised - Incorrect Telling clients that he is being supervised would not be adequate since this would not clearly indicate that he is an intern.

(Ethics Online Q - 5190)

A. Adler’s - (CORRECT) According to Adler, real or imagined organ inferiority leads to feelings of inferiority. However, people can respond to these feelings in a constructive way and pursue goals that help them achieve superiority. This is a fairly simple question as long as you recall that Adler is associated with the concepts of "feelings of inferiority" and "striving for superiority."

(Clinical Psychology Online Quiz - 4472)

B. an alteration in memory,‭ ‬mood,‭ ‬and perception - (CORRECT) M. T. Orne & D. F. Dinges, for example, conclude that the unusual behaviors exhibited by hypnotized people reflect alterations in memory, perception, and mood that occur in response to suggestion (Hypnosis, in H. I. Kaplan & B. J. Sadock (eds.), Comprehensive Textbook of Psychiatry/V, Baltimore, Williams Wilkins, 1989). The mechanism underlying hypnosis continues to elude researchers but is generally believed to be related to increased suggestibility.

A. a measurable physiological change - Incorrect No physiological mechanism has been consistently linked to the hypnotized state.

C. increased compliance to situational demands - Incorrect Behaviors similar to those elicited from hypnotized individuals can also be elicited from non-hypnotized people in certain situations, suggesting that increased compliance to situational demands does not adequately explain the state of hypnosis.

D. a state of‭ “‬artificial sleep.‭” - Incorrect This was the explanation offered by James Braid in the late 1840s but is no longer considered valid.

(Clinical Psychology Online Quiz - 4475)

C. egalitarianism - (CORRECT) Egalitarianism conflicts with traditional Asian values including the value of filial piety. M. K. Ho identified 7 values that are characteristic of traditional Asian cultures and that may also apply to many Asian Americans: filial piety (respect for parents); shame; self-control; assumption of the middle position (consensus); awareness of the social milieu; fatalism; and inconspicuousness (Minority Children and Adolescents in Therapy, Newbury Park, CA, Sage, 1992).

A. shame - Incorrect This is one of the values identified by Ho and others.

B. self-control - Incorrect This has also been identified as a traditional Asian value.

D. fatalism - Incorrect This is another value that is characteristic of Asian cultures.

(Clinical Psychology Online Quiz - 4399)

A. disengaged - (CORRECT) From the perspective of Minuchin's structural family therapy, relationships in this family are characterized by a high degree of disengagement. The family members described in this question do not seem to be involved in or concerned about the lives of other members.

B. closed - Incorrect A closed system does not interact with the environment. Although this family might be a closed system, this is not what is implied by the information given in the question.

C. emotionally‭ "‬cut-off.‭" - Incorrect Emotional cutoff is associated with Bowen, not Minuchin, so it is not the best answer of those given.

D. skewed - Incorrect Marital skew is a term used by Lidz to describe a situation in which spouses attempt to maintain their marriage even though this requires a distortion of reality.

(Clinical Psychology Online Quiz - 4476)

C. One of the family members has severe depression - (CORRECT) Depression has been linked to a variety of factors including heredity, biochemical abnormalities, learned helplessness, hostility or aggression turned inward, and illogical schemata. It has not, however, been consistently linked with any particular family factor; and family therapy, therefore, would not be particularly useful as a treatment for this disorder. Family therapy is generally contraindicated when one family member's disturbance, while affecting the family, is basically unrelated to family processes or structure or is so disruptive that it would interfere with the success of therapy.

A. The presenting problem involves long-term marital conflict - Incorrect Family therapy would be appropriate in this situation.

B. Family members attribute their problems to one of the members - Incorrect Family therapy would be appropriate in this situation.

D. One of the family members has anorexia or bulimia - Incorrect Family therapy would be appropriate in this situation since eating disorders (especially anorexia and bulimia) have been linked to family factors.

(Clinical Psychology Online Quiz - 4430)

D. is authentic &‭ ‬nondefensive - (CORRECT) Congruence involves being genuine, authentic, and nondefensive. Rogers proposed that, for therapy to be effective, the therapist must provide three facilitative conditions – unconditional positive regard, congruence (genuineness), and accurate empathic understanding.

A. is able to accurately‭ “‬reflect‭” ‬the client’s feelings - Incorrect This sounds more like accurate empathic understanding.

B. avoids becoming‭ ‬“emotionally triangulated‭” ‬with the client - Incorrect This does not describe congruence.

C. avoids making judgments about the client’s behaviors - Incorrect This describes unconditional positive regard.

(Clinical Psychology Online Quiz - 4452)

B. a way for the client to avoid coming to terms with the present - (CORRECT) Gestalt therapists do not deny the significance of the past. However, in therapy, they encourage clients to stay in the present even when discussing past events or feelings since focusing on the past is viewed as a way to avoid the present. Knowing that Gestaltians focus on the here-and-now in therapy would have helped you identify the correct response to this question.

(Clinical Psychology Online Quiz - 4394)

A. blocked potential - (CORRECT) Neurosis and psychosis are generally viewed as the result of interference with the natural potential for growth and self-actualization. Therapists classified as humanists share a belief in the inherent capacity for humans to grow toward the achievement of their potential (i.e., to achieve self-actualization).

(Clinical Psychology Online Quiz - 4467)

B. the predictor has an inverse relationship with the criterion - CORRECT A negative sign means that there is an inverse (negative) correlation between the predictor and the criterion. The size and sign of a predictor’s regression coefficient are related to the nature of the correlation between the predictor and criterion.

A. you should eliminate that predictor from the regression equation - Incorrect A negative sign does not mean there is anything wrong with the predictor.

C. the predictor is uncorrelated with the other predictors included in the analysis - Incorrect This is not implied by a negative regression coefficient.

D. you have made a mistake in your data entry or calculations - Incorrect A negative regression coefficient is a possibility and, therefore, is not necessarily indicative of a data entry or calculation error.

(Stats & Res. Online Quiz - 4885)

C. participants are selected for inclusion in the study because of their extremely high or low scores on the pretest - CORRECT When participants are chosen for inclusion in a study because of their extreme scores on the pretest, it is likely that their scores will “regress to the mean” on the post-test, regardless of the effects of the treatment. This can make it difficult to ascertain the effects of the independent variable on the dependent variable. Statistical regression refers to the tendency of extreme scores to “regress to the mean” on retesting – i.e., for examinees who obtained extremely high or extremely low scores on a measure to obtain scores closer to the mean when retested.

(Stats & Res. Online Quiz - 4879)

D. generalize the results of the study to other individuals,‭ ‬settings,‭ ‬and conditions - CORRECT External validity refers to the ability to generalize the results of a study to groups, settings, and conditions other than those used in the study. Random selection of participants from the population is one factor that helps ensure adequate external validity in terms of generalizability to other individuals. Two standards are used to judge the validity of a research study – internal and external validity.

A. manipulate the independent variable - Incorrect The ability to manipulate the independent variable has a direct impact on a study’s internal validity, which refers to the ability to determine if the independent variable has affected the dependent variable.

B. randomly assign participants to treatment groups - Incorrect Random assignment is important for internal validity.

C. determine whether there is a causal relationship between variables - Incorrect This response describes internal (not external) validity.

(Stats & Res. Online Quiz - 4889)

C. .39 - CORRECT To simplify the task for this question, you could calculate the square root of .16 (rather than .15). The square root of .16 is .40, so the square root of .15 will be slightly less than .40. Therefore, of the numbers listed in the answers, the best estimate of shared variability is .39. To determine the amount of variability in one variable that is explained by variability in another variable (i.e., the amount of shared variability), you must square the correlation coefficient. Conversely, to determine the correlation coefficient when the shared variability is known, you must calculate the square root of the shared variability.

(Stats & Res. Online Quiz - 4841)

A. there is a‭ ‬1%‭ ‬chance that she will incorrectly reject the null hypothesis - CORRECT Significance at the .01 level means that there is a 1% chance that the obtained value (e.g., the mean or the difference between means) could have occurred by chance alone given the value specified in the null hypothesis. In other words, there is a 1% probability that the null hypothesis will be incorrectly rejected (that a Type I error will be made). The level of significance (alpha) determines the location of the boundary between the regions of likely and unlikely values in the sampling distribution. When results are significant at the chosen level of significance, this means that the results are in the region of unlikely values and that the null hypothesis should be rejected.

B. there is a‭ ‬1%‭ ‬chance that she will incorrectly retain the null hypothesis - Incorrect The probability of incorrectly retaining the null hypothesis (i.e., of retaining a false null hypothesis) is equal to beta, not alpha.

C. there is a‭ ‬99%‭ ‬chance that she will incorrectly reject the null hypothesis - Incorrect See explanation for response a.

D. there is a‭ ‬99%‭ ‬chance that she will incorrectly retain the null hypothesis - Incorrect Because the results are statistically significant, the psychologist will reject (not retain) the null hypothesis.

(Stats & Res. Online Quiz - 4846)

D. eta - CORRECT Eta is used to measure the relationship between two continuous (interval or ratio) variables when their relationship is nonlinear. The choice of a correlation coefficient is based on several factors including the scale of measurement of the variables and the shape of the relationship between them (linear vs. non-linear).

A. phi - Incorrect The phi coefficient is appropriate when both variables are true (natural) dichotomies.

B. tau - Incorrect Kendall’s tau is appropriate when both variables are measured on an ordinal scale.

C. rho - Incorrect Rho (also known as the Spearman rank-order correlation coefficient) is used when both variables are measured as ranks.

(Stats & Res. Online Quiz - 4844)

A. the predictors are highly correlated with one another - CORRECT The term multicollinearity is used to describe high correlations between predictors (X variables). When choosing predictors for a multiple regression equation, the optimal condition is for each predictor to explain unique variability in the criterion. When predictors are correlated, this condition is violated.

(Stats & Res. Online Quiz - 4871)

A. decreasing within-group variability - CORRECT Within-group variability is a measure of error; and decreasing within-group variability decreases error and the magnitude of the denominator of the F-ratio. The mean square within (MSW) is the denominator of the F-ratio and, as its name implies, is a measure of within-group variability.

B. increasing within-group variability - Incorrect This would increase the size of the denominator of the F-ratio.

C. increasing between-group variability and decreasing within-group variability - Incorrect MSW is a measure of within-group variability and isn't affected by between-group variability.

D. decreasing between-group variability and increasing within-group variability - Incorrect

(Stats & Res. Online Quiz - 4886)

A. discriminant analysis - CORRECT A discriminant analysis (also known as discriminant function analysis) involves using scores on two or more predictors to predict an individual's membership in a criterion group – i.e., it is used when the criterion is measured on a nominal scale. There are several methods for combining predictor scores to estimate performance or status on a criterion. When the criterion (Y variable) is group membership, discriminant analysis is an appropriate method.

B. multiple regression - Incorrect Multiple regression is used to combine scores on several predictors to predict or estimate performance or status on a criterion that is measured on an interval or ratio scale.

C. factor analysis - Incorrect Factor analysis is used to determine the underlying factors (attributes) that are assessed by set of measures.

D. path analysis - Incorrect Path analysis is used to test a model of the causal links among a set of variables.

(Stats & Res. Online Quiz - 4874)

A. time-series - CORRECT Of the research designs listed in the answers, repeated measurement of the dependent variable is characteristic only of the time series design, which is a type of repeated measures (within subjects) design. Autocorrelation refers to the correlation between measurements of the dependent variable when it is repeatedly administered to the same participants. Autocorrelation is a problem in repeated measures designs because it can artificially inflate the value of the inferential statistic and thereby increase the probability of making a Type I error.

B. factorial - Incorrect Factorial designs include two or more independent variables and do not necessarily involve repeated measurements of the dependent variable.

(Stats & Res. Online Quiz - 4866)

C. includes both measured‭ (‬observed‭) ‬attributes and latent traits. - CORRECT In contrast to path analysis models, which predict the causal relationships among measured attributes only, LISREL models incorporate both measured attributes and latent traits. LISREL, a structural equation (causal) modeling technique, is used to test causal hypotheses about relationships among measured variables and the latent traits those variables are believed to measure.

(Stats & Res. Online Quiz - 4882)

D. cohort effect - CORRECT “Cohort effect” refers to the confounding effects of intergenerational differences in experience or other characteristics. Cohort effects can be a source of error in cross-sectional studies (such as the study described in this question). Your colleague is predicting that your research findings will be confounded by differences in computer experience that are related to differences in age. This is often a problem in cross-sectional research.

A. Rosenthal effect - Incorrect The Rosenthal effect is another name for the self-fulfilling prophecy effect and is not relevant to this situation.

B. Hawthorne effect - Incorrect The Hawthorne effect refers to the tendency of research participants to act in atypical ways because they are participating in a research study (e.g., because of the novelty of the situation or the special attention they are receiving).

C. carryover effect - Incorrect A carryover effect is a potential problem in within-subjects research. It occurs when exposure to one level of an independent variable impacts how participants respond to another level of the independent variable.

(Stats & Res. Online Quiz - 4868)

D. brain damage, intellectual disability, or emotional disturbance - As noted in the question, an examinee makes a confabulatory response (DW) when he/she overgeneralizes from a part of the inkblot to the whole inkblot -- e.g., "It looks like my father because of those eyes. My father had those same penetrating eyes." In this situation, the examinee has overgeneralized a detail of the inkblot ("penetrating eyes") so that the entire inkblot reminds him of his father.

(Psych Assessment)

B. the effects of one variable are contingent on the level of the second variable - Correct - This is another way of saying that the effects of one variable are different at different levels of another variable, which is the definition of an interaction.

(Stats & Res Design)