Back to AI Flashcard MakerPsychology /GRE® Psychology Clinical: Clinical and Abnormal Part 2

GRE® Psychology Clinical: Clinical and Abnormal Part 2

Psychology106 CardsCreated 2 months ago

Schizophrenic disorders commonly involve delusions (false beliefs), hallucinations (sensory experiences without stimuli), and inappropriate or blunted emotional responses to the environment.

What are three common features of schizophrenic disorders?


  1. delusions

  2. hallucinations

  3. disturbed or innapropriate emotional responses to environmental stimuli

Tap or swipe ↕ to flip
Swipe ←→Navigate
1/106

Key Terms

Term
Definition

What are three common features of schizophrenic disorders?


  1. delusions

  2. hallucinations

  3. disturbed or innapropriate emotional responses to environmental stimuli

If Jim's schizophrenia has a slow and insidious onset, what is this called and what is his prognosis?


Process schizophrenia; his prognosis is poor, as it shows a long-term deterioration.


Catatonia can occur in a variety of disorders, such as neurodevelopmental, psychotic, bipolar, and depressive, as well as in some other medical conditions.

Catatonia involves marked psychomotor disturbance, and requires any 3 (or more) of the 12 possible symptoms.

Be able to recognize the symptoms of catatonia and know what they mean!

  1. Stupor

  2. Catalepsy

  3. Waxy flexibility

  4. Mutism (do not count toward diagnosis is the individual has ...

Who coined the term schizophrenia?

Eugene Bleuler

Bleuler identified the lack of coherence between emotion and thought and the breaking away from reality characteristic of psyc...

What is waxy flexibility?

A catatonia symptom in which the body can be moved into new positions and will stay there instead of going limp.

Fill in the blanks:

______ affect is characterized by very few expressions of affect and _______ affect is characterized by consistently manifesting socially unacceptable emotional expressions.

Flat; inappropriate

Related Flashcard Decks

Study Tips

  • Press F to enter focus mode for distraction-free studying
  • Review cards regularly to improve retention
  • Try to recall the answer before flipping the card
  • Share this deck with friends to study together
TermDefinition

What are three common features of schizophrenic disorders?


  1. delusions

  2. hallucinations

  3. disturbed or innapropriate emotional responses to environmental stimuli

If Jim's schizophrenia has a slow and insidious onset, what is this called and what is his prognosis?


Process schizophrenia; his prognosis is poor, as it shows a long-term deterioration.


Catatonia can occur in a variety of disorders, such as neurodevelopmental, psychotic, bipolar, and depressive, as well as in some other medical conditions.

Catatonia involves marked psychomotor disturbance, and requires any 3 (or more) of the 12 possible symptoms.

Be able to recognize the symptoms of catatonia and know what they mean!

  1. Stupor

  2. Catalepsy

  3. Waxy flexibility

  4. Mutism (do not count toward diagnosis is the individual has aphasia)

  5. Negativism

  6. Posturing

  7. Mannerism

  8. Stereotypy

  9. Agitation not influenced by external stimuli

  10. Grimacing

  11. Echolalia (mimicking another's speech)

  12. Echopraxia (mimicking another's movements)

Who coined the term schizophrenia?

Eugene Bleuler

Bleuler identified the lack of coherence between emotion and thought and the breaking away from reality characteristic of psychotic illness.

What is waxy flexibility?

A catatonia symptom in which the body can be moved into new positions and will stay there instead of going limp.

Fill in the blanks:

______ affect is characterized by very few expressions of affect and _______ affect is characterized by consistently manifesting socially unacceptable emotional expressions.

Flat; inappropriate

What is the suicide risk for individuals who have schizoaffective disorder?

The lifetime risk for completed suicide for individuals who have schizophrenia or schizoaffective disorder is approximately 5%.

In other words, 1 in 20 people who have schizophrenia or schizoaffective disorder die by suicide.

Approximately 20% will attempt suicide one or more times.

What learning mechanism may help explain how compulsions arise in OCD?

(Hint: Operant conditioning)

Negative Reinforcement

Intermittently, an individual who has OCD will experience temporary spontaneous reduction of obsessive thoughts. Whatever action the individual was taking at the time, typically an action aimed at reducing the distress or preventing the feared harm/negative consequence, will be associated with the temporary alleviation of the symptom, i.e., negative reinforcement. (This leads to the development of habit-driven rituals.)

If a patient presented with involuntary, uncontrollable, intrusive thoughts that she unsuccessfully tried to control through repetitive behaviors or rituals, which disorder would she have?

obsessive-compulsive disorder


Yes or No:

Is checking and rechecking an effective way for someone with OCD to reassure himself or herself?

No

Research indicates that the more times one checks, the less certain one is! (Did I lock the door? Did I unplug the toaster?). This seems to be the case because the more times one checks, the distinctive the memory is for having checked!

What is Body Dysmorphic Disorder?

| (BDD)

BDD is an OCD-spectrum disorder in which:

  • The individual is preoccupied with an imagined defect in appearance (or if there is a real appearance-related issue, the individual's concern is out of proportion to the issue),

  • The preoccupation results in impairment in occupational/social functioning.

  • The preoccupation is not better accounted for by an eating disorder

Individuals with BDD often have multiple cosmetic surgeries.

What is the cardinal symptom of trichotillomania?

Pulling out one's hair.

In the DSM-5, trichotillomania is recognized as an OCD-spectrum disorder. (Previously it was considered an impulse control disorder.)

What is fear?

  • A negatively-valenced, basic emotion.

  • Focuses one's attention on a specific stimulus.

  • Activates the sympathstic nervous system, readying the body for fight, flight, or freeze responses, so one can respond quickly to a potentially dangerous situation.

What is anxiety?

  • Also is negatively-valenced.

  • It is a mood, so it is of longer duration than an emotion.

  • Future-oriented, focusing on potential future harm, rather than addressing an immediate threat.

Name two cognitive mechanisms that contribute to the anxious apprehension experienced by people who have an anxiety disorder:

  1. Threat Hypervigilance

  2. Uncertainty Intolerance

Feelings of dread and worry, along with constant autonomic nervous system arousal, characterize which disorder?

generalized anxiety disorder


People who have been exposed to high levels of violence, such as soldiers in war, are at risk for developing which disorder, characterized by recurring thoughts and anxiety linked to that trauma?

post-traumatic stress disorder


An individual has an enduring fear of public speaking that is so severe that it causes him clinically significant distress. He fears that because of his anxiety symptoms he will be humiliated or will unintentionally offend others.

What is his likely diagnosis?

Social Anxiety Disorder | (previously called social phobia)

Social Anxiety Disorder is one of the Anxiety Disorders.

Agoraphobia is an anxiety disorder, and it is characterized by FEAR, ANXIETY, and AVOIDANCE.

What are the primary features of Agoraphobia?

The individual has marked fear or anxiety about 2 or more of the following:

  1. Using public transportation;

  2. Being in open spaces;

  3. Being in enclosed spaces;

  4. Standing in line/being in a crowd;

  5. Being outside of the home alone

The individual avoids such situations/must have a companion to do/or are endured only with great distress; these situations almost always provoke fear or anxiety; fear is out of proportion both with actual risk and sociocultural norms; symptoms cause clinically significant distress or impairment.

If a medical disorder co-occurs (e.g., IBS, the fear, anxiety, or avoidance is clearly excessive), and the condition is not better explained by symptoms of another disorder.

Agoraphobia often co-occurs with Panic Disorder, though not always.

Fill in the blank:

Claustrophobia, cynophobia, and homophobia are all examples of ________ ________.

specific phobias

Specific objects or situations that provoke anxiety.

Fill in the blanks:

In order for a fear of common events or objects to be considered a phobia, it must be both ________ and ________.

persistent; irrational


Does everybody who has a panic attack go on to develop Panic Disorder?

No. Most people who have had a panic attack do not develop Panic Disorder.

3-6% of people have had a panic attack.

What is a panic attack?


The DSM-5 describes panic attacks as "an abrupt surge of intense fear or intense discomfort that reaches a peak within minutes."


What are the symptoms of a panic attack?

  1. Palpitations/pounding heart/accelerated heart rate;

  2. Sweating;

  3. Trembling/shaking;

  4. Short of breath/feel as if being smothered;

  5. Feel as if choking;

  6. Chest pain/chest discomfort;

  7. Nausea or abdominal distress;

  8. Feeling dizzy/unsteady/light-headed/faint;

  9. Chills or snsations of heat;

  10. Parasthesias (numbness/tingling);

  11. derealization/depersonalization;

  12. fear of losing control/fear of going crazy;

  13. Fear of dying

What symptoms characterize Panic Disorder?

  1. The individual experiences recurrent, unexpected panic attacks.

  2. For at least 1 month following one of the panic attacks, the individual has experienced significant worry/concern about future panic attacks (having them &/or their significance) and/or makes a significant maladaptive change in behavior related to the panic attacks (e.g., avoiding going to unfamiliar situations or avoiding exercise)

What is a diagnostic hallmark of conversion disorder?

Symptoms affecting the motor or sensory body systems that are real to the patient but have no apparent medical cause.

This is now a rare diagnosis, though it was a relatively common diagnosis during the first part of the twentieth century.

Define:

depersonalization disorder

This is a mental illness in which the patient may feel as though s/he is living outside his/her body, but still retains contact with reality.

What is Factitious Disorder Imposed on Another (Munchausen's Syndrome by Proxy)?

In this disorder, an individual seeking medical help or attention for another person in his or her care has intentionally, deliberatelly caused or simulated symptoms of an illness or of illnesses in the other person. Typically, it is a parent causing symptoms in her or his own child.

It is a very dangerous disorder; an estimated 10% of children who are victims of someone who has Factitious Disorder Imposed on Another die from the abuse (Hall et al., 2000).

Hidden camera evidence often is required in order to diagnose the disorder.

An individual sincerely frequently misinterprets bodily symptoms and so honestly believes himself or herself to be ill. This individual frequently seeks medical treatment. What is a likely diagnosis for this individual?

Hypochondriasis

Which psychological disorder is characterized by physical symptoms without root in actual physical causes?

somatoform disorder


Hypochondriasis, factitious disorders, and malingering involve someone who is not ill behaving as if ill, yet there are very different motivations for each. What are the motivations for hypochindriasis, for factitious disorders, and for malingering?

  • Hypochondriasis –Person actually believes he or she has an illness (based on bodily symptoms)

  • Factitious Disorders –Motive is internal; to assume the role of a sick person (or to do so by proxy); to gain the attention (and sympathy) of medical professionals

  • Malingering –Motive is external; e.g., to obtain compensation, to evade police or legal action; the individual can stop having symptoms if having symptoms is no longer useful

Conversion disorder and hypochondriasis both are what type of disorder?

Somatoform disorder


What are some common examples of paraphilias?

  • zoophilia is sexual attraction to animals

  • pedophilia is sexual attraction to children

  • fetishism is sexual arousal stemming from objects or situations

Paraphilia (or psychosexual disorder) is marked by the sexualization of objects, people, or activities that are not generally considered sexual.

What is the lethality scale?

A set of criteria used to assess the likelihood of an individual committing suicide.


Fill in the blanks:

Dissociative disorders are characterized either by a _________ of memory or a(n) _________ sense of identity.

dysfunction; altered


When someone is unable to remember things, but there is no physiological basis for the memory disruption, he is said to be afflicted with what kind of amnesia?

dissociative amnesia


In a dissociative fugue state, one first experiences a sudden and complete loss of identity which contributes to a sudden move far away from their place of origin. What happens after this loss?

The sufferer will assume a new identity because he (or she) does not remember his (or her) old identity.


Fill in the blanks:

__________ __________ __________ is characterized by the appearance of _____ or more distinct identities in one individual. The identities may or may not be aware of each other, and the personality manifested may be dependent on environmental or social context.

Dissociative Identity Disorder (DID); two


Yes or No:

Is the validity of the diagnosis of Dissociative Identity Disorder (DID: previously known as Multiple Personality Disorder,) universally accepted?

No.

The validity of DID is highly controversial. Some psychologists do not consider DID a true disorder, but rather a culture-bound manifestation of one or more other disorders.

Who was Sybil and how does Sybil's case call into question the validity of the diagnosis Dissociative Identity Disorder (DID)?

The most famous DID case is a patient known as Sybil. There was a best selling book (and later, a very popular movie) about Sybil. It was after the release of the book that DID (then Multiple Personality Disorder) became a common diagnosis, and even then, a small minority of therapists made the vast majority of the diagnoses of DID.

Many years later, it was revealed that the book was inaccurate and the case not as described. This is a truly shocking case of ethical misconduct.

For further information on the Sybil scandal, please see a NY Times article here and [an NPR article here](
http://www.npr.org/2011/10/20/141514464/real-sybil-admits-multiple-personalities-were-fake).

List some of the characteristics of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADD/HD)

  • often diagnosed in childhood

  • inability to focus on demanding tasks

  • lack of organization

  • problems adhering to instructions

  • excessive movement

  • impulsivity

Fill in the blanks:

Tourette's disorder is characterized by ______ and ______.

motor tics; vocal tics


What is the difference between retrograde and anterograde amnesia?

  • Retrograde amnesia, one loses memories that occurred before the traumatic event.

  • Anterograde amnesia, one loses memories occurring after the traumatic event.

What are the two main types of amnesia?

  1. anterograde

  2. retrograde

What is the primary function of the HPA-axis in response to stress?

Regulates the body's response to stress through hormone secretion.

The Hypothalamic-Pituitary-Adrenal (HPA) axis is crucial for the stress response, releasing cortisol to help manage stress and maintain homeostasis.

True or False:

Acute stress is typically short-lived and can sometimes be beneficial.

True

Acute stress can enhance cognitive and physical performance by increasing alertness and energy levels. However, chronic stress can have detrimental health effects.

Name a coping strategy that focuses on addressing the problem causing stress.

Problem-focused coping

Problem-focused coping involves tackling the source of stress directly, such as time management or seeking social support to reduce stress.

What type of conflict involves choosing between two desirable outcomes?

Approach-approach conflict

Approach-approach conflict arises when an individual is faced with two appealing choices, requiring a decision between them.

Describe avoidance-avoidance conflict.

It involves choosing between two undesirable options.

Avoidance-avoidance conflict is stressful because neither option is appealing, leading to procrastination or indecision.

Fill in the blank:

______ stress is characterized by long-term exposure to stressors.

Chronic

Chronic stress results from persistent stressors and can lead to health problems like anxiety, depression, and cardiovascular disease due to prolonged activation of the stress response.

What is emotion-focused coping?

Managing emotions related to stress rather than the stressor itself.

Emotion-focused coping includes strategies like meditation, exercise, or talking with friends to alleviate emotional distress.

Identify one key hormone released by the adrenal glands during the HPA-axis response.

Cortisol

Cortisol, often called the 'stress hormone', helps mobilize energy and suppress non-essential functions in a fight-or-flight situation, aiding in stress management.

What are the primary differences between DSM and ICD in classification systems?

  • DSM: Focuses primarily on mental disorders, used mainly in the United States.

  • ICD: Covers all health conditions, including mental and physical disorders, used internationally.

The DSM (Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders) is published by the American Psychiatric Association, while the ICD (International Classification of Diseases) is published by the World Health Organization. The ICD is more globally recognized and facilitates international data comparison.

True or False:

The DSM-5 uses a multiaxial classification system.

False

The DSM-5 abandoned the multiaxial system used in previous editions (DSM-IV) and adopted a dimensional approach to better capture the complexity of mental disorders.

Define 'reliability' in the context of psychological assessments.

Consistency of a measurement across time and different situations.

Reliability refers to the degree to which an assessment tool produces stable and consistent results. It is crucial for ensuring that a diagnosis or measurement is accurate over repeated trials or assessments.

Fill in the blanks:

The __________ approach classifies disorders based on distinct categories, whereas the __________ approach views disorders along a continuum.

categorical; dimensional

The categorical approach is like a checklist of symptoms to determine if a disorder is present, while the dimensional approach considers the severity and variation of symptoms across a spectrum.

What is 'validity' in psychological testing?

The extent to which a test measures what it claims to measure.

Validity ensures that a test is accurately assessing the intended construct or diagnosis. It is essential for the credibility and usefulness of psychological assessments.

What is a clinical interview in psychological assessment?

A method where a psychologist gathers information through direct conversation with the patient.

Clinical interviews can be structured, semi-structured, or unstructured to gather qualitative and quantitative data.

Fill in the blank:

Self-report assessments rely on the individual's ability to ______.

provide accurate information about themselves.

Self-report assessments are widely used due to their efficiency, but they can be biased by the individual's self-perception and honesty.

True or False:

Observation as an assessment method is always objective.

False

Observation can be subjective, as it often involves the interpretation of behaviors by the observer, which may be influenced by their biases.

What are the key psychometric properties of a psychological test?

  • Reliability

  • Validity

  • Standardization

Reliability refers to consistency, validity to accuracy, and standardization to uniform procedures in testing.

How does validity differ from reliability in psychological testing?


Validity refers to the accuracy of a test in measuring what it claims to measure.

A test can be reliable without being valid, but a valid test must be reliable.

List two differences between projective and objective tests.

  • Projective tests use ambiguous stimuli to elicit responses revealing unconscious desires.

  • Objective tests use structured, specific questions with fixed responses.

Projective tests, like the Rorschach Inkblot Test, are open-ended, whereas objective tests, like the MMPI, have clear answers.

What is standardization in psychological assessment?

The process of administering and scoring a test under consistent conditions.

Standardization ensures that test scores are comparable across different individuals and settings.

What does the term 'developmental psychopathology' refer to?


An approach to understanding the development of psychological disorders that emphasizes the interplay between biological, psychological, and social factors.

Developmental psychopathology is a framework that views disorders within the context of normal development, aiming to identify how various factors interact over time to influence the emergence of disorders.

Fill in the blank:

Gene–environment interaction refers to the phenomenon where the effects of genes are ________ by environmental factors.

modified

Gene-environment interaction suggests that certain environments can influence the expression of genes, leading to different outcomes in individual development and behavior.

True or False:

The diathesis-stress model posits that both a predisposition and environmental stress are necessary for the development of a psychological disorder.

True

The diathesis-stress model is a psychological theory that explains behavior as both a result of biological and genetic factors ('diathesis') and life experiences ('stress').

List two risk factors and two protective factors that influence psychopathology across the lifespan.

Risk Factors:

  • Family history of mental illness

  • Exposure to trauma

Protective Factors:

  • Strong social support

  • Effective coping strategies

Risk factors increase the likelihood of developing disorders, whereas protective factors help shield against them. Both types of factors can vary in impact at different life stages.

How does the concept of 'cumulative risk' relate to developmental psychopathology?


It refers to the idea that the accumulation of multiple risk factors increases the likelihood of adverse developmental outcomes.

Cumulative risk highlights that the presence of numerous risk factors can have a greater impact than a single risk factor, emphasizing the importance of considering the overall context of an individual's life in developmental psychopathology.

Which neurotransmitter is most commonly associated with mood regulation and is often linked to depression when levels are imbalanced?

Serotonin

Serotonin is crucial for mood balance and is a target in many antidepressant treatments, such as SSRIs, which increase serotonin levels in the brain.

True or False:

Dopamine is only involved in pleasure and reward systems in the brain.


False

Dopamine also plays key roles in motor control, motivation, arousal, and executive functions. Imbalances are associated with disorders such as Parkinson's disease and schizophrenia.

Fill in the blank:

The _________ is a brain structure involved in emotional processing and is particularly associated with fear responses.

amygdala

The amygdala is part of the limbic system and plays a critical role in emotional reactions, decision-making, and memory processing.

Name two types of neuroimaging methods used to study brain structure and function.

  • MRI (Magnetic Resonance Imaging)

  • fMRI (Functional Magnetic Resonance Imaging)

MRI provides detailed images of brain structures, while fMRI measures brain activity by detecting changes associated with blood flow.

What hormone, often referred to as the 'stress hormone', is released by the adrenal glands in response to stress?

Cortisol

Cortisol helps regulate metabolism, reduce inflammation, and control blood sugar levels. Chronic stress and prolonged cortisol release can lead to various health issues.

What is the primary action of Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors (SSRIs)?


SSRIs primarily increase serotonin levels in the brain by inhibiting its reuptake.

SSRIs are commonly prescribed for depression and anxiety disorders. By preventing serotonin reuptake, more serotonin is available in the synaptic cleft, enhancing mood and emotional regulation.

True or False:

Atypical antipsychotics only target dopamine receptors.

False

Atypical antipsychotics target both dopamine and serotonin receptors, which helps reduce symptoms of schizophrenia and bipolar disorder with fewer side effects compared to typical antipsychotics.

Name one key difference between psychodynamic and humanistic psychotherapies.


  • Psychodynamic therapy focuses on unconscious processes.

  • Humanistic therapy emphasizes personal growth and self-actualization.

Psychodynamic therapy often explores childhood experiences and unconscious conflicts, whereas humanistic therapy is centered on the individual's capacity for self-awareness and personal development.

Fill in the blank:

__________ are commonly used to treat anxiety disorders by enhancing GABA activity.

Benzodiazepines

Benzodiazepines enhance the effect of the neurotransmitter GABA, which has calming effects on the brain, making them effective for short-term management of anxiety.

What is a major advantage of community care over inpatient care for mental health treatment?


  • Greater integration with daily life

  • Reduced stigma

  • Continuity of care

Community care allows individuals to receive treatment while maintaining their social ties and daily routines, potentially leading to better long-term outcomes and a reduction in the stigma associated with hospital stays.

What is the difference between incidence and prevalence in epidemiological studies?

  • Incidence refers to the number of new cases of a disease that develop in a specific period.

  • Prevalence is the total number of cases, both new and existing, in a population at a given time.

Incidence helps identify risk factors for a disease, while prevalence shows how widespread the disease is. Understanding both is crucial for public health planning and resource allocation.

True or False:

Lifetime prevalence includes both current and past occurrences of a condition in an individual's life.

True

Lifetime prevalence measures how many people have ever had the condition at any point in their lives, providing a comprehensive picture of the burden of the condition over time.

What demographic risk patterns are commonly analyzed in psychological research?

  • Age

  • Sex

  • Socioeconomic Status (SES)

These demographic factors are crucial in understanding who is most at risk for certain psychological conditions, guiding targeted interventions and prevention strategies.

Define comorbidity in the context of psychological disorders.

Comorbidity is the occurrence of two or more disorders or illnesses in the same person, simultaneously or sequentially.

Comorbidity can complicate diagnosis and treatment, as symptoms of one disorder may exacerbate or mask those of another. It also highlights the need for integrated treatment approaches.

Fill in the blanks:

_____-_____ samples are drawn from the general population, whereas ________ samples are drawn from specific treatment settings.

Population-based; clinical

Population-based samples provide insights into the general prevalence and demographics of disorders, while clinical samples help understand disorders' characteristics in patients seeking treatment.

What is the primary goal of primary prevention in psychology?

To prevent the onset of mental health disorders by reducing risk factors and enhancing protective factors.

Primary prevention aims to reduce the incidence of mental health problems before they occur, often through community-wide education and health promotion.

Fill in the blank:

_________ prevention focuses on early detection and intervention to halt the progression of mental health issues.

Secondary

Secondary prevention targets individuals who are at high risk or are showing early signs of mental health disorders, aiming to minimize their impact.

True or False:

Tertiary prevention aims to prevent mental health disorders from occurring.

False

Tertiary prevention focuses on reducing the impact of an ongoing mental health disorder by helping individuals manage symptoms and improve quality of life.

What distinguishes universal prevention programs from selective and indicated programs?

Universal prevention programs target the entire population, regardless of individual risk levels.

Universal programs aim to provide widespread interventions that benefit all individuals, unlike selective and indicated programs which focus on specific at-risk groups or individuals.

List three common barriers to effective mental health prevention.

  • Stigma surrounding mental health

  • Lack of funding and resources

  • Limited access to trained professionals

Barriers can hinder the implementation and effectiveness of prevention strategies, often requiring targeted efforts to overcome.

What are public mental health strategies aimed at achieving?

Improving mental health outcomes for populations through preventive and promotional interventions.

Public mental health strategies include policies and programs designed to enhance mental well-being and reduce the prevalence of mental disorders on a societal level.

What are the three main components of the biopsychosocial model?

  • Biological

  • Psychological

  • Social

The biopsychosocial model considers the complex interaction of biological, psychological, and social factors in understanding health and illness.

True or False:

The Health Belief Model is primarily concerned with predicting health behaviors based on individual beliefs.

True

The Health Belief Model suggests that personal beliefs about health conditions, perceived benefits, and barriers to action influence health-related behaviors.

Fill in the blank:

The Theory of Planned Behavior adds the concept of _______ _______ _______ to the Theory of Reasoned Action.

perceived behavioral control

Perceived behavioral control refers to an individual's perception of their ability to perform a given behavior and is a key predictor of behavioral intention.

Which model emphasizes the role of intention in predicting health-related behaviors?

Theory of Planned Behavior

The Theory of Planned Behavior posits that intention is the primary driver of behavior, influenced by attitudes, subjective norms, and perceived behavioral control.

How does chronic stress impact physical health?

  • Weakens the immune system

  • Increases risk of cardiovascular disease

  • Contributes to mental health disorders

Chronic stress can lead to a range of health problems, as it affects the body's ability to fight off illness and maintain homeostasis.

Name one mind-body intervention used to manage stress.

Meditation

Mind-body interventions, like meditation, aim to promote relaxation and reduce stress by focusing the mind and fostering a state of calm.

What factor is not part of the Health Belief Model?

Social support

The Health Belief Model focuses on individual-level factors such as perceived susceptibility, severity, benefits, and barriers, rather than external factors like social support.

True or False:

The biopsychosocial model can be applied to both physical and mental health conditions.

True

The biopsychosocial model provides a comprehensive framework for understanding both physical and psychological health issues by considering a wide range of influencing factors.

What is a culture-bound syndrome?

A mental disorder or illness that is specific to a particular cultural or ethnic group.

Culture-bound syndromes are influenced by cultural beliefs and practices and may not be recognized as disorders in other cultures.

True or False:

Stigma can affect an individual's willingness to seek help for mental health issues.

True

Stigma, including fear of judgment and discrimination, can discourage individuals from seeking mental health treatment, impacting recovery and well-being.

Which gender is more likely to be diagnosed with depression?

Women

Women are about twice as likely as men to experience depression, potentially due to biological, social, and psychological factors.

Fill in the blank:

_______ _______ refers to differences in the presentation and prevalence of mental disorders between men and women.

Gender differences

Gender differences affect how disorders are expressed and experienced, influencing diagnosis and treatment approaches.

List three considerations for cross-cultural assessment in psychology.

  • Language barriers

  • Cultural norms and values

  • Different expressions of psychological distress

Cross-cultural assessments must account for these factors to avoid misdiagnosis and ensure culturally competent care.

What is one common effect of stigma on mental health?

Increased isolation

Stigma can lead to social withdrawal, making individuals feel isolated and less likely to seek support or treatment.

Name a culture-bound syndrome found in Southeast Asia.

Koro

Koro is characterized by an intense fear of the genitals retracting and disappearing, leading to death, and is primarily found in Southeast Asian cultures.

True or False:

Men are more frequently diagnosed with anxiety disorders than women.

False

Women are more frequently diagnosed with anxiety disorders, which may be due to a combination of genetic, hormonal, and psychosocial factors.