EMT Practice: Systems, Safety and Care Part 4
This flashcard set breaks down critical EMT knowledge into easy-to-review questions and answers. Covers EMS structure, legal responsibilities, medical control, and field protocols.
Tylenol is an example of what?
- official name
- generic name
- trade name
- chemical name
trade name
Key Terms
Tylenol is an example of what?
- official name
- generic name
- trade name
- chemical name
trade name
You are treating a patient who tells you he was prescribed alprazolam (Xanax) for his anxiety. What would anxiety be considered?
- intended effect
- contraindication
- side effect
- indication
indication
What information should you include on your PCR related to a patient's medications?
- Document the medication names and expiration dates.
- The trade name and the generic name of each medication.
- Do not document the medication names; these will be determined at the hospital.
- Document the medication names and dosages.
Document the medication names and dosages
If your patient takes nitroglycerin for a heart condition, which of the following routes of administration might he use?
- inhaled
- injection
- sublingual
- oral
sublingual
Which of the following is an advantage of MDI drug administration over SVN drug administration?
- The patient does not need to be conscious for MDI drug administration.
- MDI medications have no side effects.
- MDI medications do not expire.
- The MDI route does not require an external oxygen source.
The MDI route does not require an external oxygen source.
Activated charcoal comes in which medication form?
- suspension
- gel
- solution
- tablet
suspension
Related Flashcard Decks
Study Tips
- Press F to enter focus mode for distraction-free studying
- Review cards regularly to improve retention
- Try to recall the answer before flipping the card
- Share this deck with friends to study together
| Term | Definition |
|---|---|
Tylenol is an example of what? | trade name |
You are treating a patient who tells you he was prescribed alprazolam (Xanax) for his anxiety. What would anxiety be considered? | indication |
What information should you include on your PCR related to a patient's medications? | Document the medication names and dosages |
If your patient takes nitroglycerin for a heart condition, which of the following routes of administration might he use? | sublingual |
Which of the following is an advantage of MDI drug administration over SVN drug administration? | The MDI route does not require an external oxygen source. |
Activated charcoal comes in which medication form? | suspension |
Why should you not use an oral route to deliver medication in a patient with an altered LOC? | There is a potential for airway compromise |
During your treatment of a patient having a stroke whose breathing is normal and oxygen saturation is 96%, you administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask at 10 to 15 L/min. This is an example of what? | knowledge-based error |
You are treating a 4-year-old who has been vomiting for 2 days. Which route should you use to deliver anti-nausea medication? | per rectum |
When administering a medication you are unfamiliar with, what is the first thing you should do? | Obtain an order from medical control |
A 37-year-old male is found unresponsive in his car. His airway is patent and his respirations are rapid and labored. As you and your partner are assessing and treating the patient, a police officer hands you a medication named Alupent, which he found in the backseat of the patient's car. This medication suggests that the patient has a history of: | asthma |
Which of the following statements regarding the epinephrine auto-injector is correct? | The epinephrine auto-injector delivers a preset amount of the drug. |
Which of the following statements regarding glucose is correct? | Glucose is a simple sugar that is readily absorbed by the bloodstream. |
EMTs respond to a known heroin abuser who is unresponsive. If they give naloxone (Narcan) to this patient, the EMTs should recall that: | naloxone administration could cause seizures in this patient. |
What is the route of administration for the EpiPen auto-injector? | Intramuscular |
The process of binding or sticking to a surface is called: | adsorption. |
You are treating a 45-year-old woman who was stung by a hornet and has a rash. She tells you that she is allergic to hornets and has her own epinephrine auto-injector. She also tells you that she takes medication for hypertension. Her breath sounds do not reveal any wheezing, her breathing is unlabored, and her blood pressure is 154/94 mm Hg. What should you do if you are not able to make contact with medical control? | Begin transport to the hospital and closely monitor her condition while en route. |
The amount of medication that is given is known as the _________. | dose |
In ___________ administration, you are administering medication to yourself or your partner. | peer-assisted |
After taking diphenhydramine (Benadryl) for an allergic reaction, a person begins experiencing drowsiness and a dry mouth. These findings are an example of a(n): | side effect. |
Which of the following medication routes delivers a drug through the skin over an extended period of time, such as a nitroglycerin or nicotine patch? | Transcutaneous |
Which of the following medication routes would be the MOST appropriate to use in an unresponsive patient when intravenous access cannot be obtained? | Intraosseous |
The term "pharmacology" is MOST accurately defined as: | the study of drugs and their actions on the body. |
How is nitroglycerin usually given by the EMT? | Sublingually |
What medication form does oral glucose come in? | Gel |
Which of the following patient populations typically require a modified drug dose? | Pediatric patients |
Advil, Nuprin, and Motrin are trade names for the generic medication: | ibuprofen |
Which of the following is an example of a rules-based medication error? | The EMT administers a drug that is not approved by the medical director. |
Which of the following is an example of a generic drug? | Aspirin |
Shortly after assisting a 65-year-old female with her prescribed nitroglycerin, she begins complaining of dizziness and experiences a drop of 30 mm Hg in her systolic blood pressure. The patient remains conscious and her breathing is adequate. You should: | place her in a supine position. |
Which of the following terms is used to describe a balance of all body systems? | Homeostasis |
You arrive on scene to find a conscious 58-year-old woman sitting up and reporting severe chest pain and shortness of breath. She is anxious and tells you she feels like she is going to die. Physical examination shows that her skin is pale, cool, and clammy and her pulse is rapid, weak, and irregular. Her breathing is labored, with a respiratory rate of 28 breaths/min. Her SpO2 is 90%. Lung sounds show crackles in all fields. Blood pressure is 92/60 mm Hg. What is your differential diagnosis of this patient? | Cardiogenic shock |
You are treating a patient presenting with labored breathing, absent peripheral pulses, and dilated pupils. These are indications of what? | Decompensated shock |
Which of the following is indicated in almost every type of shock? | Administer high-flow oxygen |
Distributive shock is the result of which of the following? | Poor vessel function |
What is perfusion? | The flow of blood through body tissues and vessels |
What is generally the best position to place a patient with cardiogenic shock? | Siiting/semi sitting |
Which of the following is the last measureable factor to change in shock? | Blood pressure |
Which of the following is a potentially severe complication of neurogenic shock? | Hypothermia |
When treating a patient in shock from any cause, what is the first thing you should do? | Open and maintain the air way |
Which of the following MOST accurately describes septic shock? | Bacterial damage to the vessel wall, leaking blood vessels, and vasodilation |
Which of the following is the ONLY action that can prevent eventual death from a tension pneumothorax? | Decompression of the injured side of the chest |
You are transporting a 33-year-old male who was involved in a major motor vehicle crash. You have addressed all immediate and potentially life-threatening conditions and have stabilized his condition with the appropriate treatment. With an estimated time of arrival at the hospital of 20 minutes, you should: | reassess his condition in 5 minutes |
To protect vital organs, the body compensates by directing blood flow away from organs that are more tolerant of low flow, such as: | the skin |
Shock due to severe infection is called ________. | septic shock |
Your assessment of an unresponsive patient reveals that her breathing is inadequate. Your MOST immediate action should be to: | check her airway for obstructions. |
Foods, medications, and insects are common causes of ________. | anaphylactic shock |
A 20-year-old male has a large laceration to his wrist. He is holding a blood-soaked towel over the wound, but it continues to bleed rapidly. You should: | apply a tourniquet proximal to the wrist. |
In an acute injury setting, neurogenic shock is commonly accompanied by: | hypothermia. |
You are dispatched to a residence for a 40-year-old female who fainted. Upon your arrival, the patient is conscious and alert, and states that she is fine. Her husband tells you that she fainted after receiving news that her sister was killed in a car crash. You offer oxygen to the patient, but she refuses to accept it. At this point, your primary concern should be to: | determine if she was injured when she fainted. |
Clinical signs of compensated shock include all of the following, EXCEPT: | absent peripheral pulses. |
You respond to a residence for a patient with a severe leg injury following an accident with a chainsaw. When you arrive, you find the patient, a 44-year-old male, lying supine in the backyard. He has a partial amputation of his right lower leg that is actively bleeding. The patient is conscious and breathing adequately; however, he is restless and his skin is diaphoretic. You should: | apply direct pressure to the wound. |
Neurogenic shock occurs when: | failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation. |
Which of the following statements regarding anaphylactic shock is correct? | Subsequent exposure after sensitization often produces a more severe reaction. |
When should nonlifesaving interventions be performed for your multisystem trauma patient? | En route to the hospital |
A 56-year-old male is found semiconscious by his wife. Your assessment reveals that his respirations are rapid and shallow, his pulse is rapid and irregular, and his blood pressure is low. The patient's wife states that he complained of left arm pain and nausea the day before, but would not allow her to call 9-1-1. The MOST likely cause of this patient's present condition is: | cardiogenic hypoperfusion. |
When assessing a patient with signs and symptoms of shock, it is important to remember that: | blood pressure may be the last measurable factor to change in shock. |
Hypovolemic shock caused by severe burns is the result of a loss of: | plasma. |
A 19-year-old male was stung multiple times by fire ants. He is experiencing obvious signs and symptoms of anaphylactic shock. You administer high-flow oxygen and give him epinephrine via intramuscular injection. Upon reassessment, you determine that his condition has not improved. You should: | repeat the epinephrine injection after consulting with medical control. |
A 25-year-old unrestrained female struck the steering wheel with her chest when her car hit a tree while traveling at a high rate of speed. She has signs and symptoms of shock, which you suspect are the result of intrathoracic bleeding. Which of the following interventions will provide this patient with the greatest chance for survival? | Rapid transport to a trauma center |
Which intervention would have the MOST important impact on the cardiac patient's outcome? | Early CPR and defibrillation |
The AED gives a "no shock" message to a patient who is in cardiac arrest. What should you do? | Resume chest compressions |
What is the maximum amount of time that should be spent checking for spontaneous breathing in an unresponsive child? | 10 seconds |
When performing CPR on an adult, you should compress the chest to what depth and at what a rate of compressions per minute? | 2 to 2.4 inches (5 to 6 cm); 100 to 120 compressions per minute |
What is the proper compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult two-rescuer CPR? | 30:2 |
When you are performing CPR on an adult or child, approximately how often should you reassess the patient for return of respirations and/or circulation? | Every 2 minutes |
What is the preferred method of removing a foreign body in an unresponsive child? | Abdominal thrusts |
You are off duty and you come across an unresponsive child lying on the ground at a playground. She does not have a pulse and no one witnessed the collapse. What should you do? | Do 5 cycles of chest compressions, and then call 9-1-1 |
You respond to a call in which a 6-year-old was hit by a car. She is responsive but struggling to breathe. What position should you place her in? | Any position of comfort |
When performing CPR on an infant, which of the following is correct? | Place two fingers in the middle of the sternum, just below the nipple line |
Several attempts to adequately open a trauma patient's airway with the jaw-thrust maneuver have been unsuccessful. You should: | - carefully perform the head tilt-chin lift maneuver |
You are off duty at a park when you witness an apparently healthy 12-year-old child suddenly collapse. There are no bystanders around and your mobile phone is in your car. After confirming that the child is in cardiac arrest, you should: | call 9-1-1 and then return to begin CPR on the child |
Between each chest compression, you should __________. | allow full chest recoil |
A 60-year-old man is found to be unresponsive, pulseless, and apneic. You should: | begin CPR until an AED is available |
What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR? | 30:2 |
If an object is visible in the unconscious patient's airway, you should __________. | remove it |
A young male is unresponsive after overdosing on an opiod. He is not breathing and his pulse is weak. The EMT should immediately: | ventilate with a BVM |
The proper depth of chest compressions on a 9-month-old infant is: | one-third the diameter of the chest, or about 1 1/2 inches |
You should deliver chest compressions to an unresponsive adult patient in cardiac arrest by: | compressing the sternum between the nipples |
What is the correct ratio of compressions to ventillations when performing two-rescuer child CPR? | 15:2 |
The MOST appropriate treatment for a patient with a mild upper airway onstruction includes: | administering oxygen and transporting immediately |
Which of the following techniques should you ise to dislodge a foreign body airway obstruction in a patient who is an advanced stage of pregnancy or who is very obese? | Chest thrusts |
Your conscious patient has a mild partial airway obstruction. You should: | encourage the patient to cough |
Most prehospital cardiac arrests occur as the result of: | a cardiac dysrhythmia |
CPR will NOT be effective if the patient is: | prone |
CPR retraining is the MOST effective when it: | involves hands-on practice |
CPR should be initiated when: | a valid living will is unavailable |
When assessing the pulse of an unresponsive infant, you should palpate the _____ artery. | brachial |
The impedance threshold devide (ITD) may improve circulation during active compression-decompression CPR by: | limiting the amount of air that enters the lungs during the recoil phase between chest compressions, which results in negative intrathoracic pressure and improved cardiac filling |
If gastric distention begins to make positive-pressure ventilation difficult, you should: | reposition the patient's airway |
An anaphylactic reaction constitutes what type of medical emergency? | Immunologic |
At what point should you make a preliminary transport decision? | Once the preliminary assessment is complete |
You are dispatched to a home where you find a 45-year-old woman in apparent respiratory distress. She is using accessory muscles to help breathe and can only respond with short answers. What is the first step in your assessment process? | Determine scene safety |
What mnemonic is used to determine a patient's chief complaint? | OPQRST |
HIV is caused by what type of organism? | Virus |
Jaundice is a sign of which disease? | Hepatitis |
Why is tuberculosis not more common than it is? | Infected air is easily diluted with uninfected air, so transmission is inefficient |
Which of the following diseases is the most virulent? | Hepatitis B |
What is an index of suspicion? | An awareness that unseen life-threatening injuries or illness may exist |
Which of the following best describes a communicable disease? | A disease that can be spread from one person or species to another |
An anaphylactic reaction constitutes what type of medical emergency? | Immunologic |
At what point should you make a preliminary transport decision? | Once the preliminary assessment is complete |
You are dispatched to a home where you find a 45-year-old woman in apparent respiratory distress. She is using accessory muscles to help breathe and can only respond with short answers. What is the first step in your assessment process? | Determine scene safety |
What mnemonic is used to determine a patient's chief complaint? | OPQRST |
HIV is caused by what type of organism? | Virus |
Jaundice is a sign of which disease? | Hepatitis |
Why is tuberculosis not more common than it is? | Infected air is easily diluted with uninfected air, so transmission is inefficient |
Which of the following diseases is the most virulent? | Hepatitis B |
What is an index of suspicion? | An awareness that unseen life-threatening injuries or illness may exist |
Which of the following best describes a communicable disease? | A disease that can be spread from one person or species to another |