Emergency Medical Responders /EMT Practice: Systems, Safety and Care Part 5

EMT Practice: Systems, Safety and Care Part 5

Emergency Medical Responders100 CardsCreated about 1 month ago

Designed for EMT certification exam prep, this flashcard set includes vital facts on EMS systems, patient privacy, emergency care, and workplace safety.

The secondary assessment of a medical patient:

- is not practical if the patient is critically ill or your transport time is short

- should routinely include a comprehensive examination from head to toe

- is typically limited to a focused exam for patients who are unconscious

- should be performed at the scene, especially if the patient is critically ill

is not practical if the patient is critically ill or your transport time is short

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Key Terms

Term
Definition

The secondary assessment of a medical patient:

- is not practical if the patient is critically ill or your transport time is short

- should routinely include a comprehensive examination from head to toe

- is typically limited to a focused exam for patients who are unconscious

- should be performed at the scene, especially if the patient is critically ill

is not practical if the patient is critically ill or your transport time is short

Which of the following medications would the EMT be LEAST likely to administer to a patient with a medical complaint?

- Oral glucose

- Aspirin

- Albuterol

- Ibuprofen

Ibuprofen

Which of the following assessment findings is MOST indicative of a cardiovascular problem?

- Jugular venous distention

- Unequal breath sounds

- Use of the accessory muscles

- Palpable pain to the epigastrium

Jugular venous distention

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When caring for a patient who takes numerous medications, it is best to:

- let the hospital staff retrieve the patient's medical records, which should show a list of his or her current medications

- take all of the patient's medications with you to the hospital and document them on your patient care report

- send the patient's medications to the hospital with a family member or other person who will safeguard them

- document the medications on your patient care report, but leave them at home so they do not get misplaced

take all of the patient's medications with you to the hospital and document them on your patient care report

Reassessment of a patient with a medical complaint should begin by:

- taking another set of vital signs.

- reassessing the nature of illness.

- reviewing all treatment performed.

- repeating the primary assessment.

repeating the primary assessment.

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The BEST way to prevent infection from whooping cough is to:

- get vaccinated against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis.

- routinely place a surgical mask on all respiratory patients.

- wear a HEPA mask when treating any respiratory patient.

- ask all patients if they have recently traveled abroad.

get vaccinated against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis.

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TermDefinition

The secondary assessment of a medical patient:

- is not practical if the patient is critically ill or your transport time is short

- should routinely include a comprehensive examination from head to toe

- is typically limited to a focused exam for patients who are unconscious

- should be performed at the scene, especially if the patient is critically ill

is not practical if the patient is critically ill or your transport time is short

Which of the following medications would the EMT be LEAST likely to administer to a patient with a medical complaint?

- Oral glucose

- Aspirin

- Albuterol

- Ibuprofen

Ibuprofen

Which of the following assessment findings is MOST indicative of a cardiovascular problem?

- Jugular venous distention

- Unequal breath sounds

- Use of the accessory muscles

- Palpable pain to the epigastrium

Jugular venous distention

When caring for a patient who takes numerous medications, it is best to:

- let the hospital staff retrieve the patient's medical records, which should show a list of his or her current medications

- take all of the patient's medications with you to the hospital and document them on your patient care report

- send the patient's medications to the hospital with a family member or other person who will safeguard them

- document the medications on your patient care report, but leave them at home so they do not get misplaced

take all of the patient's medications with you to the hospital and document them on your patient care report

Reassessment of a patient with a medical complaint should begin by:

- taking another set of vital signs.

- reassessing the nature of illness.

- reviewing all treatment performed.

- repeating the primary assessment.

repeating the primary assessment.

The BEST way to prevent infection from whooping cough is to:

- get vaccinated against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis.

- routinely place a surgical mask on all respiratory patients.

- wear a HEPA mask when treating any respiratory patient.

- ask all patients if they have recently traveled abroad.

get vaccinated against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis.

In 2009, the H1N1 virus accounted for over 200,000 deaths worldwide in the form of the swine flu. In 1919, a similar outbreak of the H1N1 occurred in the form of the Spanish flu. Starting in Kansas City, the virus spread rapidly worldwide, claiming up to 50 million lives. These are both examples of:

- epidemics.

- parasitic infection.

- pandemics.

- uncontrolled outbreaks.

pandemics

When performing a secondary assessment on a conscious patient with nontraumatic abdominal pain and stable vital signs, you should:

- prepare the patient for transport first.

- only palpate tender areas of the abdomen.

- examine the patient from head to toe.

- focus on his or her chief complaint.

focus on his or her chief complaint.

After sizing up the scene of a patient with a possible infectious disease, your next priority should be to:

- take standard precautions.

- contact medical control.

- notify law enforcement.

- quickly access the patient.

take standard precautions.

In addition to looking for severe bleeding, assessment of circulation in the conscious patient should involve:

- applying a pulse oximeter probe to the finger to determine if peripheral perfusion is adequate.

- taking a blood pressure and determining if the patient is alert and oriented or confused.

- checking the radial pulse and noting the color, temperature, and condition of the skin.

- palpating the carotid pulse to determine the approximate rate and checking capillary refill time.

checking the radial pulse and noting the color, temperature, and condition of the skin.

In contrast to viral hepatitis, toxin-induced hepatitis:

- can be prevented with a vaccination.

- is not a communicable disease.

- typically does not cause yellow skin.

- is a far more transmittable disease.

is not a communicable disease.

You and your EMT partner arrive at the residence of a 50-year-old man who complains of weakness. Your primary assessment reveals that he is critically ill and will require aggressive treatment. The closest hospital is 25 miles away. You should:

- administer oxygen via nonrebreathing mask and obtain as much of his medical history as possible.

- manage all threats to airway, breathing, and circulation and consider requesting an ALS unit.

- load him into the ambulance, begin transport, and perform all treatment en route to the hospital.

- perform a detailed secondary assessment, assess his vital signs, and then transport rapidly.

manage all threats to airway, breathing, and circulation and consider requesting an ALS unit.

When forming your general impression of a patient with a medical complaint, it is important to remember that:

- the majority of medical patients you encounter are also injured.

- most serious medical conditions do not present with obvious symptoms.

- the conditions of many medical patients may not appear serious at first.

- it is during the general impression that assessment of the ABCs occurs.

the conditions of many medical patients may not appear serious at first.

Which of the following conditions is NOT categorized as a psychiatric condition?

- Alzheimer disease

- Schizophrenia

- Substance abuse

- Depression

Substance abuse

Most patients with an infectious disease will have _________.

- abdominal pain

- a low blood glucose level

- a fever

- seizures

a fever

Ten days after treating a 34-year-old patient with tuberculosis, you are given a tuberculin skin test, which yields a positive result. This MOST likely indicates that:

- the disease is dormant in your body, but will probably never cause symptoms.

- you were exposed to another infected person prior to treating the 34-year-old patient.

- you are actively infected with tuberculosis and should be treated immediately.

- you contracted the disease by casual contact instead of exposure to secretions.

you were exposed to another infected person prior to treating the 34-year-old patient.

Assessment of a patient's blood pressure with an automatic BP cuff reveals that it is 204/120 mm Hg. The patient is conscious and alert and denies any symptoms. The EMT should:

- conclude that she has hypertension.

- obtain a manual blood pressure.

- reassess her blood pressure in 5 minutes.

- prepare for immediate transport.

obtain a manual blood pressure.

Your primary assessment of an elderly woman reveals that she is conscious and alert, but is experiencing difficulty breathing. She has a history of emphysema, hypertension, and congestive heart failure. As you assess the patient's circulatory status, you should direct your partner to:

- retrieve the stretcher and prepare for transport.

- perform a head-to-toe secondary assessment.

- assess her oxygen saturation and blood pressure.

- administer oxygen with the appropriate device.

administer oxygen with the appropriate device.

It is especially important to assess pulse, sensation, and movement in all extremities as well as pupillary reactions in patients with a suspected ___________ problem.

- respiratory

- cardiac

- endocrine

- neurologic

neurologic

An infectious disease is MOST accurately defined as:

- the invasion of the human body by a bacterium that cannot be destroyed by antibiotics or other drugs.

- a disease that can be spread from one person or species to another through a number of mechanisms.

- any disease that enters the body via the bloodstream and renders the immune system nonfunctional.

- a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small, harmful organisms within the body.

a medical condition caused by the growth and spread of small, harmful organisms within the body.

Which of the following medications can be used for the treatment of an acute asthma attack?

- Cromolyn

- Albuterol

- Fluticasone

- Salmeterol

Albuterol

What is the most appropriate method for oxygen delivery to an adult patient experiencing breathing difficulty?

- Venturi mask at 8 L/min

- Nasal cannula at 2 to 6 L/min

- BVM at 15 L/min

- Nonrebreathing mask at 15 L/min

Nonrebreathing mask at 15 L/min

When assisting an asthmatic patient with a small-volume nebulizer attached to oxygen, what is the appropriate flow rate for the oxygen?

- 2 L/min

- 10 L/min

- 4 L/min

- 6 L/min

6 L/min

In addition to asthma, which of the following conditions is associated with wheezing?

- Bronchitis

- Pulmonary embolism

- Epiglottitis

- Croup

Bronchitis

What is atelectasis?

- The buildup of excess acid in the blood or body tissues that results from a primary illness

- The buildup of excess base (lack of acids) in the body fluids

- Collapse of the alveolar air spaces of the lungs

- An extreme, life-threatening, systemic allergic reaction that may include shock and respiratory failure

Collapse of the alveolar air spaces of the lungs

Which type of breath sound are you more likely to hear in a person with congestive heart failure?

- Crackles

- Rhonchi

- Decreased/absent

- Stridor

Crackles

You arrive at a residence where you find a woman in her early 60s. She is anxious, tachycardic, and her fingertips and lips are blue. As you assess her, she coughs up frothy sputum, and you hear crackles and some wheezing as you check for breath sounds. What condition do these findings indicate?

- Emphysema

- Bronchitis

- Congestive heart failure

- Spontaneous pneumothorax

Congestive heart failure

Congestive heart failure

Sputum

CPAP is generally used for which condition?

- Pleural effusion

- Hyperventilation

- Spontaneous pneumothorax

- Acute pulmonary edema

Acute pulmonary edema

Which of the following statements is true regarding asthma?

- Asthma involves excessive mucus production.

- Asthma involves accumulation of air in the pleural space.

- Asthma involves a collection of fluid in the alveoli.

- Asthma involves a collection of fluid in the pleural space.

Asthma involves excessive mucus production.

Your patient has a chronic respiratory condition. His stimulus to breathe is triggered by low oxygen levels in the blood. This is known as the ___________.

- hypoxic drive

- CO2 drive

- COPD drive

- alternate drive

hypoxic drive

You are assisting an asthma patient with his prescribed metered-dose inhaler. After the patient takes a deep breath and depresses the inhaler, you should:

- advise him to exhale forcefully to ensure medication absorption.

- allow him to breathe room air and assess his oxygen saturation.

- instruct him to hold his breath for as long as he comfortably can.

- immediately reapply the oxygen mask and reassess his condition.

instruct him to hold his breath for as long as he comfortably can.

Crackles (rales) are caused by _________.

- narrowing of the upper airways

- severe bronchoconstriction

- air passing through fluid

- mucus in the larger airways

air passing through fluid

When auscultating the lungs of a patient with respiratory distress, you hear adventitious sounds. This means that the patient has:

- abnormal breath sounds.

- an absence of breath sounds.

- normal breath sounds.

- diminished breath sounds.

abnormal breath sounds.

Treatment with continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) would MOST likely be contraindicated in which of the following situations?

- Conscious and alert patient with an oxygen saturation of 85%

- Difficulty breathing, two-word dyspnea, and tachycardia

- Pulmonary edema, history of hypertension, and anxiety

- Shortness of breath and a blood pressure of 76/56 mm Hg

Shortness of breath and a blood pressure of 76/56 mm Hg

His parents tell you that their son has had a chest infection for the past two days and when they took him to their family doctor, they were told it was likely due to the respiratory syncytial virus (RSV). They have kept him well hydrated, but the infection seems to have gotten worse. On auscultation, you hear decreased air entry bilaterally with fine expiratory wheezes and the occasional coarse wet crackle. Based on this information, your patient is most likely suffering from:

- pertussis.

- epiglottitis.

- croup.

- bronchiolitis.

bronchiolitis.

A 30-year-old male presents with acute shortness of breath, widespread hives, and facial swelling. He denies any past medical history and takes no medications. During your assessment, you hear wheezing over all the lung fields. His blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg and his heart rate is 110 beats/min. In addition to giving him high-flow oxygen, the MOST important treatment for this patient is:

- epinephrine.

- a beta-antagonist.

- albuterol.

- an antihistamine.

epinephrine.

Which of the following must be assessed in every respiratory patient?

- Blood glucose levels

- Lung sounds

- Distal pulse, motor, sensation

- Orthostatic vital signs

Lung sounds

Asthma is caused by a response of the:

- cardiovascular system.

- immune system.

- respiratory system.

- endocrine system.

immune system.

A pleural effusion is MOST accurately defined as:

- a bacterial infection of the lung tissue.

- diffuse collapsing of the alveoli.

- a unilaterally collapsed lung.

- fluid accumulation outside the lung.

fluid accumulation outside the lung.

Which of the following conditions would be LEAST likely to result in hypoxia?

- Narcotic overdose

- Pleural effusion

- Severe anxiety

- Pulmonary edema

Severe anxiety

Which of the following is MOST characteristic of adequate breathing?

- 30 breaths/min with supraclavicular retractions and clammy skin

- 24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin

- 22 breaths/min with an irregular pattern of breathing and cyanosis

- 20 breaths/min with shallow movement of the chest wall and pallor

24 breaths/min with bilaterally equal breath sounds and pink skin

"PASTE" is an alternate assessment tool for ___________.

- respiratory patients

- stroke patients

- cardiac patients

- seizure patients

respiratory patients

While auscultating an elderly woman's breath sounds, you hear low-pitched "rattling" sounds at the bases of both of her lungs. This finding is MOST consistent with which of the following conditions?

- Aspiration pneumonia
- Early pulmonary edema
- Acute asthma attack
- Widespread atelectasis

Aspiration pneumonia

In what area of the lungs does respiration occur?

- Alveoli

- Capillaries

- Trachea

- Bronchi

Alveoli

A 59-year-old male with a history of emphysema complains of an acute worsening of his dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain following a forceful cough. Your assessment reveals that he has a barrel-shaped chest, unilaterally diminished breath sounds, and tachycardia. What is the MOST likely cause of this patient's condition?

- Acute pulmonary embolism

- Rupture of the diaphragm

- Exacerbation of his COPD

- Spontaneous pneumothorax

Spontaneous pneumothorax

You are attending to a 54-year-old female patient in a homeless shelter. The patient tells you that she had the flu a couple of weeks ago, and she has not gotten over it. She has been tired and keeps waking up at night, sweating. She has been coughing up green sputum occasionally and has been experiencing episodes of chest pain that get worse when she breathes. Based on this information, your patient is most likely suffering from:

- influenza Type A.

- chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD).

- pneumonia.

- tuberculosis.

tuberculosis.

You are attending to a 3-year-old male patient who is presenting with severe shortness of breath. His parents report that he has had a cough and cold with a low grade fever for the past two days. They became worried today, as his level of distress has increased dramatically. On assessment, the patient is sitting upright and making high-pitched noises with each breath. Based on this information, the patient is most likely suffering from:

- inflammation of the bronchioles.

- bacterial infection of the epiglottis.

- inflammation of the lower respiratory tract and bronchospasm.

- viral infection of the upper respiratory tract.

viral infection of the upper respiratory tract.

Which of the following is a genetic disorder that predisposes the patient to repeated lung infections?

- Cystic fibrosis

- Celiac sprue

- Multiple sclerosis

- Severe acute respiratory syndrome

Cystic fibrosis

In order for efficient pulmonary gas exchange to occur:

- the percentage of inhaled carbon dioxide must exceed the percentage of inhaled oxygen.

- the pulmonary capillaries must be completely constricted and the alveoli must be collapsed.

- there must be low quantities of pulmonary surfactant to allow for full alveolar expansion.

- oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane.

oxygen and carbon dioxide must be able to freely diffuse across the alveolar-capillary membrane.

You are dispatched to a 60-year-old man reporting chest pain and shortness of breath. The patient has angina and is taking nitroglycerin, furosemide, and atorvastatin. You hear crackles when listening to his breath sounds. The patient's difficulty breathing and crackles are due to blood backing up in which part of the body?

- The vessels

- The heart

- The arteries

- The lungs

The lungs

What is cardiac output?

- The amount of venous flow return to the right atrium

- The number of times the heart contracts in 1 minute

- The volume of blood pumped out by the left ventricle in one contraction

- The amount of blood pumped out of the left ventricle in 1 minute

The amount of blood pumped out of the left ventricle in 1 minute

Most often, low blood flow to heart tissue is caused by what?

- Acute myocardial infarction

- Atherosclerosis

- Thromboembolism

- Ventricular fibrillation

Atherosclerosis

What is the most effective way to assist a person with CHF to breathe effectively and prevent an invasive airway management technique?

- Nasal cannula

- BVM with 100% oxygen

- Nonrebreathing mask

- CPAP

CPAP

You are treating a 50-year-old woman who has just finished a 10k run. She is complaining of crushing pain in the chest radiating down her left arm and nausea, which came on suddenly. She is sweating profusely. What condition should you suspect?

- Cardiogenic shock

- Acute myocardial infarction

- Angina pectoris

- Congestive heart failure

Angina pectoris

Which dysrhythmia is the most common cause of sudden death in a cardiovascular emergency?

- Bradycardia

- Ventricular fibrillation

- Ventricular tachycardia

- Tachycardia

Ventricular fibrillation

You are treating a 63-year-old patient whose vital signs are as follows: pulse, 140 beats/min and irregular; respiratory rate, 28 breaths/min; and blood pressure, 90/50 mm Hg. He is complaining of chest pain. Given this information, why would nitroglycerin be contraindicated?

- His blood pressure is too low.

- He may have taken Viagra in the last 24 hours.

- He may have already exceeded the dosage limit

- He may be allergic to it

His blood pressure is too low.

You are transporting a patient with angina and he loses consciousness on the way to the hospital. When you check, you cannot feel a pulse. What should you do?

- Tell your partner to drive faster as you begin CPR on the patient.

- Have your partner pull over the ambulance and come back to help you with CPR and the AED.

- Immediately apply the AED and wait for it to analyze the rhythm before taking any other action.

- Begin CPR and after 2 minutes stop to apply the AED while your partner continues driving to the hospital.

Have your partner pull over the ambulance and come back to help you with CPR and the AED.

Which of the following represents the MOST appropriate method of assisting a patient with his or her prescribed nitroglycerin tablet?

- Wait 15 minutes and reassess the patient's blood pressure prior to administering another dose.

- Place the medication under the tongue and have the patient swallow it.

- Administer the medication sublingually and allow it to dissolve or absorb.

- Encourage the patient to chew the tablet to increase its effectiveness.

Administer the medication sublingually and allow it to dissolve or absorb.

Acute coronary syndrome is a group of symptoms caused by what?

- Thromboembolism

- Occlusion

- Ischemia

- Bradycardia

Ischemia

Most AEDs are set up to adjust the voltage based on the impedance, which is the:

- direction that the electrical flow takes in the body.

- distance between the two AED pads on the chest.

- resistance of the body to the flow of electricity.

- actual amount of energy that the AED will deliver.

resistance of the body to the flow of electricity.

Nitroglycerin is contraindicated in patients:

- with a systolic blood pressure less than 120 mm Hg.

- who have taken up to two doses.

- with a history of an ischemic stroke.

- who have experienced a head injury.

who have experienced a head injury.

Risk factors for AMI that cannot be controlled include:

- excess stress.

- lack of exercise.

- family history.

- hyperglycemia.

family history.

A patient with atherosclerotic heart disease experiences chest pain during exertion because:

- the ragged edge of a tear in the coronary artery lumen causes local blood clotting and arterial narrowing.

- the lumen of the coronary artery is narrowed and cannot accommodate increased blood flow.

- tissues of the myocardium undergo necrosis secondary to a prolonged absence of oxygen.

- the coronary arteries suddenly spasm and cause a marked reduction in myocardial blood flow.

the lumen of the coronary artery is narrowed and cannot accommodate increased blood flow.

A 49-year-old male presents with an acute onset of crushing chest pain and diaphoresis. You should:

- administer up to three doses of nitroglycerin.

- administer up to 324 mg of baby aspirin.

- assess the adequacy of his respirations.

- obtain vital signs and a SAMPLE history.

assess the adequacy of his respirations.

When preparing to obtain a 12-lead ECG, the "LL" and "RL" electrodes should be placed:

- on either side of the chest.

- anywhere on the arms.

- on the lower abdomen.

- on the thighs or ankles.

on the thighs or ankles.

Angina pectoris occurs when:

- one or more coronary arteries suddenly spasm.

- a coronary artery is totally occluded by plaque.

- myocardial oxygen supply exceeds the demand.

- myocardial oxygen demand exceeds supply.

myocardial oxygen demand exceeds supply.

Which of the following signs is commonly observed in patients with right-sided heart failure?

- Pulmonary edema

- Labored breathing

- Dependent edema

- Flat jugular veins

Dependent edema

A 66-year-old female with a history of hypertension and diabetes presents with substernal chest pressure of 2 hours' duration. Her blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, her pulse is 100 beats/min and irregular, her respirations are 22 breaths/min, and her oxygen saturation is 92%. The patient does not have prescribed nitroglycerin, but her husband does. You should:

- give her one nitroglycerin and reassess her systolic blood pressure.

- obtain a SAMPLE history and contact medical control for advice.

- administer oxygen, give her 324 mg of aspirin, and assess her further.

- give her high-flow oxygen, attach the AED, and transport at once.

administer oxygen, give her 324 mg of aspirin, and assess her further.

A dissecting aortic aneurysm occurs when:

- the inner layers of the aorta become separated.

- the aorta ruptures, resulting in profound bleeding.

- all layers of the aorta suddenly contract.

- a weakened area develops in the aortic wall.

the inner layers of the aorta become separated.

After the AED has delivered a shock, the EMT should:

- re-analyze the cardiac rhythm.

- immediately resume CPR.

- assess for a carotid pulse.

- transport the patient at once.

immediately resume CPR.

Prior to attaching the AED to a cardiac arrest patient, the EMT should:

- dry the chest if it is wet.

- assess for a pulse for 20 seconds.

- contact medical control.

- perform CPR for 30 seconds.

dry the chest if it is wet.

The EMT should use an AED on a child between 1 month and 8 years of age if:

- his or her condition is rapidly progressing to cardiac arrest.

- pediatric pads and an energy-reducing device are available.

- he or she is not breathing and has a weakly palpable pulse.

- special pads are used and the child has profound tachycardia

pediatric pads and an energy-reducing device are available.

Signs and symptoms of a hypertensive emergency would MOST likely be delayed in patients who:

- have had a stroke in the past.

- regularly take illegal drugs.

- are older than 40 years of age.

- have chronic hypertension.

have chronic hypertension.

A patient in cardiac arrest is wearing an external defibrillator vest, which is interfering with effective chest compressions. The EMT should:

- remove the battery from the monitor and leave the vest in place.

- remove the battery from the monitor and then remove the vest.

- leave the battery attached to the monitor and remove the vest.

- perform ventilations only and allow the vest device to defibrillate.

remove the battery from the monitor and then remove the vest.

The electrical impulse generated by the heart originates in the:

- sinoatrial node.

- atrioventricular node.

- bundle of His.

- coronary sinus.

sinoatrial node.

Deoxygenated blood from the body returns to the:

- right ventricle.

- left ventricle.

- left atrium.

- right atrium.

right atrium.

Which of the following is NOT a common sign or symptom associated with malfunction of an implanted cardiac pacemaker?

- Generalized weakness

- Heart rate less than 60 beats/min

- A rapid heart rate

- Syncope or dizziness

A rapid heart rate

You and your partner arrive at the scene of a middle-aged man who collapsed about 5 minutes ago. He is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. Bystanders are present, but have not provided any care. You should:

- have your partner perform CPR while you question the bystanders.

- begin high-quality CPR and apply the AED as soon as possible.

- perform two-rescuer CPR for 5 minutes and request ALS backup.

- immediately apply the AED pads and analyze his cardiac rhythm.

begin high-quality CPR and apply the AED as soon as possible.

A patient tells you that he has a left ventricular assist device (LVAD). Which of the following conditions should you suspect that he has experienced?

- Uncontrolled hypertension

- Thoracic aortic aneurysm

- Acute myocardial infarction

- Obstructive lung disease

Acute myocardial infarction

You are treating a patient who is exhibiting slurred speech, facial droop, and an inability to move his left arm. Which neurologic examination emphasizes these possible stroke signs?

- 3-Item Stroke Severity Scale

- Glasgow Coma Scale

- Chicago Prehospital Stroke Scale

- Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale

Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale

What happens when blood flow to a particular part of the brain is cut off by a blockage, resulting in tissue damage?

- Status epilepticus

- Ischemic stroke

- Seizure

- Hemorrhagic stroke

Ischemic stroke

What is the name of the condition when the patient forgets about the injured side after a stroke?

- Neglect

- Hemiparesis

- Ataxia

- Aphasia

Neglect

What criteria must be met for a patient to have status epilepticus?

- A seizure lasting more than 30 minutes

- A seizure that was preceded by an aura

- The presence of incontinence during the seizure

- Multiple seizures with normal consciousness between each event

A seizure lasting more than 30 minutes

Which of the following is a metabolic cause for a seizure?

- Brain tumor

- High fever

- Head trauma

- Hypoglycemia

Hypoglycemia

Which of the following mimics a stroke and also causes a seizure?

- Meningitis

- Migraine headache

- Postictal state

- Hypoglycemia

Hypoglycemia

What is the difference between a stroke and a transient ischemic attack?

- A TIA affects a limited portion of the brain

- A TIA has longer-lasting effects than a stroke

- A TIA involves surges of electrical activity in the brain

- A TIA resolves completely within 24 hours of onset

A TIA resolves completely within 24 hours of onset

You are dispatched to a home where you find a 70-year-old man. He is exhibiting facial drooping and, when you ask him to tell you what day it us, he says "January." Which part of the brain is most likely to have been affected?

-Right hemisphere

- Left hemisphere

- Cerebellum

- Brain stem

Left hemisphere

You are examining a patient whose signs include lip smacking, jerking of the left arm, and agitation. Based on these signs, what type if seizure is this patient experiencing?

- Status epilepticus

- Complex partial

- Simple partial

- Generalized

Complex partial

You are performing a Glascow Coma Scale on a patient who opens her eyes in response to pain, is confused in her responses to questions, and has abnormal flexion. What is this patient's GCS score and corresponding state of dysfunction?

- 6- severe dysfunction

- 9- moderate dysfunction

- 12-mild dysfunction

- 3- severe dysfunction

9- moderate dysfunction

you arrive at the residence of a 33-year-old woman who is experiencing a generalized (tonic-clonic) seizure. She has a small amount of vomitus draining from the side of her mouth. After protecting her from further injury, you should:

- restrain her extremities to prevent her from injuring herself, suction her airway to remove the vomitus, and assist her ventulations with a bag-mask device

- maintain her airway with manual head positioning, suction her airway to remove the vomitus, insert a nasopharyngeal airway, and administer high-flow oxygen

- wait for the seizure to stop, manually open her airway, insert an oropharyngeal airway, and assess her oxygen saturation with a pulse oximeter

- place a bite block in between her teeth, apply high-flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, and consider inserting a nasopharyngeal airway

maintain her airway with manual head positioning, suction her airway to remove the vomitus, insert a nasopharyngeal airway, and administer high-flow oxygen

A transient ischemic attack (TIA) occurs when:

- a small clot in a cerebral artery causes temporary symtoms

- a small cerebral artery ruptures and causes minimal damage

- medications are given to dissolve a cerebral blood clot

- signs and symptoms resolve spontaneously within 48 hours

a small clot in a cerebral artery causes temporary symtoms


Which of the following is a metabolic cause of a seizure?

- Massive stroke

- Brain tumor

- Poisoning

- Head trauma

Poisoning

You arrive at a local grocery store approximately 5 minutes after a 21-year-old female stopped seizing. She is confused and disoriented; she keeps asking you what happened and tells you that she is thirsty. Her brother, who witnessed the seizure, tells you that she takes phenytoin (Dilantin) for her seizures, but has not taken it in a few days. He also tells you that she has diabetes. In addition to applying high-flow oxygen, you should:

- administer one tube of oral glucose and prepare for immediate transport.

- place her in the recovery position and transport her with lights and siren.

- monitor her airway and breathing status and assess her blood glucose level.

- give her small cups of water to drink and observe for further seizure activity.

monitor her airway and breathing status and assess her blood glucose level

Individuals with chronic alcoholism are predisposed to intracranial bleeding and hypoglycemia secondaryto abnormalities in the:

- liver

- pancreas

- kidneys

- brain

liver

Febrile seizures:

- are usually benign but should be evaluated

- occur when a child's fever rises slowly

- often result in permanent brain damage

- are also referred to as absence seizures

are usually benign but should be evaluated

You are caring for a 70-year-old female with signs and symptoms of an acute stroke. She is conscious, has secretions in her mouth, is breathing at a normal rate with adequate depth, and has an oxygen saturation of 96%. You should:

- suction her oropharynx and transport immediately

- assist her ventilations with a bag-valve mask

- administer one tube of oral glucose and transport

- insert an oral airway, apply oxygen, and transport

suction her oropharynx and transport immediately

A patient whose speech is slurred and difficult to understand is experiencing:

- dysphagia

- aphasia

- dysarthria

- paraplegia

dysarthria

The spinal cord exits the cranium through the:

- cauda equina

- foramen magnum

- foramen lamina

- vertebral foramen

foramen magnum

Which of the following symptoms would lead the EMT to believe that a patient's headache is caused by sinus congestion?

- There is associated neck stiffness

- The pain is worse when bending over

- There is numbness in the extremities

- The headache began suddenly

The pain is worse when bending over