2024-2025 EMT FISDAP Readiness Practice Exam with Answers (161 Solved Questions)

Name: 2024-2025 EMT FISDAP Readiness Practice Exam with Answers (161 Solved Questions)
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EMT FISDAP Readiness
Exam 2 100% VERIFIED
ANSWERS 2024/2025
The collective set of regulations and ethical considerations governing the EMT is
called:
a. duty to act
b. scope of practice
c. advanced directives
d. good samaritan laws
b. scope of practice
Legislation that governs the skills and medical interventions that may be
performed by the EMT is:
a. standardized (uniform) throughout the country
b. different from state to state
c. standardized for regions within a state
d. governed by the US Department of Transportation
b. different from state to state
When the EMT makes the physical/emotional needs of the patient a priority, this
is considered a(n)_______ of the EMT.
a. advanced directive
b. protocol

c. ethical responsibility
d. legal responsibility
c. ethical responsibility
Which one of the following is NOT a type of consent required for any treatment or
action by an EMT?
a. child and mentally incompetent adult
b. implied
c. applied
d. expressed
c. applied
When you informed the adult patient of the procedures were about to perform and
its associated risks, you are asking for his or her:
a. expressed consent
b. negligence
c. implied
d. applied
a. expressed consent
You are treating a patient that was found unconscious at the bottom of the
stairwell. Consent that is based on the assumption that an unconscious patient
would approve the EMT's life-saving interventions is called:
a. expressed
b. negligence
c. implied
d. applied
c. implied

Your record of a patient's refusal of medical care (aid) or transport should include
all of the following EXCEPT:
a. informing the patient of the risks and consequences of refusal
b. documenting the steps you took
c. signing of the form by the medical director
d. obtaining a release form with the patient's witnessed signature
c. signing of the form by the medical director
Forcing a competent adult patient to go to the hospital agains his or her will may
result in _______ charges against the EMT.
a. abandonment
b. assault and battery
c. implied consent
d. negligence
b. assault and battery
Which of the following is an action you should not take if a patient refuses care?
a. leave phone stickers with emergency numbers
b. recommend that a relative call the family physician to report the incident
c. tell the patient to call his or her family physician if the problem reoccurs
d. call a relative or neighbor who can stay with the patient
b. recommend that a relative call the family physician to report the incident
Another name for a DNR order is:
a. deviated nervous response
b. duty not to react

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c. refusal of treatment
d. advanced directive
d. advanced directive
There are varying degrees of DNR orders, expressed through a variety of detailed
instructions that may be part of the order such as:
a. allowing CPR only if cardiac or respiratory arrest was observed
b. allowing comfort-care measures such as intravenous feeding
c. disallowing the use of long-term life-support measures
d. specify that only five minutes of artificial respiration will be attempted
a. allowing CPR only if cardiac or respiratory arrest was observed
In a hospital, long-term life support and comfort care measures would consist of
intravenous feeding and:
a. routine inoculations
b. the use of a respirator
c. infection control by the healthcare providers
d. hourly patient documentation
b. the use of a respirator
If an EMT with a duty to act fails to provide the standard of care, and if this failure
causes harm or injury to the patient, the EMT may be accused of:
a. res ipsa loquitur
b. negligence
c. abandonment
d. assault
b. negligence

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Leaving a patient on the hallway stretcher in a busy ED and leaving without
giving report with a healthcare professional is an example of:
a. liability infraction
b. battery
c. abandonment
d. breach of duty
c. abandonment
The EMT should not discuss information about the patient except to relate
pertinent information to the physician at the ED. Information considered
confidential includes:
a. patient history gained through the interview
b. assessment findings
c. treatment rendered
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
The EMT can release confidential patient information in all of the following
circumstances EXCEPT to:
a. inform other health care professionals who need to know information to
continue care
b. report incidents required by state law, such as rape or abuse
c. comply with the legal subpoena
d. protect the other victims of a motor vehicle collision
d. protect the other victims of a motor vehicle collision
A medical identification device that indicates serious patient medical conditions,
allergies, and/or medications they are currently prescribed comes in the form of
each of the following except:

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a. bracelets
b. necklaces
c. cards
d. patches
d. patches
You responded to a high-speed collision involving a motorcycle and automobile.
The 22-year-old male cyclist has a severe head injury and is not likely to live
through the evening. When treating this critical patient, who happens to have an
organ donor card, the EMT should:
a. transport without delay and document a DNR
b. treat the patient with the same care as any other patient and inform the ED
physician
c. withhold oxygen therapy from the patient to keep the organ hypoxic
d. all of the above
b. treat the patient with the same care as any other patient and inform the ED physician
You are at the scene of a home invasion where the homeowner was shot to death
by the perpetrators. At this crime scene, you should:
a. avoid disturbing any evidence at the scene unless emergency care requires it
b. immediately remove the patient from the scene
c. move all obstacles from around the patient to make more room to work
d. search the house for clues to find the cause of the crime
a. avoid disturbing any evidence at the scene unless emergency care requires it
Commonly required reporting situations include all the following EXCEPT:
a. child and elder abuse
b. crimes in public places

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c. sexual assault
d. domestic abuse
b. crimes in public places
The extent of limits of the EMT's job is called the:
a. ethical dilemma
b. national curriculum
c. scope of practice
d. regional protocol
c. scope of practice
The federal law designed to protect the patient's private medical information is
the:
a. NHTSA
b. ANSI
c. HIPPA
d. OSHA
c. HIPPA
You were called to the scene of an incident where a 21-year-old male was
knocked unconscious in a bar fight. Upon arrival, the patient is awake and has a
broken nose but no life threats. He admits to drinking six beers in the last hour.
He wants to refuse medical attention. Why should you discourage a refusal?
a. he is not legally old enough to consent
b. he may not be mentally competent at this time
c. he is unable to actually sign the release
d. the patient may die from a broken nose

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b. he may not be mentally competent at this time
You are on the scene of a call where a patient barricaded himself and his wife in
their home and is threatening to do harm. The police have been at the scene for
hours and, after the wife escaped, they rushed in. It is now your responsibility to
transport this now-restrained patient to the local ED. What should be your highest
priority?
a. monitoring the patient's mental status and vital signs
b. making sure your documentation shows you did not apply the handcuffs
c. restraining the patient so he is not able to move
d. explaining to the patient that he no longer has any rights to refuse care
a. monitoring the patient's mental status and vital signs
The scene size up is the first part of the patient assessment process. it begins as
you approach the scene, firstly surveying it to determine:
a. if there are any threats to your safety
b. the number of injured
c. personal safety of all those involved in the call
d. the mechanism of injury
a. if there are any threats to your safety
Which of the following is the most accurate statement about scene size up?
a. it takes place as you are approaching the scene
b. it is replaced by patient care once you arrive at the scene
c. it occurs during the first part of the assessment process
d. it continues throughout the call
d. it continues throughout the call

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If you arrive at a collision scene where there are police, fire vehicles, and other
ambulances already present, you should:
a. immediately begin patient care
b. conduct your own scene size up
c. ensure that no bystanders are injured
d. all of the above
b. conduct your own scene size up
Which of the following is not an appropriate action when you near the scene of a
traffic collision?
a. look and listen for other EMS units as you near intersections
b. look for signs of collision-related power outages
c. observe traffic flow to anticipate blockage of the scene
d. attempt to park your vehicle downhill from the scene
d. attempt to park your vehicle downhill from the scene
When you are in sight of the collision scene, you should watch for the signals of
police officers and other emergency service personnel because:
a. they may have information about hazards or the location of injured persons b.
the first ones on the scene are considered to be in charge
c. federal law requires you to follow the command of other responders
d. they are considered the medical care experts on the scene
a. they may have information about hazards or the location of injured persons
When there are no apparent hazards, consider the danger zone to extend at least
______ feet in all directions from the wreckage.
a. 25

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b. 50
c. 100 d
D. 200
b. 50
When a collision vehicle is on fire, consider the danger zone to extend at
least______ feet in all directions.
a. 25
b. 50
c. 100
d. 200
c. 100
It is essential that the EMT do a good scene size up. Your scene size up should
identify:
a. the potential for a violent situation
b. the name and amount of toxic substances
c. the number of patients and their diagnoses
d. all of the above
a. the potential for a violent situation
The EMT's Standard Precautions equipment during the scene size up may include
all the following except:
a. eye protection
b. disposable gloves
c. face mask or eye shield
d. nonrebreather mask

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d. nonrebreather mask
Standard Precautions should be taken with all patients. The key element of the
Standard Precautions is to:
a. always wear all protective clothing
b. always have personal protective equipment readily available
c. place equipment on the patient as well as the rescuer
d. determine which body fluids are a danger to the EMT
b. always have personal protective equipment readily available
Certain injuries are common to particular situations. Injuries to bones and joints
are usually associated with:
a. fights and drug usage
b. falls and vehicle collisions
c. fires and explosions
d. bullet wounds
b. falls and vehicle collisions
Knowing the mechanism of injury assists the EMT in:
a. immobilizing the patient's spine
b. determining which Standard Precautions to use
c. Predicting various injury patterns
d. All of the above
c. Predicting various injury patterns
The physical forces and energy that impinge on the patient are influenced by the
laws of physics. One of those laws, the law of inertia, states that:
a. the faster you enter a turn, the more your vehicle will be pulled straight
b. the slower the speed, the greater the energy loss

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c. a body in motion will remain in motion unless acted upon by an outside force
d. the mass or weight of an object is the most important contributor to an injury
c. a body in motion will remain in motion unless acted upon by an outside force
You are treating a patient who was involved in a head on collision. She was the
unrestrained driver who took the "up and over" pathway. To which part of her
body would she have most likely sustained injuries?
a. skull
b. fibula
c. knees
d. femur
a. skull
Which of the following is LEAST likely to be considered a MOI for a patient who
was involved in a head-on collision in which they were unrestrained and took the
"up and over" pathway?
a. steering wheel
b. windshield
c. Brake pedal
d. dashboard
c. Brake pedal
Which type of collision is most serious when the occupant is not restrained
because it has the potential for multiple impacts?
a. side impact
b. rear end impact
c. head-on, up and over
d. roll-over

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d. roll-over
You are on the scene of a car crash. Your patient has stable vital signs and is
complaint of knee, leg, and hip pain. He also states that he was in the front seat of
the car and did not have his seatbelt on. What type of collision did he most likely
experience?
a. head- on, up and over
b. rear end
c. head-on, down and under
d. rotational impact
c. head-on, down and under
You are walking around a vehicle that was involved in a collision. All of the
following are examples of MOI except a:
a. patient who fell 3 times her height
b. spiderweb crack in the windshield
c. broken steering column in a collision
d. flat rear tire
d. flat rear tire
A severe fall for an adult is:
a. over 20 feet
b. over 15 feet
c. less than 10 feet
d. always fatal
a. over 20 feet

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You are evaluating a patient who sustained a penetrating injury. The injury is
usually limited to the penetrated area in a _______ injury.
a. low velocity
b. medium velocity
c. high velocity
d. super velocity
a. low velocity
The pressure wave around the bullet's track through the body is called:
a. exsanguination
b. gas penetration
c. cavitation
d. pressure damage
c. cavitation
You are evaluating a patient who sustained an injury cased by a blow that hit the
body but did not penetrate the skin. This type of injury is called a(n):
a. inertia trauma
b. cavitation
c. blunt force trauma
d. rotational impact
c. blunt force trauma
In which of the following situations would it be necessary for you and your
partner to call for additional assistance?
a. You are treating a patient with flulike symptoms and the toddler also has
similar symptoms

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Subject

National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians

2024-2025 EMT FISDAP Readiness Practice Exam with Answers (161 Solved Questions)

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