HESI Critical Care Practice Exam With Answers (75 Solved Questions)

Name: HESI Critical Care Practice Exam With Answers (75 Solved Questions)
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Build exam confidence with HESI Critical Care Practice Exam With Answers, featuring a selection of past test questions.

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HESI Critical Care Exam Questions with Answers and Rationales
1. A client with asthma receives a prescription for high blood pressure during a clinic visit.
Which prescription should the nurse anticipate the client to receive that is least likely to
exacerbate asthma?
A. Carteolol (Ocupress).
B. Propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal).
C. Pindolol (Visken). Incorrect
D. Metoprolol tartrate (Lopressor). Correct
The best antihypertensive agent for clients with asthma is metoprolol (Lopressor) (C), a beta2
blocking agent which is also cardioselective and less likely to cause bronchoconstriction.
Pindolol (A) is a beta2 blocker that can cause bronchoconstriction and increase asthmatic
symptoms. Although carteolol (B) is a beta blocking agent and an effective antihypertensive
agent used in managing angina, it can increase a client's risk for bronchoconstriction due to its
nonselective beta blocker action. Propranolol (D) also blocks the beta2 receptors in the lungs,
causing bronchoconstriction, and is not indicated in clients with asthma and other obstructive
pulmonary disorders.
2. A male client who has been taking propranolol (Inderal) for 18 months tells the nurse that the
healthcare provider discontinued the medication because his blood pressure has been normal for
the past three months. Which instruction should the nurse provide?
A. Obtain another antihypertensive prescription to avoid withdrawal symptoms.
B. Stop the medication and keep an accurate record of blood pressure.

C. Report any uncomfortable symptoms after stopping the medication.
D. Ask the healthcare provider about tapering the drug dose over the next week. Correct
Although the healthcare provider discontinued the propranolol, measures to prevent rebound
cardiac excitation, such as progressively reducing the dose over one to two weeks (C), should be
recommended to prevent rebound tachycardia, hypertension, and ventricular dysrhythmias.
Abrupt cessation (A and B) of the beta-blocking agent may precipitate tachycardia and rebound
hypertension, so gradual weaning should be recommended. (D) is not indicated.
3. A client who is taking clonidine (Catapres, Duraclon) reports drowsiness. Which additional
assessment should the nurse make?
A. Has the client experienced constipation recently?
B. Did the client miss any doses of the medication?
C. How long has the client been taking the medication? Correct
D. Does the client use any tobacco products?
Drowsiness can occur in the early weeks of treatment with clonidine and with continued use
becomes less intense, so the length of time the client has been on the medication (A) provides
information to direct additional instruction. (B, C, and D) are not relevant.
4.ID: 6974873590
The nurse is preparing to administer atropine, an anticholinergic, to a client who is scheduled for
a cholecystectomy. The client asks the nurse to explain the reason for the prescribed medication.
What response is best for the nurse to provide?
A. Provide a more rapid induction of anesthesia.

B. Induce relaxation before induction of anesthesia.
C. Decrease the risk of bradycardia during surgery. Correct
D. Minimize the amount of analgesia needed postoperatively.
Atropine may be prescribed preoperatively to increase the automaticity of the sinoatrial node and
prevent a dangerous reduction in heart rate (B) during surgical anesthesia. (A, C and D) do not
address the therapeutic action of atropine use perioperatively.
5.ID: 6974876286
An 80-year-old client is given morphine sulphate for postoperative pain. Which concomitant
medication should the nurse question that poses a potential development of urinary retention in
this geriatric client?
A. Antacids.
B. Tricyclic antidepressants. Correct
C. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory agents.
D. Insulin.
Drugs with anticholinergic properties, such as tricyclic antidepressants (C), can exacerbate
urinary retention associated with opioids in the older client. Although tricyclic antidepressants
and antihistamines with opioids can exacerbate urinary retention, the concurrent use of (A and B)
with opioids do not. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory agents (D) can increase the risk for bleeding,
but do not increase urinary retention with opioids (D).
6.ID: 6974873559

A client with osteoarthritis is given a new prescription for a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug
(NSAID). The client asks the nurse, "How is this medication different from the acetaminophen I
have been taking?" Which information about the therapeutic action of NSAIDs should the nurse
provide?
A. Are less expensive.
B. Provide antiinflammatory response. Correct
C. Increase hepatotoxic side effects.
D. Cause gastrointestinal bleeding.
Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) have antiinflammatory properties (B), which
relieves pain associated with osteoarthritis and differs from acetaminophen, a non-narcotic
analgesic and antipyretic. (A) does not teach the client about the medication's actions. Although
NSAIDs are irritating to the gastrointestinal (GI) system and can cause GI bleeding (C),
instructions to take with food in the stomach to manage this as an expected side effect should be
included, but this does not answer the client's question. Acetaminophen is potentially hepatotoxic
(D), not NSAIDs.
7.ID: 6974876262
A client with cancer has a history of alcohol abuse and is taking acetaminophen (Tylenol) for
pain. Which organ function is most important for the nurse to monitor?
A. Cardiorespiratory.
B. Liver. Correct
C. Sensory.
D. Kidney.

Acetaminophen and alcohol are both metabolized in the liver. This places the client at risk for
hepatotoxicity, so monitoring liver (A) function is the most important assessment because the
combination of acetaminophen and alcohol, even in moderate amounts, can cause potentially
fatal liver damage. Other non-narcotic analgesics, such as n onsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
(NSAIDs), are more likely to promote adverse renal effects (B). Acetaminophen does not place
the client at risk for toxic reactions related to (C or D).
8.ID: 6974875110
The nurse obtains a heart rate of 92 and a blood pressure of 110/76 prior to administering a
scheduled dose of verapamil (Calan) for a client with atrial flutter. Which action should the nurse
implement?
A. Give intravenous (IV) calcium gluconate.
B. Withhold the drug and notify the healthcare provider.
C. Administer the dose as prescribed. Correct
D. Recheck the vital signs in 30 minutes and then administer the dose.
Verapamil slows sinoatrial (SA) nodal automaticity, delays atrioventricular (AV) nodal
conduction, which slows the ventricular rate, and is used to treat atrial flutter, so (A) should be
implemented, based on the client's heart rate and blood pressure. (B and C) are not indicated. (D)
delays the administration of the scheduled dose.
9.ID: 6974873583
A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Type 2 diabetes mellitus and influenza.
Which categories of illness should the nurse develop goals for the client's plan of care?

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A. One chronic and one acute illness. Correct
B. Two acute illnesses.
C. One acute and one infectious illness. Incorrect
D. Two chronic illnesses.
The plan of care should include goals that are specific for chronic and acute illnesses. Adult-
onset diabetes is a life-long chronic disease, whereas influenza is an acute illness with a short
term duration (C). (A, B, and D) do not include the correct duration categories for this situation.
10.ID: 6974877914
Following an emergency Cesarean delivery, the nurse encourages the new mother to breastfeed
her newborn. The client asks why she should breastfeed now. Which information should the
nurse provide?
A. Stimulate contraction of the uterus. Correct
B. Initiate the lactation process.
C. Facilitate maternal-infant bonding.
D. Prevent neonatal hypoglycemia.
When the infant suckles at the breast, oxytocin is released by the posterior pituitary to stimulates
the "letdown" reflex, which causes the release of colostrum, and contracts the uterus (C) to
prevent uterine hemorrhage. (A and B) do not support the client's need in the immediate period
after the emergency delivery. Although maternal-newborn bonding (D) is facilitated by early
breastfeeding, the priority is uterine contraction stimulation.
11.ID: 6974875104

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Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care for a female client with severe
postpartum depression who is admitted to the inpatient psychiatric unit?
A. Restrict visitors who irritate the client.
B. Full rooming-in for the infant and mother.
C. Supervised and guided visits with infant. Correct
D. Daily visits with her significant other.
Structured visits (C) provide an opportunity for the mother and infant to bond and should be
facilitated and encouraged according to the client's pace of progress. (A) is unrealistic and may
not be safe for the baby or the client. (B) is an unrealistic expectation. Although daily visits may
provide support, the significant other may not be able to be there every day (D) based on other
family responsibilities.
12.ID: 6974873535
A 16-year-old male client is admitted to the hospital after falling off a bike and sustaining a
fractured bone. The healthcare provider explains the surgery needed to immobilize the fracture.
Which action should be implemented to obtain a valid informed consent?
A. Obtain the permission of the custodial parent for the surgery. Correct
B. Notify the non-custodial parent to also sign a consent form.
C. Instruct the client sign the consent before giving medications.
D. Obtain the signature of the client’s stepfather for the surgery. Incorrect
The client is a minor and cannot legally sign his own consent unless he is an emancipated minor,
so the consent should be obtained from the guardian for this client, which is the custodial parent
(B). (A) is not a legal option. A stepparent is not a legal guardian for a minor unless the child has

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been adopted by the stepparent (C). The non-custodial parent does not need to co-sign this form
(D).
13.ID: 6974876258
During a client assessment, the client says, "I can't walk very well." Which action should the
nurse implement first?
A. Predict the likelihood of the outcome.
B. Consider alternatives.
C. Choose the most successful approach.
D. Identify the problem. Correct
The sequential steps in problem-solving are to first identify the problem (B), then consider
alternatives (C), consider outcomes of the alternatives (D), predict the likelihood of the outcomes
occurring, and choose the alternative with the best chance of success (A).
14.ID: 6974875112
The nurse identifies a client's needs and formulates the nursing problem of, "Imbalanced
nutrition: less than body requirements, related to mental impairment and decreased intake, as
evidenced by increasing confusion and weight loss of more than 30 pounds over the last 6
months." Which short-term goal is best for this client?
A. Verbalize understanding of plan and of intention to eat meals.
B. Eat 50% of six small meals each day by the end of one week. Correct
C. Meals prepared during hospitalization will be fed by the nurse.
D. Demonstrate progressive weight gain toward the ideal weight.

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Short-term goals should be realistic and attainable and should have a timeline of 7 to 10 days
before discharge. (A) meets those criteria. (B) is nurse-oriented. (C) may be beyond the
capabilities of a confused client. (D) is a long-term goal.
15.ID: 6974873569
A male client is angry and is leaving the hospital against medical advice (AMA). The client
demands to take his chart with him and states the chart is "his" and he doesn' t want any more
contact with the hospital. How should the nurse respond?
A. This hospital does not need to keep it if you are leaving and not returning here.
B. Because you are leaving against medical advice, you may not have your chart.
C. The information in your chart is confidential and cannot leave this facility
legally.
D. The chart is the property of the hospital but I will see that a copy is made for you.
Correct
The chart is the property of the facility, but the client has a legal right to the information in it,
even if he is leaving AMA, so a copy of the record (D) should be provided. The client does not
lose his legal rights to his medical record if he leaves AMA (A). The medical record is
confidential, but the hospital protects the client's privacy by not allowing unauthorized access to
the record, so the hospital may provide the client with a copy (B). The hospital must maintain
records of the care provided and should not release the original record (C).
16.ID: 6974877906

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The nurse manager is assisting a nurse with improving organizational skills and time
management. Which nursing activity is the priority in pre-planning a schedule for selected
nursing activities in the daily assignment?
A. Tracheostomy tube suctioning. Incorrect
B. Medication administration. Correct
C. Colostomy care instruction.
D. Client personal hygiene.
In developing organizational skills, medication administration is based on a prescribed schedule
that is time-sensitive in the delivery of nursing care and should be the priority in scheduling
nursing activities in a daily assignment. Although suctioning a client's tracheostomy takes
precedence in providing care, the client's PRN need is less amenable to a preselected schedule.
(B and C) can be scheduled around time-sensitive delivery of care.
17.ID: 6974876220
What nursing delivery of care provides the nurse to plan and direct care of a group of clients over
a 24-hour period?
A. Case management.
B. Team nursing. Incorrect
C. Primary nursing. Correct
D. Functional nursing.
Primary nursing (B) is a model of delivery of care where a nurse is accountable for planning care
for clients around the clock. Functional nursing (D) is a care delivery model that provides client
care by assignment of functions or tasks. Team nursing (A) is a care delivery model where

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assignments to a group of clients are provided by a mixed-staff team. Case management (C) is
the delivery of care that uses a collaborative process of assessment, planning, facilitation, and
advocacy for options and services to meet an individual's health needs and promote quality cost-
effective outcomes.
18.ID: 6974876280
Two unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) are arguing on the unit about who deserves to take a
break first. What is the most important basic guideline that the nurse should follow in resolving
the conflict?
A. Require the UAPs to reach a compromise.
B. Weigh the consequences of each possible solution. Incorrect
C. Encourage the two to view the humor of the conflict.
D. Deal with issues and not personalities. Correct
Dealing with the issues which are concrete, not personalities (A) which include emotional
reactions, is one of seven important key behaviors in managing conflict. (B, C, and D) do not
resolve the conflict when diverse opinions are expressed emotionally.
19.ID: 6974873531
The nurse is caring for a client who is unable to void. The plan of care establishes an objective
for the client to ingest at least 1000 mL of fluid between 7:00 am and 3:30 pm. Which client
response should the nurse document that indicates a successful outcome?
A. Demonstrates adequate fluid intake and output.
B. Verbalizes abdominal comfort without pressure.

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C. Drinks 240 mL of fluid five times during the shift. Correct
D. Voids at least 1000 mL between 7 am and 3 pm.
The nurse should evaluate the client's outcome by observing the client's performance of each
expected behavior, so drinking 240 mL of fluid five or six times during the shift (D) indicates a
fluid intake of 1200 to 1440 mL, which meets the objective of at least 1000 mL during the
designated period. (A) uses the term "adequate," which is not quantified. (B) is not the objective,
which establishes an intake of at least 1000 mL. (C) is not an evaluation of the specific fluid
intake.
20.ID: 6974873553
The nurse plans a teaching session with a client but postpones the planned session based on
which nursing problem?
A. Knowledge deficit regarding impending surgery.
B. Ineffective management of treatment regimen.
C. Activity intolerance related to postoperative pain. Correct
D. Noncompliance with prescribed exercise plan.
Pain, fatigue, or anxiety can interfere with the ability to pay attention and participate in learning,
so the nursing diagnosis in (A) indicates a need to postpone teaching. (B, C, and D) indicate a
need for instruction.
21.ID: 6974875106
A client who has active tuberculosis (TB) is admitted to the medical unit. What action is most
important for the nurse to implement?

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A. Fit the client with a respirator mask.
B. Assign the client to a negative air-flow room. Correct
C. Don a clean gown for client care.
D. Place an isolation cart in the hallway.
Active tuberculosis requires implementation of airborne precautions, so the client should be
assigned to a negative pressure air-flow room (D). Although (A and C) should be implemented
for clients in isolation with contact precautions, it is most important that air flow from the room
is minimized when the client has TB. (B) should be implemented when the client leaves the
isolation environment.
22.ID: 6974873585
A client is receiving atenolol (Tenormin) 25 mg PO after a myocardial infarction. The nurse
determines the client's apical pulse is 65 beats per minute. What action should the nurse
implement next?
A. Measure the blood pressure.
B. Reassess the apical pulse.
C. Notify the healthcare provider.
D. Administer the medication. Correct
Atenolol, a beta-blocker, blocks the beta receptors of the sinoatrial node to reduce the heart rate,
so the medication should be administered (C) because the client's apical pulse is greater than 60.
(A, B, and D) are not indicated at this time.
23.ID: 6974875175

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The nurse is assessing a client and identifies a bruit over the thyroid. This finding is consistent
with which interpretation?
A. Hypothyroidism.
B. Thyroid cyst.
C. Thyroid cancer.
D. Hyperthyroidism. Correct
Hyperthyroidism (D) is an enlargement of the thyroid gland, often referred to as a goiter, and a
bruit may be auscultated over the goiter due to an increase in glandular vascularity which
increases as the thyroid gland becomes hyperactive. A bruit is not common with (A, B, and C).
24.ID: 6974876270
A 6-year-old child is alert but quiet when brought to the emergency center with periorbital
ecchymosis and ecchymosis behind the ears. The nurse suspects potential child abuse and
continues to assess the child for additional manifestations of a basilar skull fracture. What
assessment finding would be consistent with a basilar skull fracture?
A. Hematemesis and abdominal distention.
B. Asymmetry of the face and eye movements.
C. Rhinorrhoea or otorrhoea with Halo sign. Correct
D. Abnormal position and movement of the arm.
Raccoon eyes (periorbital ecchymosis) and Battle's sign (ecchymosis behind the ear over the
mastoid process) are both signs of a basilar skull fracture, so the nurse should assess for possible
meningeal tears that manifest as a Halo sign with CSF leakage from the ears or nose (D). (A) is

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consistent with orbital fractures. (B) occurs with wrenching traumas of the shoulder or arm
fractures. (C) occurs with blunt abdominal injuries.
25.ID: 6974873555
The nurse is assessing a client who complains of weight loss, racing heart rate, and difficulty
sleeping. The nurse determines the client has moist skin with fine hair, prominent eyes, lid
retraction, and a staring expression. These findings are consistent with which disorder?
A. Grave's disease. Correct
B. Multiple sclerosis.
C. Addison's disease.
D. Cushing syndrome.
This client is exhibiting symptoms associated with hyperthyroidism or Grave's disease (A),
which is an autoimmune condition affecting the thyroid. (B, C, and D) are not associated with
these symptoms.
26.ID: 6974875146
The nurse is assessing an older client and determines that the client's left upper eyelid droops,
covering more of the iris than the right eyelid. Which description should the nurse use to
document this finding?
A. A nystagmus on the left.
B. Exophthalmos on the right.
C. Ptosis on the left eyelid. Correct
D. Astigmatism on the right.

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HESI Critical Care Practice Exam With Answers (75 Solved Questions)

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