HESI Pharmacology Comprehensive Real Exam With Answers (245 Solved Questions)

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NEW GENERATION ATI COMPREHENSIVE HESI EXAM
FOR PHARMACOLOGY | REAL EXAMS WITH
RATIONALE AND STUDY HINTS
1) A nurse is caring for a client with hyperparathyroidism and notes that the client's serum
calcium level is 13 mg/dL. Which medication should the nurse prepare to administer as
prescribed to the client?
1. Calcium chloride
2. Calcium gluconate
3. Calcitonin (Miacalcin)
4. Large doses of vitamin D 3. Calcitonin
(Miacalcin) Rationale:
The normal serum calcium level is 8.6 to 10.0 mg/dL. This client is experiencing
hypercalcemia. Calcium gluconate and calcium chloride are medications used for the
treatment of tetany, which occurs as a result of acute hypocalcemia. In hypercalcemia, large
doses of vitamin D need to be avoided. Calcitonin, a thyroid hormone, decreases the plasma
calcium level by inhibiting bone resorption and lowering the serum calcium concentration.
2.) Oral iron supplements are prescribed for a 6-year-old child with iron deficiency anemia. The
nurse instructs the mother to administer the iron with which best food item?
1. Milk
2. Water
3. Apple juice
4. Orange juice 4. Orange
juice Rationale:
Vitamin C increases the absorption of iron by the body. The mother should be instructed to
administer the medication with a citrus fruit or a juice that is high in vitamin C. Milk may affect
absorption of the iron. Water will not assist in absorption. Orange juice contains a greater
amount of vitamin C than apple juice.
3.) Salicylic acid is prescribed for a client with a diagnosis of psoriasis. The nurse monitors the
client, knowing that which of the following would indicate the presence of systemic toxicity from
this medication?
1. Tinnitus
2. Diarrhea

Salicylic acid is absorbed readily through the skin, and systemic toxicity (salicylism) can result.
Symptoms include tinnitus, dizziness, hyperpnea, and psychological disturbances. Constipation
and diarrhea are not associated with salicylism.
4.) The camp nurse asks the children preparing to swim in the lake if they have applied
sunscreen. The nurse reminds the children that chemical sunscreens are most effective when
applied:
1. Immediately before swimming
2. 15 minutes before exposure to the sun
3. Immediately before exposure to the sun
4. At least 30 minutes before exposure to the sun
Rationale:
Sunscreens are most effective when applied at least 30 minutes before exposure to the sun so
that they can penetrate the skin. All sunscreens should be reapplied after swimming or sweating.
5.) Mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon) is prescribed for the client with a burn injury. When applying
the medication, the client complains of local discomfort and burning. Which of the following is
the most appropriate nursing action?
1. Notifying the registered nurse
2. Discontinuing the medication
3. Informing the client that this is normal
4. Applying a thinner film than prescribed to the burn site 3. Informing the client that
this is normal
Rationale:
Mafenide acetate is bacteriostatic for gram-negative and gram-positive organisms and is used
to treat burns to reduce bacteria present in avascular tissues. The client should be informed that
the medication will cause local discomfort and burning and that this is a normal reaction;
therefore options 1, 2, and 4 are incorrect
6.) The burn client is receiving treatments of topical mafenide acetate (Sulfamylon) to the site
of injury. The nurse monitors the client, knowing that which of the following indicates that a
systemic effect has occurred?
1.Hyperventilation
2.Elevated blood
pressure 3.Local pain at
the burn site

4.Local rash at the burn site 1.Hyperventilation
Rationale:
Mafenide acetate is a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor and can suppress renal excretion of acid,
thereby causing acidosis. Clients receiving this treatment should be monitored for signs of an
acid-base imbalance (hyperventilation). If this occurs, the medication should be discontinued
for 1 to 2 days. Options 3 and 4 describe local rather than systemic effects. An elevated blood
pressure may be expected from the pain that occurs with a burn injury.
7.) Isotretinoin is prescribed for a client with severe acne. Before the administration of this
medication, the nurse anticipates that which laboratory test will be prescribed?
1. Platelet count
2. Triglyceride level
3. Complete blood count
4. White blood cell count 2. Triglyceride
level Rationale:
Isotretinoin can elevate triglyceride levels. Blood triglyceride levels should be measured before
treatment and periodically thereafter until the effect on the triglycerides has been evaluated.
Options 1, 3, and 4 do not need to be monitored specifically during this treatment.
8.) A client with severe acne is seen in the clinic and the health care provider (HCP) prescribes
isotretinoin. The nurse reviews the client's medication record and would contact the (HCP) if the
client is taking which medication?
1. Vitamin A
2. Digoxin (Lanoxin)
3. Furosemide (Lasix)
4. Phenytoin (Dilantin) 1. Vitamin
A Rationale:
Isotretinoin is a metabolite of vitamin A and can produce generalized intensification of
isotretinoin toxicity. Because of the potential for increased toxicity, vitamin A supplements should
be discontinued before isotretinoin therapy. Options 2, 3, and 4 are not contraindicated with the
use of isotretinoin.
9.) The nurse is applying a topical corticosteroid to a client with eczema. The nurse would
monitor for the potential for increased systemic absorption of the medication if the medication
were being applied to which of the following body areas?
1. Back
2. Axilla

3. Soles of the feet
4. Palms of the hands 2.
Axilla Rationale:
Topical corticosteroids can be absorbed into the systemic circulation. Absorption is higher
from regions where the skin is especially permeable (scalp, axilla, face, eyelids, neck,
perineum, genitalia), and lower from regions in which permeability is poor (back, palms,
soles).
10.) The clinic nurse is performing an admission assessment on a client. The nurse notes that the
client is taking azelaic acid (Azelex). Because of the medication prescription, the nurse would
suspect that the client is being treated for:
1. Acne
2. Eczema
3. Hair loss
4. Herpes simplex 1.
Acne Rationale:
Azelaic acid is a topical medication used to treat mild to moderate acne. The acid appears to
work by suppressing the growth of Propionibacterium acnes and decreasing the proliferation of
keratinocytes. Options 2, 3, and 4 are incorrect.
11.) The health care provider has prescribed silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) for the client with a
partial- thickness burn, which has cultured positive for gram-negative bacteria. The nurse is
reinforcing information to the client about the medication. Which statement made by the client
indicates a lack of understanding about the treatments?
1. "The medication is an antibacterial."
2. "The medication will help heal the burn."
3. "The medication will permanently stain my skin."
4. "The medication should be applied directly to the wound." 3. "The medication will
permanently stain my skin."
Rationale:
Silver sulfadiazine (Silvadene) is an antibacterial that has a broad spectrum of activity against
gram- negative bacteria, gram-positive bacteria, and yeast. It is applied directly to the wound
to assist in healing. It does not stain the skin.
12.) A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving an intravenous (IV) infusion of an antineoplastic
medication. During the infusion, the client complains of pain at the insertion site. During an
inspection of the site, the nurse notes redness and swelling and that the rate of infusion of the
medication has slowed. The nurse should take which appropriate action?

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1. Notify the registered nurse.
2. Administer pain medication to reduce the discomfort.
3. Apply ice and maintain the infusion rate, as prescribed.
4. Elevate the extremity of the IV site, and slow the infusion. 1. Notify the
registered nurse. Rationale:
When antineoplastic medications (Chemotheraputic Agents) are administered via IV, great care
must be taken to prevent the medication from escaping into the tissues surrounding the
injection site, because pain, tissue damage, and necrosis can result. The nurse monitors for
signs of extravasation, such as redness or swelling at the insertion site and a decreased infusion
rate. If extravasation occurs, the registered nurse needs to be notified; he or she will then
contact the health care provider.
13.) The client with squamous cell carcinoma of the larynx is receiving bleomycin intravenously.
The nurse caring for the client anticipates that which diagnostic study will be prescribed?
1. Echocardiography
2. Electrocardiography
3. Cervical radiography
4. Pulmonary function studies 4. Pulmonary function
studies Rationale:
Bleomycin is an antineoplastic medication (Chemotheraputic Agents) that can cause interstitial
pneumonitis, which can progress to pulmonary fibrosis. Pulmonary function studies along with
hematological, hepatic, and renal function tests need to be monitored. The nurse needs to
monitor lung sounds for dyspnea and crackles, which indicate pulmonary toxicity. The
medication needs to be discontinued immediately if pulmonary toxicity occurs. Options 1, 2,
and 3 are unrelated to the specific use of this medication.
14.) The client with acute myelocytic leukemia is being treated with busulfan (Myleran). Which
laboratory value would the nurse specifically monitor during treatment with this medication?
1. Clotting time
2. Uric acid level
3. Potassium level
4. Blood glucose level 2. Uric acid
level Rationale:
Busulfan (Myleran) can cause an increase in the uric acid level. Hyperuricemia can produce uric
acid nephropathy, renal stones, and acute renal failure. Options 1, 3, and 4 are not specifically
related to this medication.

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15.)The client with small cell lung cancer is being treated with etoposide (VePesid). The nurse
who is assisting in caring for the client during its administration understands that which side
effect is specifically associated with this medication?
1. Alopecia
2. Chest pain
3. Pulmonary fibrosis
4. Orthostatic hypotension 4. Orthostatic
hypotension Rationale:
A side effect specific to etoposide is orthostatic hypotension. The client's blood pressure is
monitored during the infusion. Hair loss occurs with nearly all the antineoplastic medications.
Chest pain and pulmonary fibrosis are unrelated to this medication.
16.) The clinic nurse is reviewing a teaching plan for the client receiving an antineoplastic
medication. When implementing the plan, the nurse tells the client:
1. To take aspirin (acetylsalicylic acid) as needed for headache
2. Drink beverages containing alcohol in moderate amounts each evening
3. Consult with health care providers (HCPs) before receiving immunizations
4. That it is not necessary to consult HCPs before receiving a flu vaccine at the local health
fair
3. Consult with health care providers (HCPs) before receiving immunizations
Rationale:
Because antineoplastic medications lower the resistance of the body, clients must be informed
not to receive immunizations without a HCP's approval. Clients also need to avoid contact with
individuals who have recently received a live virus vaccine. Clients need to avoid aspirin and
aspirin-containing products to minimize the risk of bleeding, and they need to avoid alcohol to
minimize the risk of toxicity and side effects.
17.) The client with ovarian cancer is being treated with vincristine (Oncovin). The nurse
monitors the client, knowing that which of the following indicates a side effect specific to this
medication?
1. Diarrhea
2. Hair loss
3. Chest pain
4. Numbness and tingling in the fingers and toes 4. Numbness and tingling in the fingers and
toes Rationale:

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A side effect specific to vincristine is peripheral neuropathy, which occurs in almost every client.
Peripheral neuropathy can be manifested as numbness and tingling in the fingers and toes.
Depression
of the Achilles tendon reflex may be the first clinical sign indicating peripheral neuropathy.
Constipation rather than diarrhea is most likely to occur with this medication, although
diarrhea may occur occasionally. Hair loss occurs with nearly all the antineoplastic
medications. Chest pain is unrelated to this medication.
18.) The nurse is reviewing the history and physical examination of a client who will be
receiving asparaginase (Elspar), an antineoplastic agent. The nurse consults with the registered
nurse regarding the administration of the medication if which of the following is documented
in the client's history?
1. Pancreatitis
2. Diabetes mellitus
3. Myocardial infarction
4. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
Rationale:
Asparaginase (Elspar) is contraindicated if hypersensitivity exists, in pancreatitis, or if the
client has a history of pancreatitis. The medication impairs pancreatic function and pancreatic
function tests should be performed before therapy begins and when a week or more has
elapsed between administration of the doses. The client needs to be monitored for signs of
pancreatitis, which include nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. The conditions noted in
options 2, 3, and 4 are not contraindicated with this medication.
19.) Tamoxifen is prescribed for the client with metastatic breast carcinoma. The nurse
understands that the primary action of this medication is to:
1. Increase DNA and RNA synthesis.
2. Promote the biosynthesis of nucleic acids.
3. Increase estrogen concentration and estrogen response.
4. Compete with estradiol for binding to estrogen in tissues containing high concentrations of
receptors.
Rationale:
Tamoxifen is an antineoplastic medication that competes with estradiol for binding to estrogen
in tissues containing high concentrations of receptors. Tamoxifen is used to treat metastatic
breast carcinoma in women and men. Tamoxifen is also effective in delaying the recurrence of
cancer following mastectomy. Tamoxifen reduces DNA synthesis and estrogen response.
20.) The client with metastatic breast cancer is receiving tamoxifen. The nurse specifically

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monitors which laboratory value while the client is taking this medication?
1. Glucose level
2. Calcium level
3. Potassium level
4. Prothrombin time
Rationale:
Tamoxifen may increase calcium, cholesterol, and triglyceride levels. Before the initiation of
therapy, a complete blood count, platelet count, and serum calcium levels should be assessed.
These blood levels, along with cholesterol and triglyceride levels, should be monitored
periodically during therapy. The nurse should assess for hypercalcemia while the client is taking
this medication. Signs of hypercalcemia include increased urine volume, excessive thirst,
nausea, vomiting, constipation, hypotonicity of muscles, and deep bone and flank pain.
21.) A nurse is assisting with caring for a client with cancer who is receiving cisplatin. Select the
adverse effects that the nurse monitors for that are associated with this medication. Select all that
apply.
1. Tinnitus
2. Ototoxicity
3. Hyperkalemia
4. Hypercalcemia
5. Nephrotoxicity
6. Hypomagnesemia 1. Tinnitus
2. Ototoxicity
5. Nephrotoxicity
6. Hypomagnesem
ia Rationale:
Cisplatin is an alkylating medication. Alkylating medications are cell cycle phase-nonspecific
medications that affect the synthesis of DNA by causing the cross-linking of DNA to inhibit cell
reproduction. Cisplatin may cause ototoxicity, tinnitus, hypokalemia, hypocalcemia,
hypomagnesemia, and nephrotoxicity.
Amifostine (Ethyol) may be administered before cisplatin to reduce the potential for renal toxicity.
22.) A nurse is caring for a client after thyroidectomy and notes that calcium gluconate is
prescribed for the client. The nurse determines that this medication has been prescribed to:
1. Treat thyroid storm.

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2. Prevent cardiac irritability.
3. Treat hypocalcemic tetany.
4. Stimulate the release of parathyroid hormone. 3. Treat hypocalcemic
tetany. Rationale:
Hypocalcemia can develop after thyroidectomy if the parathyroid glands are accidentally
removed or injured during surgery. Manifestations develop 1 to 7 days after surgery. If the client
develops numbness and tingling around the mouth, fingertips, or toes or muscle spasms or
twitching, the health care provider is notified immediately. Calcium gluconate should be kept
at the bedside.
23.) A client who has been newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus has been stabilized with daily
insulin injections. Which information should the nurse teach when carrying out plans for
discharge?
1. Keep insulin vials refrigerated at all times.
2. Rotate the insulin injection sites systematically.
3. Increase the amount of insulin before unusual exercise.
4. Monitor the urine acetone level to determine the insulin dosage. 2. Rotate the insulin
injection sites systematically.
Rationale:
Insulin dosages should not be adjusted or increased before unusual exercise. If acetone is found
in the urine, it may possibly indicate the need for additional insulin. To minimize the discomfort
associated with insulin injections, the insulin should be administered at room temperature.
Injection sites should be systematically rotated from one area to another. The client should be
instructed to give injections in one area, about 1 inch apart, until the whole area has been used
and then to change to another site. This prevents dramatic changes in daily insulin absorption.
24.) A nurse is reinforcing teaching for a client regarding how to mix regular insulin and NPH
insulin in the same syringe. Which of the following actions, if performed by the client, indicates
the need for further teaching?
1. Withdraws the NPH insulin first
2. Withdraws the regular insulin first
3. Injects air into NPH insulin vial first
4. Injects an amount of air equal to the desired dose of insulin into the vial 1. Withdraws
the NPH insulin first
Rationale:
When preparing a mixture of regular insulin with another insulin preparation, the regular insulin

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is drawn into the syringe first. This sequence will avoid contaminating the vial of regular insulin
with insulin of another type. Options 2, 3, and 4 identify the correct actions for preparing NPH
and regular insulin.
25.) A home care nurse visits a client recently diagnosed with diabetes mellitus who is taking
Humulin NPH insulin daily. The client asks the nurse how to store the unopened vials of insulin.
The nurse tells the client to:
1. Freeze the insulin.
2. Refrigerate the insulin.
3. Store the insulin in a dark, dry place.
4. Keep the insulin at room temperature. 2. Refrigerate the
insulin. Rationale:
Insulin in unopened vials should be stored under refrigeration until needed. Vials should not be
frozen. When stored unopened under refrigeration, insulin can be used up to the expiration date
on the vial. Options 1, 3, and 4 are incorrect.
26.) Glimepiride (Amaryl) is prescribed for a client with diabetes mellitus. A nurse reinforces
instructions for the client and tells the client to avoid which of the following while taking this
medication?
1. Alcohol
2. Organ meats
3. Whole-grain cereals
4. Carbonated beverages 1.
Alcohol Rationale:
When alcohol is combined with glimepiride (Amaryl), a disulfiram-like reaction may occur. This
syndrome includes flushing, palpitations, and nausea. Alcohol can also potentiate the
hypoglycemic effects of the medication. Clients need to be instructed to avoid alcohol
consumption while taking this medication. The items in options 2, 3, and 4 do not need to be
avoided.
27.) Sildenafil (Viagra) is prescribed to treat a client with erectile dysfunction. A nurse reviews the
client's medical record and would question the prescription if which of the following is noted in
the client's history?
1. Neuralgia
2. Insomnia
3. Use of nitroglycerin
4. Use of multivitamins 3. Use of

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nitroglycerin Rationale:
Sildenafil (Viagra) enhances the vasodilating effect of nitric oxide in the corpus cavernosum of
the penis, thus sustaining an erection. Because of the effect of the medication, it is
contraindicated with concurrent use of organic nitrates and nitroglycerin. Sildenafil is not
contraindicated with the use of vitamins.
Neuralgia and insomnia are side effects of the medication.
28.) The health care provider (HCP) prescribes exenatide (Byetta) for a client with type 1
diabetes mellitus who takes insulin. The nurse knows that which of the following is the
appropriate intervention?
1. The medication is administered within 60 minutes before the morning and evening meal.
2. The medication is withheld and the HCP is called to question the prescription for the client.
3. The client is monitored for gastrointestinal side effects after administration of the medication.
4. The insulin is withdrawn from the Penlet into an insulin syringe to prepare for
administration. 2. The medication is withheld and the HCP is called to question the
prescription for the client.
Rationale:
Exenatide (Byetta) is an incretin mimetic used for type 2 diabetes mellitus only. It is not
recommended for clients taking insulin. Hence, the nurse should hold the medication and
question the HCP regarding this prescription. Although options 1 and 3 are correct statements
about the medication, in this situation the medication should not be administered. The
medication is packaged in prefilled pens ready for injection without the need for drawing it up
into another syringe.
29.) A client is taking Humulin NPH insulin daily every morning. The nurse reinforces instructions
for the client and tells the client that the most likely time for a hypoglycemic reaction to occur is:
1. 2 to 4 hours after administration
2. 4 to 12 hours after administration
3. 16 to 18 hours after administration
4. 18 to 24 hours after administration 2. 4 to 12 hours after
administration Rationale:
Humulin NPH is an intermediate-acting insulin. The onset of action is 1.5 hours, it peaks in 4 to
12 hours, and its duration of action is 24 hours. Hypoglycemic reactions most likely occur during
peak time.
30.) A client with diabetes mellitus visits a health care clinic. The client's diabetes mellitus
previously had been well controlled with glyburide (DiaBeta) daily, but recently the fasting blood
glucose level has been 180 to 200 mg/dL. Which medication, if added to the client's regimen,
may have contributed to the hyperglycemia?

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1. Prednisone
2. Phenelzine (Nardil)
3. Atenolol (Tenormin)
4. Allopurinol (Zyloprim) 1.
Prednisone Rationale:
Prednisone may decrease the effect of oral hypoglycemics, insulin, diuretics, and potassium
supplements. Option 2, a monoamine oxidase inhibitor, and option 3, a β-blocker, have their
own intrinsic hypoglycemic activity. Option 4 decreases urinary excretion of sulfonylurea
agents, causing increased levels of the oral agents, which can lead to hypoglycemia.
31.) A community health nurse visits a client at home. Prednisone 10 mg orally daily has been
prescribed for the client and the nurse reinforces teaching for the client about the medication.
Which statement, if made by the client, indicates that further teaching is necessary?
1. "I can take aspirin or my antihistamine if I need it."
2. "I need to take the medication every day at the same time."
3. "I need to avoid coffee, tea, cola, and chocolate in my diet."
4. "If I gain more than 5 pounds a week, I will call my doctor." 1. "I can take
aspirin or my antihistamine if I need it."
Rationale:
Aspirin and other over-the-counter medications should not be taken unless the client consults
with the health care provider (HCP). The client needs to take the medication at the same time
every day and should be instructed not to stop the medication. A slight weight gain as a result
of an improved appetite is expected, but after the dosage is stabilized, a weight gain of 5 lb or
more weekly should be reported to the HCP. Caffeine-containing foods and fluids need to be
avoided because they may contribute to
steroid-ulcer development.
32.) Desmopressin acetate (DDAVP) is prescribed for the treatment of diabetes insipidus. The
nurse monitors the client after medication administration for which therapeutic response?
1. Decreased urinary output
2. Decreased blood pressure
3. Decreased peripheral edema
4. Decreased blood glucose level 1. Decreased urinary
output Rationale:
Desmopressin promotes renal conservation of water. The hormone carries out this action by
acting on the collecting ducts of the kidney to increase their permeability to water, which

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results in increased water reabsorption. The therapeutic effect of this medication would be
manifested by a decreased urine output. Options 2, 3, and 4 are unrelated to the effects of this
medication.
33.) The home health care nurse is visiting a client who was recently diagnosed with type 2
diabetes mellitus. The client is prescribed repaglinide (Prandin) and metformin (Glucophage)
and asks the nurse to explain these medications. The nurse should reinforce which instructions
to the client? Select all that apply.
1. Diarrhea can occur secondary to the metformin.
2. The repaglinide is not taken if a meal is skipped.
3. The repaglinide is taken 30 minutes before eating.
4. Candy or another simple sugar is carried and used to treat mild hypoglycemia episodes.
5. Metformin increases hepatic glucose production to prevent hypoglycemia
associated with repaglinide.
6. Muscle pain is an expected side effect of metformin and may be treated with
acetaminophen (Tylenol). 1. Diarrhea can occur secondary to the metformin.
2. The repaglinide is not taken if a meal is skipped.
3. The repaglinide is taken 30 minutes before eating.
4. Candy or another simple sugar is carried and used to treat mild hypoglycemia
episodes. Rationale:
Repaglinide is a rapid-acting oral hypoglycemic agent that stimulates pancreatic insulin
secretion that should be taken before meals, and that should be withheld if the client does not
eat. Hypoglycemia is a side effect of repaglinide and the client should always be prepared by
carrying a simple sugar with her or him at all times. Metformin is an oral hypoglycemic given in
combination with repaglinide and works by decreasing hepatic glucose production. A common
side effect of metformin is diarrhea. Muscle pain may occur as an adverse effect from metformin
but it might signify a more serious condition that warrants health care provider notification, not
the use of acetaminophen.
34.) A client with Crohn's disease is scheduled to receive an infusion of infliximab (Remicade).
The nurse assisting in caring for the client should take which action to monitor the effectiveness
of treatment?
1. Monitoring the leukocyte count for 2 days after the infusion
2. Checking the frequency and consistency of bowel movements
3. Checking serum liver enzyme levels before and after the infusion
4. Carrying out a Hematest on gastric fluids after the infusion is completed 2.
Checking the frequency and consistency of bowel movements

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Rationale:
The principal manifestations of Crohn's disease are diarrhea and abdominal pain. Infliximab
(Remicade) is an immunomodulator that reduces the degree of inflammation in the colon,
thereby reducing the diarrhea. Options 1, 3, and 4 are unrelated to this medication.
35.) The client has a PRN prescription for loperamide hydrochloride (Imodium). The nurse
understands that this medication is used for which condition?
1. Constipation
2. Abdominal pain
3. An episode of diarrhea
4. Hematest-positive nasogastric tube drainage 3. An episode of
diarrhea Rationale:
Loperamide is an antidiarrheal agent. It is used to manage acute and also chronic diarrhea in
conditions such as inflammatory bowel disease. Loperamide also can be used to reduce the
volume of drainage from an ileostomy. It is not used for the conditions in options 1, 2, and 4.
36.)The client has a PRN prescription for ondansetron (Zofran). For which condition should this
medication be administered to the postoperative client?
1. Paralytic ileus
2. Incisional pain
3. Urinary retention
4. Nausea and vomiting4. Nausea and
vomiting Rationale:
Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to treat postoperative nausea and vomiting, as well as nausea
and vomiting associated with chemotherapy. The other options are incorrect.
37.) The client has begun medication therapy with pancrelipase (Pancrease MT). The nurse
evaluates that the medication is having the optimal intended benefit if which effect is
observed?
1. Weight loss
2. Relief of heartburn
3. Reduction of steatorrhea
4. Absence of abdominal pain 3. Reduction of
steatorrhea Rationale:
Pancrelipase (Pancrease MT) is a pancreatic enzyme used in clients with pancreatitis as a

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HESI Pharmacology Comprehensive Real Exam With Answers (245 Solved Questions)

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