HESI Trauma Care Practice Exam With Answers (129 Solved Questions)

Name: HESI Trauma Care Practice Exam With Answers (129 Solved Questions)
Brand: Academic Documents Platform
Price: 4 USD
Availability: InStock
Author: Isabella Moore

Boost your grades with HESI Trauma Care Practice Exam With Answers, featuring real-world past exam practice.

Isabella Moore

Contributor

4.1

3 days ago

Preview (16 of 99)

VERIFIED HESI Critical Care Exam Questions with Answers
and Rationales
(CORRECT ANSWERS)
1. A client with asthma receives a prescription for high blood pressure during a clinic
visit. Which prescription should the nurse anticipate the client to receive that is least
likely to exacerbate asthma?
A. Carteolol (Ocupress).
B. Propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal).
C. Pindolol (Visken).
D. Metoprolol tartrate (Lopressor). Correct
The best antihypertensive agent for clients with asthma is metoprolol (Lopressor) (C),
a beta2 blocking agent which is also cardioselective and less likely to cause
bronchoconstriction. Pindolol (A) is a beta2 blocker that can cause
bronchoconstriction and increase asthmatic symptoms. Although carteolol (B) is a
beta blocking agent and an effective antihypertensive agent used in managing
angina, it can increase a client's risk for bronchoconstriction due to its nonselective
beta blocker action. Propranolol (D) also blocks the beta2 receptors in the lungs,

causing bronchoconstriction, and is not indicated in clients with asthma and other
obstructive pulmonary disorders.
2. A male client who has been taking propranolol (Inderal) for 18 months tells the
nurse that the healthcare provider discontinued the medication because his blood
pressure has been normal for the past three months. Which instruction should the
nurse provide?
A. Obtain another antihypertensive prescription to avoid withdrawal symptoms.
B. Stop the medication and keep an accurate record of blood pressure.
C. Report any uncomfortable symptoms after stopping the medication.
D. Ask the healthcare provider about tapering the drug dose over the next week.
Correct
Although the healthcare provider discontinued the propranolol, measures to prevent
rebound cardiac excitation, such as progressively reducing the dose over one to two
weeks (C), should be recommended to prevent rebound tachycardia, hypertension,
and ventricular dysrhythmias. Abrupt cessation (A and B) of the beta-blocking agent
may precipitate tachycardia and rebound hypertension, so gradual weaning should be
recommended. (D) is not indicated.

3. A client who is taking clonidine (Catapres, Duraclon) reports drowsiness. Which
additional assessment should the nurse make?
A. Has the client experienced constipation recently?
B. Did the client miss any doses of the medication?
C. How long has the client been taking the medication? Correct
D. Does the client use any tobacco products?
Drowsiness can occur in the early weeks of treatment with clonidine and with
continued use becomes less intense, so the length of time the client has been on the
medication (A) provides information to direct additional instruction. (B, C, and D) are
not relevant.
4.ID: 6974873590
The nurse is preparing to administer atropine, an anticholinergic, to a client who is
scheduled for a cholecystectomy. The client asks the nurse to explain the reason for
the prescribed medication. What response is best for the nurse to provide?
A. Provide a more rapid induction of anesthesia.
B. Induce relaxation before induction of anesthesia.
C. Decrease the risk of bradycardia during surgery. Correct
D. Minimize the amount of analgesia needed postoperatively.

Atropine may be prescribed preoperatively to increase the automaticity of the
sinoatrial node and prevent a dangerous reduction in heart rate (B) during surgical
anesthesia. (A, C and D) do not address the therapeutic action of atropine use
perioperatively.
5.ID: 6974876286
An 80-year-old client is given morphine sulphate for postoperative pain. Which
concomitant medication should the nurse question that poses a potential development
of urinary retention in this geriatric client?
A. Antacids.
B. Tricyclic antidepressants. Correct
C. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory agents.
D. Insulin.
Drugs with anticholinergic properties, such as tricyclic antidepressants (C), can
exacerbate urinary retention associated with opioids in the older client. Although
tricyclic antidepressants and antihistamines with opioids can exacerbate urinary
retention, the concurrent use of (A and B) with opioids do not. Nonsteroidal
antiinflammatory agents (D) can increase the risk for bleeding, but do not increase
urinary retention with opioids (D).

6.ID: 6974873559
A client with osteoarthritis is given a new prescription for a nonsteroidal
antiinflammatory drug (NSAID). The client asks the nurse, "How is this medication
different from the acetaminophen I have been taking?" Which information about the
therapeutic action of NSAIDs should the nurse provide?
A. Are less expensive.
B. Provide antiinflammatory response. Correct
C. Increase hepatotoxic side effects.
D. Cause gastrointestinal bleeding.
Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) have antiinflammatory properties (B),
which relieves pain associated with osteoarthritis and differs from acetaminophen, a
non-narcotic analgesic and antipyretic. (A) does not teach the client about the
medication's actions. Although NSAIDs are irritating to the gastrointestinal (GI) system
and can cause GI bleeding (C), instructions to take with food in the stomach to
manage this as an expected side effect should be included, but this does not answer
the client's question. Acetaminophen is potentially hepatotoxic (D), not NSAIDs.
7.ID: 6974876262

Loading page 6...

A client with cancer has a history of alcohol abuse and is taking acetaminophen
(Tylenol) for pain. Which organ function is most important for the nurse to monitor?
A. Cardiorespiratory.
B. Liver. Correct
C. Sensory.
D. Kidney.
Acetaminophen and alcohol are both metabolized in the liver. This places the client at
risk for hepatotoxicity, so monitoring liver (A) function is the most important
assessment because the combination of acetaminophen and alcohol, even in
moderate amounts, can cause potentially fatal liver damage. Other non-narcotic
analgesics, such as n onsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), are more likely
to promote adverse renal effects (B). Acetaminophen does not place the client at risk
for toxic reactions related to (C or D).
8.ID: 6974875110
The nurse obtains a heart rate of 92 and a blood pressure of 110/76 prior to
administering a scheduled dose of verapamil (Calan) for a client with atrial flutter.
Which action should the nurse implement?
A. Give intravenous (IV) calcium gluconate.

Loading page 7...

B. Withhold the drug and notify the healthcare provider.
C. Administer the dose as prescribed. Correct
D. Recheck the vital signs in 30 minutes and then administer the dose.
Verapamil slows sinoatrial (SA) nodal automaticity, delays atrioventricular (AV) nodal
conduction, which slows the ventricular rate, and is used to treat atrial flutter, so (A)
should be implemented, based on the client's heart rate and blood pressure. (B and
C) are not indicated. (D) delays the administration of the scheduled dose.
9.ID: 6974873583
A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Type 2 diabetes mellitus and
influenza. Which categories of illness should the nurse develop goals for the client's
plan of care?
A. One chronic and one acute illness. Correct
B. Two acute illnesses.
C. One acute and one infectious illness.
D. Two chronic illnesses.
The plan of care should include goals that are specific for chronic and acute illnesses.
Adult-onset diabetes is a life-long chronic disease, whereas influenza is an acute

Loading page 8...

illness with a short term duration (C). (A, B, and D) do not include the correct duration
categories for this situation.
10.ID: 6974877914
Following an emergency Cesarean delivery, the nurse encourages the new mother to
breastfeed her newborn. The client asks why she should breastfeed now. Which
information should the nurse provide?
A. Stimulate contraction of the uterus. Correct
B. Initiate the lactation process.
C. Facilitate maternal-infant bonding.
D. Prevent neonatal hypoglycemia.
When the infant suckles at the breast, oxytocin is released by the posterior pituitary to
stimulates the "letdown" reflex, which causes the release of colostrum, and contracts
the uterus (C) to prevent uterine hemorrhage. (A and B) do not support the client's
need in the immediate period after the emergency delivery. Although maternal-
newborn bonding (D) is facilitated by early breastfeeding, the priority is uterine
contraction stimulation.
11.ID: 6974875104

Loading page 9...

Which intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care for a female client with
severe postpartum depression who is admitted to the inpatient psychiatric unit?
A. Restrict visitors who irritate the client.
B. Full rooming-in for the infant and mother.
C. Supervised and guided visits with infant. Correct
D. Daily visits with her significant other.
Structured visits (C) provide an opportunity for the mother and infant to bond and
should be facilitated and encouraged according to the client's pace of progress. (A) is
unrealistic and may not be safe for the baby or the client. (B) is an unrealistic
expectation. Although daily visits may provide support, the significant other may not
be able to be there every day (D) based on other family responsibilities.
12.ID: 6974873535
A 16-year-old male client is admitted to the hospital after falling off a bike and
sustaining a fractured bone. The healthcare provider explains the surgery needed to
immobilize the fracture. Which action should be implemented to obtain a valid
informed consent?
A. Obtain the permission of the custodial parent for the surgery. Correct
B. Notify the non-custodial parent to also sign a consent form.

Loading page 10...

C. Instruct the client sign the consent before giving medications.
D. Obtain the signature of the client’s stepfather for the surgery.
The client is a minor and cannot legally sign his own consent unless he is an
emancipated minor, so the consent should be obtained from the guardian for this
client, which is the custodial parent (B). (A) is not a legal option. A stepparent is not a
legal guardian for a minor unless the child has been adopted by the stepparent (C).
The non-custodial parent does not need to co-sign this form (D).
13.ID: 6974876258
During a client assessment, the client says, "I can't walk very well." Which action
should the nurse implement first?
A. Predict the likelihood of the outcome.
B. Consider alternatives.
C. Choose the most successful approach.
D. Identify the problem. Correct
The sequential steps in problem-solving are to first identify the problem (B), then
consider alternatives (C), consider outcomes of the alternatives (D), predict the
likelihood of the outcomes occurring, and choose the alternative with the best chance
of success (A).

Loading page 11...

14.ID: 6974875112
The nurse identifies a client's needs and formulates the nursing problem of,
"Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements, related to mental impairment and
decreased intake, as evidenced by increasing confusion and weight loss of more than
30 pounds over the last 6 months." Which short-term goal is best for this client?
A. Verbalize understanding of plan and of intention to eat meals.
B. Eat 50% of six small meals each day by the end of one week. Correct
C. Meals prepared during hospitalization will be fed by the nurse.
D. Demonstrate progressive weight gain toward the ideal weight.
Short-term goals should be realistic and attainable and should have a timeline of 7 to
10 days before discharge. (A) meets those criteria. (B) is nurse-oriented. (C) may be
beyond the capabilities of a confused client. (D) is a long-term goal.
15.ID: 6974873569
A male client is angry and is leaving the hospital against medical advice (AMA). The
client demands to take his chart with him and states the chart is "his" and he doesn' t
want any more contact with the hospital. How should the nurse respond?

Loading page 12...

A. This hospital does not need to keep it if you are leaving and not
returning here.
B. Because you are leaving against medical advice, you may not have
your chart.
C. The information in your chart is confidential and cannot leave this
facility legally.
D. The chart is the property of the hospital but I will see that a copy is
made for you. Correct
The chart is the property of the facility, but the client has a legal right to the
information in it, even if he is leaving AMA, so a copy of the record (D) should be
provided. The client does not lose his legal rights to his medical record if he leaves
AMA (A). The medical record is confidential, but the hospital protects the client's
privacy by not allowing unauthorized access to the record, so the hospital may
provide the client with a copy (B). The hospital must maintain records of the care
provided and should not release the original record (C).
16.ID: 6974877906

Loading page 13...

The nurse manager is assisting a nurse with improving organizational skills and time
management. Which nursing activity is the priority in pre-planning a schedule for
selected nursing activities in the daily assignment?
A. Tracheostomy tube suctioning.
B. Medication administration. Correct
C. Colostomy care instruction.
D. Client personal hygiene.
In developing organizational skills, medication administration is based on a prescribed
schedule that is time-sensitive in the delivery of nursing care and should be the
priority in scheduling nursing activities in a daily assignment. Although suctioning a
client's tracheostomy takes precedence in providing care, the client's PRN need is
less amenable to a preselected schedule. (B and C) can be scheduled around time-
sensitive delivery of care.
17.ID: 6974876220
What nursing delivery of care provides the nurse to plan and direct care of a group of
clients over a 24-hour period?
A. Case management.
B. Team nursing.

Loading page 14...

C. Primary nursing. Correct
D. Functional nursing.
Primary nursing (B) is a model of delivery of care where a nurse is accountable for
planning care for clients around the clock. Functional nursing (D) is a care delivery
model that provides client care by assignment of functions or tasks. Team nursing (A)
is a care delivery model where assignments to a group of clients are provided by a
mixed-staff team. Case management (C) is the delivery of care that uses a
collaborative process of assessment, planning, facilitation, and advocacy for options
and services to meet an individual's health needs and promote quality cost-effective
outcomes.
18.ID: 6974876280
Two unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) are arguing on the unit about who
deserves to take a break first. What is the most important basic guideline that the
nurse should follow in resolving the conflict?
A. Require the UAPs to reach a compromise.
B. Weigh the consequences of each possible solution.
C. Encourage the two to view the humor of the conflict.
D. Deal with issues and not personalities. Correct

Loading page 15...

Dealing with the issues which are concrete, not personalities (A) which include
emotional reactions, is one of seven important key behaviors in managing conflict. (B,
C, and D) do not resolve the conflict when diverse opinions are expressed
emotionally.
19.ID: 6974873531
The nurse is caring for a client who is unable to void. The plan of care establishes an
objective for the client to ingest at least 1000 mL of fluid between 7:00 am and 3:30
pm. Which client response should the nurse document that indicates a successful
outcome?
A. Demonstrates adequate fluid intake and output.
B. Verbalizes abdominal comfort without pressure.
C. Drinks 240 mL of fluid five times during the shift. Correct
D. Voids at least 1000 mL between 7 am and 3 pm.
The nurse should evaluate the client's outcome by observing the client's performance
of each expected behavior, so drinking 240 mL of fluid five or six times during the shift
(D) indicates a fluid intake of 1200 to 1440 mL, which meets the objective of at least
1000 mL during the designated period. (A) uses the term "adequate," which is not

Loading page 16...

15 more pages available. Scroll down to load them.

Preview Mode

100%

Study Now!

XY-Copilot AI

Unlimited Access

Secure Payment

Instant Access

24/7 Support

Document Chat

Document Details

Subject

Health Education Systems, Inc.

HESI Trauma Care Practice Exam With Answers (129 Solved Questions)

Study Now!

Document Details

Related Documents

Nursing School Entrance Exams: HESI A2 / NLN PAX-RN / PSB-RN / RNEE / TEAS, 6th Edition (2020)

HESI Comprehensive Medical Surgical Exit Exam with Answers (839 Solved Questions)

HESI Evolve Leadership/Management Practice Exam with Answers (114 Solved Questions)

HESI Mental Health Exit Exam With Answers (58 Solved Questions)

2023-2024 HESI RN Pharmacology Actual Exam With Answers (180 Solved Questions)

HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam With Answers (102 Solved Questions)

2024 HESI Mental Health Actual Exam With Answers (151 Solved Questions)

2022 HESI Mathematics A2 Exam With Answers (48 Solved Questions)

HESI Pharmacology Evolve Exam With Answers (125 Solved Questions)

HESI Grammar A2 Exam Testbank With Answers (50 Solved Questions)

Company

Explore

Study Tools