Princeton Review AP English Language and Composition Premium Prep, 18th Edition: 8 Practice Tests + Complete Content Review + Strategies and Techniques (2024) (2023)

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Contents
Get More (Free) Content
Part I: Using This Book to Improve Your AP Score
Preview: Your Knowledge, Your Expectations
Your Guide to Using This Book
How to Begin
Part II: Practice Test 1
Practice Test 1
Practice Test 1: Diagnostic Answer Key and Explanations
How to Score Practice Test 1
Part III: About the AP English Language and
Composition Exam
The Structure of the AP English Language and Composition Exam
How the AP English Language and Composition Exam Is Scored
Overview of Content Topics
How AP Exams Are Used
Other Resources
Designing Your Study Plan
Part IV: Test-Taking Strategies for the AP English
Language and Composition Exam
Preview
1 How to Approach Multiple-Choice Questions
2 Using Time Effectively to Maximize Points
3 Pacing Drills
4 How to Approach the Essays: Basic Principles
5 How to Approach the Synthesis Essay
6 How to Approach the Rhetorical Analysis Essay
7 How to Approach the Argument Essay
Reflect
Part V: Content and Skill Review for the AP English
Language and Composition Exam

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Once you’ve registered, you can…
• Get our take on any recent or pending updates to the AP English
Language and Composition Exam
• Take a full-length practice PSAT, SAT, and/or ACT
• Find three additional practice tests
• Get valuable advice about the college application process, including
tips for writing a great essay and where to apply for financial aid
• Use our searchable rankings of The Best 389 Colleges to find out more
information about your dream school, if you’re still choosing between
colleges
• Access comprehensive study guides and a vocabulary list
• Check to see whether there have been any corrections or updates to
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PREVIEW: YOUR KNOWLEDGE, YOUR
EXPECTATIONS
Your route to a high score on the AP English Language and Composition Exam
depends a lot on how you plan to use this book. Respond to the following questions.
1. Rate your level of confidence about your knowledge of the content tested by
the AP English Language and Composition Exam.
A. Very confident—I know it all
B. I’m pretty confident, but there are topics for which I could use help
C. Not confident—I need quite a bit of support
D. I’m not sure
2. 2. Choose your goal score for the AP English Language and Composition
Exam.
5 4 3 2 1 I’m not sure yet
3. What do you expect to learn from this book? Choose all that apply to you.
A. A general overview of the test and what to expect
B. Strategies for how to approach the test
C. The content tested by this exam
D. I’m not sure yet
Not Sure Yet?
If you answered these three questions with “I’m not
sure,” you may need more time before you take the
AP Exam. But don’t be discouraged! Review the
content chapters before you take the practice tests
in this book and you’ll see improvement in your
confidence and even your test scores.
YOUR GUIDE TO USING THIS BOOK
This book is organized to provide as much—or as little—support as you need, so you
can use this book in whatever way will be most helpful to improving your score on
the AP English Language and Composition Exam.
Room to Write
On the actual test, you will be given space along
with the bubble sheet to record your answers for
each free-response question. You should use scrap
paper for the free-responses on these practice tests
(diagrams that need to be completed have been
included in this book). After you’ve gotten a hang of
the timing, be aware of how much space each

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response is taking up, in case you need to write in
smaller print or use fewer words on the test.
• The remainder of Part I provides guidance on how to use this book and helps
you determine your strengths and weaknesses.
• Part II of this book contains your first practice test, a Diagnostic Answer Key,
detailed answers and explanations for each question, and a scoring guide. (A
bubble sheet is included after the last test and additional ones can be printed
from your online student tools.) This is where you should begin your test
preparation in order to realistically determine:
◦ your starting point right now
◦ which question types you’re ready for and which you might need to
practice
◦ which content topics you are familiar with and which you will want to
carefully review
Once you have nailed down your strengths and weaknesses with regard to this
exam, you can focus your test preparation, build a study plan, and be efficient
with your time. Our Diagnostic Answer Key will assist you with this process.
• Part III of this book:
◦ provides information about the structure, scoring, and content of the AP
English Language and Composition Exam
◦ will help you to make a study plan
◦ points you toward additional resources
• Part IV explores various strategies, including:
◦ how to tackle multiple-choice questions
◦ how to write effective essays
◦ how to manage your time to maximize the number of points available to
you
• Part V of this book is a review of the academic content and skills that will give
you an edge on the AP English Language and Composition Exam.
• Parts VI and VII contain Practice Tests 2–5, their answers and explanations.
(Bubble sheets can be printed from your online student tools.) If you skipped
Practice Test 1, we recommend that you do all the tests (with at least a day or
two between each of them) so that you can track your progress. Additionally,
this will help to identify any external issues: if you get a certain type of
question wrong each time, you probably need to review it. If you got it wrong
only once, you may have run out of time or been distracted by something. In
either case, this will allow you to focus on the factors that caused the
discrepancy in scores and to be as prepared as possible on the day of the test.

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• Online Resources contain three additional practice tests. Follow the study
guide based on the amount of time you have to study for your exam. Use the
key terms to improve your vocabulary by creating flashcards to help you learn
words you might see on the test.
Once you register your book online, you can print
the bubble sheets and scoring worksheets for your
practice tests!
Remember that these worksheets are meant to
serve as a rough guideline only. AP Exam scores
are weighted according to a statistical process that
varies slightly every year based on how students
perform on the exam, but you can use the
worksheets to approximate your score.
You may choose to use some parts of this book over others, or you may work through
the entire book. Your approach will depend on your needs and how much time you
have. Let’s now look at how to make this determination.
HOW TO BEGIN
1. Take Practice Test 1
Before you can decide how to use this book, you need to take a practice test.
Doing so will give you insight into your strengths and weaknesses, and the
test will also help you create an effective study plan. If you’re feeling test-
phobic, remind yourself that a practice test is a tool for diagnosing yourself—
it’s not how well you do that matters, but how you use information gleaned
from your performance to guide your preparation.
So, before you read further, take Practice Test 1 starting at this page of this
book. Be sure to do so in one sitting, following the instructions that appear
before the test.
2. Check Your Answers
Using the Diagnostic Answer Key on this page, follow our three-step process
to identify your strengths and weaknesses with regard to the tested topics.
This will help you determine which content review chapters to prioritize
when studying this book. Don’t worry about the explanations for now, and
don’t worry about why you missed questions. We’ll get to that soon.
3. Reflect on the Test
After you take your first test, respond to the following questions:
• How much time did you spend on the multiple-choice questions?
• How much time did you spend on each essay?
• How many multiple-choice questions did you miss?

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• Do you feel you had the knowledge to address the subject matter of the
essays?
• Do you feel you wrote well-organized, thoughtful essays?
4. Read Part III and Complete the Self-Evaluation
Part III provides information on how the test is structured and scored. As you
read Part III, re-evaluate your answers to the questions above. At the end of
Part III, you will revisit and refine the questions you answered above. You
will then be able to make a study plan, based on your needs and time
available, that will allow you to use this book most effectively.
5. Engage with Parts IV and V as Needed
Notice the word engage. You’ll get more out of this book if you use it
intentionally than if you read it passively, hoping for an improved score
through osmosis.
The Strategy chapters will help you think about your approach to the question
types on this exam. Part IV opens with a reminder to think about how you
approach questions now, and closes with a reflection section asking you to
think about how or whether you will change your approach in the future.
The Terms and Modes chapters in Part V are designed to provide a review of
the terminology you are likely to encounter on the exam, and will help you to
identify the rhetorical fallacies and modes used in both test passages and
student essays. You will have the opportunity to assess your knowledge of the
content of each chapter through test-appropriate questions and a reflection
section.
6. Take More Practice Tests and Assess Your Performance
Once you feel you have developed the strategies you need and gained the
knowledge you lacked, you should take Practice Test 2, which starts at this
page. You should do so in one sitting, following the instructions at the
beginning of the test.
When you complete the test, check your answers to the multiple-choice
sections against the answer key on this page. If possible, find a teacher to read
your essays and provide feedback.
Once you have taken the test, reflect on what areas you still need to work on,
and revisit the chapters in this book that address them. Through this type of
reflection and engagement, you will continue to improve. Then, take Practice
Tests 3, 4, and 5 in this book and Practice Tests A, B, and C online.
7. Keep Working
As we will discuss in Part III, there are other resources available to you,
including a wealth of information on AP Students:

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Section I
The Exam
AP® English Language and Composition Exam
SECTION I: Multiple-Choice Questions
DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.
At a Glance
Total Time
1 hour
Number of Questions
45
Percent of Total Grade
45%
Writing Instrument
Pencil required
Instructions
Section I of this examination contains 45 multiple-choice questions. Fill in only the
ovals for numbers 1 through 45 on your answer sheet.
Indicate all of your answers to the multiple-choice questions on the answer sheet.
No credit will be given for anything written in this exam booklet, but you may use
the booklet for notes or scratch work. After you have decided which of the
suggested answers is best, completely fill in the corresponding oval on the answer
sheet. Give only one answer to each question. If you change an answer, be sure that
the previous mark is erased completely. Here is a sample question and answer.
Sample Question
Chicago is a
(A) state
(B) city
(C) country
(D) continent
(E) village
Sample Answer

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Use your time effectively, working as quickly as you can without losing accuracy.
Do not spend too much time on any one question. Go on to other questions and
come back to the ones you have not answered if you have time. It is not expected
that everyone will know the answers to all the multiple-choice questions.
About Guessing
Many candidates wonder whether or not to guess the answers to questions about
which they are not certain. Multiple-choice scores are based on the number of
questions answered correctly. Points are not deducted for incorrect answers, and no
points are awarded for unanswered questions. Because points are not deducted for
incorrect answers, you are encouraged to answer all multiple-choice questions. On
any questions you do not know the answer to, you should eliminate as many
choices as you can, and then select the best answer among the remaining choices.

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ENGLISH LANGUAGE AND COMPOSITION
SECTION I
Time—1 hour
Directions: This part consists of selections from prose works and questions on their
content, form, and style. After reading each passage, choose the best answer to each
question and completely fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet.
Note: Pay particular attention to the requirements of questions that contain the words
NOT, LEAST, or EXCEPT.
Questions 1–12. Read the following passage carefully before you choose your
answers.
The following is excerpted from a political leader’s 1836 address to the British
Parliament’s House of Commons.
1. The author is petitioning for famine relief in the form of an immediate government loan.
£20,000,000 was the exact amount the Treasury gave to slave owners when the British
government outlawed slavery in the Caribbean.
2. In 1825, the British House passed a bill abolishing the author’s Catholic Association.
3. derogatory term for a Catholic
Click here to view this content as text.
1. Which of the following best describes the writer’s exigence in the passage?
(A) The lack of interest among members of the British parliament to consider
the rights of Irish people under common law
(B) A growing Irish nationalism in rebellion to British rule
(C) The need for equal justice for the citizens of Ireland under British rule
(D) Widening disparities between the wealthy and the poor in Ireland
(E) Irish resentment of heavy taxation under British rule
2. In the opening paragraph (lines 1–8), the writer provides two possible
outcomes to the problems in Ireland primarily to
(A) suggest to his audience that one of those outcomes is more fair-minded
than the other
(B) explain why the British are reluctant to extend equal treatment to Ireland
(C) emphasize the influence of Irish nationalism on his political thinking
(D) suggest that the rights of the Irish people had been steadily eroding over
time
(E) highlight the atrocities committed against the Irish people under British
rule

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3. In the second paragraph (lines 9–24), which of the following best
characterizes the writer’s position on the relationship between Ireland and
Britain?
(A) Because the British aristocracy is so disconnected from the needs of
ordinary people, political equality can only be achieved through
extortion.
(B) Because the British parliament refuses to give any money to the Irish
people, the author will settle for merely equal justice on behalf of his
countrymen.
(C) By adopting the methods suggested by the author, the Irish people have
managed to secure most of their basic liberties.
(D) Although the British parliament pretends to listen to the needs of the Irish
people, Britain will never do justice to Ireland without extortion.
(E) Although Ireland has made some progress toward greater equality, the
author believes there is more action needed.
4. In context, lines 9–15 (“England never…hired advocate”) show that the
writer’s tone is
(A) Patronizing, yet stalwart
(B) Ingratiating, yet proud
(C) Somewhat bitter, yet resolute
(D) Sympathetic, yet irreverent
(E) Detached, yet determined
5. In the third paragraph, the writer mentions “the year 1825” (line 26) in order
to
(A) remind the audience of a prior attempt at reform that was resisted by the
British parliament
(B) show that, since emancipation had failed, he must settle for reform
(C) demonstrate the foolishness of the British parliament in responding to their
subjects’ demands
(D) point out the key distinction between being foolish and being convinced
(E) champion his own efforts at political reform
6. Based on the overall context of this passage, the “emancipation” described in
the third paragraph was most likely
(A) an Act of Parliament which allowed Roman Catholics to become members
of the British House of Commons
(B) an Irish law which forbade the keeping of slaves or indentured servants

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(C) a law which forbade Catholics in Ireland to be represented by members of
their own faith in Parliament
(D) a law which gave all Irish people the right to vote
(E) an end to Irish political grievances against the British parliament
7. In the fourth paragraph (lines 38–51), the writer mentions his own power
primarily to
(A) question the motives of those who are hearing his speech
(B) highlight the irony of the Parliament’s resistance to meeting the needs of
the Irish people
(C) affirm the inevitable success of his political efforts
(D) defend his own political influence in the face of criticism
(E) challenge the listeners to accept his role as primary spokesperson for the
Irish people
8. In the context of the passage, all of the following phrases refer to similar
ideas EXCEPT
(A) “justice” (line 5)
(B) “concessions” (line 12)
(C) “emancipation” (line 28)
(D) “reform” (line 35)
(E) “power and influence” (lines 43–44)
9. In the last paragraph, the speaker implores his listeners to
(A) provide an explanation for why the Irish people have not yet received
equal justice under the law
(B) explore two distasteful alternatives and choose one of them over the other
(C) accept that conflict is inevitable when negotiating political compromise
(D) set aside their personal aversion to his character in favor of equal justice
for the people of Ireland
(E) join him in the struggle for Irish liberation
10. Elsewhere, in a letter written to a friend, the author is quoted as saying:
“The Protestants of Ireland…are political Protestants, that is, Protestants by
reason of their participation in political power.”
This quote best supports the arguments made in which of the following
paragraphs?
(A) Paragraph 1
(B) Paragraph 2

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(C) Paragraph 3
(D) Paragraph 4
(E) Paragraph 5
11. Each of the following political actions or opinions would be consistent with
the sentiments expressed in this speech EXCEPT
(A) opposition to slavery in other countries
(B) promoting freedom of religion
(C) the use of violence in political activism
(D) allowing the use of both Irish Gaelic and English in public schools
(E) the opposition to tenant evictions by aristocratic landowners
12. Throughout the passage, the writer’s tone suggests that he
(A) acknowledges past failures, but believes in the possibility of future
success
(B) is triumphant about past successes, but is hungry for more advances
(C) is bitter about the British aristocracy, but determined to win over their
approval
(D) believes success is unlikely, but must nevertheless be pursued
(E) is eager for advancement, but fatigued from failure
Questions 13–24. Read the following passage carefully before you choose your
answers.
This passage is excerpted from a speech delivered to the United Nations in Paris,
France, on September 28, 1948.
Click here to view this content as text.
13. Which of the following is most likely the reason why the author delivered this
speech to the United Nations?
(A) She was advocating for the creation of universal standards of human rights
by the members of the United Nations.
(B) She wished to affirm the United Nations continuing commitment to the
defense of human rights in all its member nations.
(C) As the only female member of the United States delegation, she wished to
assert her power to influence the United Nations in all its endeavors.
(D) She wished to counteract the Soviet influence on standards of human
rights in the United States.
(E) She wished to surrender United States’ sovereign powers to the will of the
United Nations Human Rights Council.

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14. The speaker’s overall purpose in the first paragraph is to
(A) capture the listeners’ attention
(B) demonstrate acknowledgment of her listeners’ diverse backgrounds
(C) express satisfaction for the advancements already made for human rights
(D) inspire faith in a better future for the world
(E) call her listeners to direct action
15. In the first paragraph, the author makes references to the “Declaration of the
Rights of Man” and the “French Revolution” for all of the following reasons
EXCEPT
(A) to refer to important historical events with which most in her audience
would be familiar
(B) to cite political examples of freedom and human rights installed in legal
documents
(C) to establish herself as educated about the subject matter at hand
(D) to cite examples of very different interpretations of democracy and human
rights
(E) to explain why she has chosen to deliver her speech in France
16. Throughout the passage, the writer equates “human rights” with all of the
following EXCEPT
(A) employment for all
(B) freedom
(C) the United States Bill of Rights
(D) democracy
(E) financial assistance to the poor
17. In line 50, “vapid” most nearly means
(A) meaningless
(B) boring
(C) lively
(D) interesting
(E) porous
18. In the context of the speech, the author cites the “right to work” in line 40 as
an example of
(A) a basic human right which must be protected
(B) the assignment of workers to certain tasks by government force or
coercion

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(C) a term which may have different interpretations in different societies
(D) a euphemism for a slave society
(E) a phrase that is meaningless without government action to ensure its
implementation
19. In the final paragraph, how does the author imply that her audience may reach
a consensus on the issue of human rights?
(A) She suggests that nations in disagreement with her stance should
acquiesce to the wishes of the majority.
(B) She warns of the danger of persistent differences of opinion on the matters
at hand.
(C) She acknowledges the difficulty of agreeing on core principles, but
remains confident in the possibility of compromise.
(D) She suggests that the differences between nations are insignificant to their
common goals.
(E) She asserts that the United Nations is the only place where real agreement
between the nations involved can be had.
20. In a different excerpt from this speech is the following:
“People who have glimpsed freedom will never be content until they have
secured it for themselves.…People who continue to be denied the respect to
which they are entitled as human beings will not acquiesce forever in such
denial.”
The above quote is most related to which of the ideas expressed in this
speech?
(A) “the scene of the greatest historic battles between freedom and
tyranny,” (lines 10–11)
(B) “We must not be confused about what freedom is.” (line 12)
(C) “‘democracy’ means one thing to the U.S.S.R. and another the U.S.A. and,
I know, in France.” (lines 23–24)
(D) “a decision brought about by public opinion which came as a result of the
great depression” (lines 58–59)
(E) “The place to discuss the issue of human rights is in the forum of the
United Nations.” (lines 65–66)
21. World War II ended in 1945 just before the creation of the United Nations,
and the author delivered this speech in 1948. In keeping with these themes, all
of the following are possible reasons for the timing of these events EXCEPT
(A) The United Nations wished to prevent a future war by addressing the issue
of global human rights.

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(B) The author wanted to prevent a future war by addressing the issue of
human rights at the United Nations.
(C) The author was already well-known for her commitment to social issues.
(D) After their defeat in World War II, the Soviet Union embraced democracy
by joining the United Nations and adopting its tenets on human rights.
(E) Despite their alliance during World War II, the United States and the
Soviet Union had divergent views on freedom and human rights, a
challenge for the United Nations to reconcile.
22. Suppose that an American politician wished to cite principles outlined in this
speech to further domestic civil rights legislation. Which assertion would be
most consistent with its sentiments?
(A) Civil rights legislation has been successfully implemented in other
countries; therefore, it should be implemented in the United States.
(B) With proper dialogue and consent, civil rights can be implemented
successfully in both foreign countries and in the United States.
(C) The United States has learned valuable civil rights lessons from studying
the practices of other countries.
(D) The United States has civil rights policies that should be adopted by other
countries.
(E) Any attempt at civil rights must be discussed by all parties affected, or else
it is doomed to failure.
23. All of the following quotes by famous Americans are consistent with the
themes of this speech EXCEPT
(A) “The battle for human rights—at home and abroad—is far from over.”
(B) “We owe it to ourselves and to those who sacrificed so much for our
liberty to keep America in the forefront of this battle [for human rights].”
(C) “Freedom means the supremacy of human rights everywhere.”
(D) “The rights of every man are diminished when the rights of one man are
threatened.”
(E) “Knowledge makes a man unfit to be a slave.”
24. Which of the following most accurately represents the author’s views on
freedom as expressed in the speech?
(A) With great freedom comes great responsibility.
(B) Freedom is essential to the preservation of human rights.
(C) Even though freedom may lead to hunger and unemployment, it is an
essential component of human rights.
(D) When freedom and human rights conflict, freedom should prevail.
(E) Democracy is defined as the maximization of human freedom.

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Questions 25–31 are based on the following passage.
The passage below is a draft.
(1) Instantly, almost 50 years since her death, her hard work and
fabulous novels still have much to teach the modern audience. (2) She
bravely overcame the challenges she faced and demonstrated that
perseverance makes anything possible.
(3) Hurston ascribed much of her deeply individualistic
personality to the experience of growing up in Eatonville, Florida. (4)
The town was unique in that it was particularly hot in the summer, but
mild at other times of the year. (5) Hurston always said growing up in
a community totally separate from the larger white society allowed
her a freedom and independence not available to everyone in the
south.
(6) Hurston began her undergraduate studies at Howard
University, but her obvious intelligence and talent soon earned her a
scholarship to Barnard College in New York City. (7) Moving north
in the 1920s thrust her into the midst of the Harlem Renaissance, a
Black cultural movement that spawned exceptional achievements in
literature, art, and music. (8) Interacting with the likes of Langston
Hughes, W.E.B. DuBois, Billie Holiday, and Duke Ellington, Hurston
developed her skills as a writer and published numerous short stories
and poems. (9) The most influential work that came to define her
career grew out of her attempt to capture the Black experience. (10)
That novel, called Their Eyes Were Watching God, traced three
generations of a family living in Eatonville. (11) Her authentic
representation of the southern dialect caused her Harlem Renaissance
contemporaries to belittle the work for what they saw as its
propagation of inaccurate stereotypes. (12) Hurston, however,
remained true to her project, convinced that the accuracy of her
representation would ultimately prevail over the political pressures
her peers sought to inflict upon her.
(13) History has shown that Hurston was right. (14) Modern
critics admire her authentic and skillful representation of the language
as well as her realistic portrayal of daily life in the early twentieth
century. (15) She is universally applauded as one of the best writers of
her era and ranked with Toni Morrison, Maya Angelou, and Alice
Walker as one of the most important African American writers of all
time.
25. Which of the following sentences, if placed before sentence 1, would both
convey the complexity of Zora Neale Hurston’s career and provide the most
effective introduction to the essay?

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(A) The granddaughter of a Baptist preacher, Black writer Zora Neale Hurston
was born on January 7, 1891 in Notasulga, Alabama.
(B) Zora Neale Hurston proves to be a study in contrasts: a Black writer
reaching a white audience, a woman struggling in a man’s profession,
and an independent thinker living in a conformist era.
(C) Although Zora Neale Hurston was largely ignored and marginalized
during her lifetime, academics have recently begun to pay closer
attention to this writer who has so influenced subsequent generations of
Black writers.
(D) In 1918, Zora Neale Hurston was admitted to Howard University, a
historically Black college in Washington, DC, was one of the original
members of the Zeta Phi Beta Black sorority, and later founded The
Hilltop, the university’s student newspaper.
(E) When the young Black writer Zora Neale Hurston arrived in New York
City in 1925, she naturally befriended the luminaries active in the
Harlem Renaissance, such as Langston Hughes and W.E.B. Dubois, and
in a short time became one of its most respected members.
26. The writer wants to change the beginning of sentence 1 (reproduced below) to
better set up a comparison within the paragraph and also wishes to create a
more objective tone in harmony with the rest of the essay.
Instantly, almost 50 years since her death, her hard work and fabulous novels
still have much to teach the modern audience.
Which version best accomplishes this goal?
(A) Presently, almost 50 years since her death, her hard work and fabulous
novels still have much to teach the modern audience.
(B) Currently, almost 50 years since her death, her tireless advocacy for civil
rights and her renowned novels still have much to teach the modern
audience.
(C) Now, almost 50 years since her death, her novels’ insights into the
African-American experience still have resonance with modern
audiences.
(D) At the present, almost 50 years since her death, her novels are beloved by
some and scorned by others.
(E) Almost 50 years since her death, her novels are praised by both academics
and modern audiences.
27. In sentence 4 (reproduced below), the writer wants to support the main idea
about Hurston conveyed in this paragraph.

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The town was unique in that it was particularly hot in the summer, but mild at
other times of the year.
Which version of the underlined text best accomplishes this goal?
(A) (as it is now)
(B) a fairly typical Florida small town, founded in the mid-nineteenth century.
(C) the first all-black town to be incorporated in the country.
(D) not yet in existence at the start of the Civil War.
(E) racially integrated, even at a time when Jim Crow laws reigned in the
South.
28. The writer wants to add the following sentence to the third paragraph to
provide additional explanation.
Billie Holiday’s music evokes such feeling and melancholy that it’s no
wonder she became so popular.
Where would the sentence best be placed?
(A) Before sentence 6
(B) After sentence 6
(C) After sentence 7
(D) After sentence 8
(E) Do not add the sentence.
29. Which sentence best exemplifies how Hurston’s work was viewed by her
contemporaries?
(A) Sentence 1
(B) Sentence 6
(C) Sentence 11
(D) Sentence 14
(E) Sentence 15
30. The writer has decided to divide the third paragraph into two parts. The best
place to add the new paragraph break would be at the beginning of sentence
(A) 9, because it would indicate that Hurston’s writing was most strongly
influenced by Langston Hughes.
(B) 9, because it would signal the essay’s shift in focus to one of Hurston’s
novels.
(C) 10, because all the remaining sentences in the paragraph provide a detailed
summary of the plot of Hurston’s novel.

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Princeton Review AP English Language and Composition Premium Prep, 18th Edition: 8 Practice Tests + Complete Content Review + Strategies and Techniques (2024) (2023)

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