Test Bank For Advanced Nutrition and Human Metabolism 7th Edition Test Bank

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Chapter 01 The Cell A Microcosm of Life
MULTICHOICE
1. Membrane lipid bilayers consist primarily of ____.
(A) phospholipids
(B) cholesterol
(C) proteins
(D) saturated fatty acids
Answer : (A)
2. Membrane proteins do not serve as ____.
(A) pumps
(B) detoxifiers
(C) receptors
(D) enzymes
Answer : (B)
3. What is the role of cholesterol in plasma membrane structure?
(A) to produce bile
(B) to regulate fluidity and permeability
(C) to reduce stability
(D) to produce hormones
Answer : (B)
4. Signals generated at one part of a cell are transmitted quickly to other parts of the cell due to the
interconnection of the cytosol and ____.
(A) glycoproteins
(B) filaments
(C) glycolipids
(D) integral proteins

Answer : (B)
5. The carbohydrate moieties of the plasma membrane glycoproteins and glycolipids are oriented
____.
(A) outwardly, away from the cytoplasmic matrix
(B) inwardly, toward the lumen
(C) equally inwardly and outwardly to maintain symmetry
(D) between the bilayers of the membranes
Answer : (A)
6. Proteins attached to the membrane through hydrophobic interactions and embedded in the
membrane are called ____.
(A) peripheral proteins
(B) rough endoplasmic reticula
(C) integral proteins
(D) Golgi apparatuses
Answer : (C)
7. In the cell structure, the ____ provides support and controls the movement of cell organelles.
(A) endoplasmic reticulum
(B) mitochondrion
(C) cytoskeleton
(D) matrix space
Answer : (C)
8. The fluid portion of the cytoplasmic matrix does not contain ____.
(A) amino acids
(B) glucose
(C) carbon dioxide
(D) urea
Answer : (D)

9. Enzymes of metabolic pathways within the cytoplasmic matrix are often oriented so that the
product of one enzyme is released in close proximity to the next enzyme for which it is a substrate,
to facilitate the velocity of the overall pathway. This arrangement includes enzymes of ____.
(A) beta-oxidation
(B) glycolysis
(C) ketone production
(D) the Krebs cycle
Answer : (B)
10. The organelle responsible for production of most of the metabolic energy (ATP) is the ____.
(A) Golgi apparatus
(B) endoplasmic reticulum
(C) nucleus
(D) mitochondrion
Answer : (D)
11. All components of the electron transport chain are embedded in the ____.
(A) mitochondrial inner membrane
(B) mitochondrial outer membrane
(C) mitochondrial matrix
(D) cytoplasmic matrix
Answer : (A)
12. In which organelle do the TCA cycle and fatty acid oxidation occur?
(A) Golgi apparatus
(B) nucleus
(C) microsomes
(D) mitochondrion
Answer : (D)
13. What is the major route for ATP production?

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(A) oxidative phosphorylation
(B) hydrolysis
(C) peroxidation
(D) transformation
Answer : (A)
14. Which organelle is capable of performing both fission and fusion?
(A) Golgi apparatus
(B) mitochondria
(C) rough endoplasmic reticulum
(D) nucleus
Answer : (B)
15. Genes contained in mitochondrial DNA are inherited only from the mother and code for ____.
(A) all proteins functioning within the mitochondrial matrix
(B) nonfunctional ancient proteins considered remnants of evolution
(C) proteins vital to the production of ATP
(D) antioxidant proteins
Answer : (C)
16. The cell organelle responsible for the initiation and regulation of most cellular activity is the
____.
(A) cytoplast
(B) nucleus
(C) mitochondrion
(D) nucleolus
Answer : (B)
17. In addition to the mitochondria, which organelle possesses an inner and outer membrane?
(A) lysosome

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(B) lysosome
(C) Golgi apparatus
(D) nucleus
Answer : (D)
18. Microtubule organization centers (MTOCs) on the outer nuclear membrane are associated with
which cellular process?
(A) oxidative phosphorylation
(B) electron transport
(C) mitosis
(D) protein synthesis
Answer : (C)
19. Encoded within the nuclear DNA of each cell is ____.
(A) the entire genome for that organism
(B) the genes coding for proteins needed by that particular cell in the organism
(C) chromatin
(D) a cell-specific histone
Answer : (A)
20. DNA in the nucleus is wrapped around ____.
(A) proteins called histones
(B) the nucleolus
(C) the nuclear envelope
(D) ribosomal RNA
Answer : (A)
21. Which nitrogenous base is unique to RNA?
(A) guanine
(B) uracil

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(C) thymine
(D) cytosine
Answer : (B)
22. Which enzyme is responsible for linking together the incoming nucleotides during DNA
replication?
(A) DNA ligase
(B) helicase
(C) DNA polymerase
(D) reverse transcriptase
Answer : (C)
23. Transcription is the process by which ____.
(A) the genetic information in a single strand of DNA makes a specific sequence of bases in a
messenger RNA (mRNA) chain
(B) genetic information in an mRNA molecule specifies the sequence of amino acids in the protein
product
(C) amino acids are linked together to form the primary structure of a protein
(D) the primary structure of a protein is folded several times to become the quaternary structure
Answer : (A)
24. Translation is the process by which ____.
(A) the genetic information (base sequence) in a single strand of DNA is used to specify a
complementary sequence of bases in an mRNA chain
(B) a daughter duplex DNA molecule that is identical to the parental duplex DNA is synthesized
(C) the polypeptide chain of the protein product is extended
(D) genetic information in an mRNA molecule specifies the sequence of amino acids in the protein
product
Answer : (D)
25. Elongation is the process by which ____.
(A) the mRNA strand is formed

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(B) peptide bonds are formed between aligned amino acids after the amino acids are positioned
(C) amino acids are activated by ATP at their carboxyl end
(D) activated amino acids are transferred to their specific tRNAs that contain the anticodon
complementary to each amino acid's codon
Answer : (A)
26. Transcription-level control mechanisms ____.
(A) determine the path by which mRNA can be translated into a polypeptide
(B) determine whether a particular mRNA is actually translated
(C) determine if a particular gene can be transcribed
(D) are driven by the interaction of tRNA and mRNA
Answer : (C)
27. MicroRNAs are small noncoding RNAs that ____.
(A) enhance gene expression by activating mRNA expression
(B) silence gene expression by binding to mRNA to inhibit translation
(C) modify gene expression by replacing specific nucleotides in mRNA
(D) mediate DNA production in a reverse direction
Answer : (B)
28. Which organelle is composed of an extensive network of membranous channels that connects
the nuclear membrane, the Golgi apparatus, and the plasma membrane?
(A) the lysosome
(B) the nucleolus
(C) the centrioles
(D) the endoplasmic reticulum
Answer : (D)
29. The smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER) is associated with ____.
(A) lipid synthesis
(B) protein synthesis

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(C) the calcium ion pump necessary for the contractile process
(D) ribosomes and cytochrome P450 enzymes
Answer : (A)
30. Which enzyme complex, used in metabolizing many drugs, is located on the rough endoplasmic
reticulum in liver cells?
(A) chromatins
(B) lysozymes
(C) cytochromes
(D) polymerases
Answer : (C)
31. What structural body is made up of flattened cisternae flanked by tubular networks and thought
to be an extension of the endoplasmic reticulum?
(A) nucleus
(B) cytoplasm
(C) lysosome
(D) Golgi apparatus
Answer : (D)
32. The Golgi apparatus is prominent in neurons and secretory cells and functions ____.
(A) to stop the synthesis of proteins that may need carbohydrate additions
(B) to add polysaccharide or lipid moieties to polypeptides
(C) only for constitutive secretion of proteins
(D) only for regulated secretion of proteins
Answer : (B)
33. Which organelle prevents proteins that have not reached their normal tertiary or quaternary
structure from reaching the cell surface?
(A) the endoplasmic reticulum
(B) the Golgi apparatus

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(C) the nucleus
(D) the mitochondrion
Answer : (A)
34. The organelle that serves as the digestive system for the cell is the ____.
(A) polysome
(B) endosome
(C) lysosome
(D) ribosome
Answer : (C)
35. The organelle that detoxifies by oxidizing molecules such as hydrogen peroxide and ethanol is
the ____.
(A) peroxisome
(B) endosome
(C) lysosome
(D) ribosome
Answer : (A)
36. Destruction of which organelle(s) would cause the cell to cease to function due to a total loss of
energy?
(A) the nucleus
(B) the Golgi apparatus
(C) the ribosomes
(D) the mitochondria
Answer : (D)
37. Digestive enzymes delivered to the small intestine from cells in the pancreas are able to leave
those cells because of the functioning of the ____.
(A) endoplasmic reticulum
(B) ribosomes

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(C) Golgi apparatus
(D) lysosomes
Answer : (A)
38. Damage to MTOCs will interfere with which cellular process?
(A) oxidative phosphorylation
(B) mitosis
(C) electron transport
(D) creation of an mRNA molecule
Answer : (B)
39. Molecular stimuli that bind specifically to receptors are known as ____.
(A) ligands
(B) enzymes
(C) allosteric enzymes
(D) hydrolases
Answer : (A)
40. Which are highly specialized membrane proteins that modify the cell's response to its
environment?
(A) transport proteins
(B) enzymes
(C) receptors
(D) peroxisomes
Answer : (A)
41. Most receptor proteins are most likely which type?
(A) peripheral proteins
(B) internal proteins
(C) integral proteins

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(D) glycoproteins
Answer : (C)
42. Cyclic AMP activates which enzymes?
(A) protein kinases
(B) restriction endonucleases
(C) allosteric enzymes
(D) adenyl (adenylyl) cyclases
Answer : (A)
43. Constitutive enzymes are ____.
(A) uninfluenced by external stimuli
(B) influenced by external stimuli
(C) synthesized at variable rates
(D) unaffected by induction
Answer : (A)
44. Substances that bind with allosteric sites and alter the activity of regulatory enzymes are called
____.
(A) transport proteins
(B) modulators
(C) Na pumps
(D) sarcoplasmic reticula
Answer : (B)
45. Diagnostic enzymology focuses on ____.
(A) enzymes that are widely distributed among many tissues
(B) intracellular enzymes that express their activity in the blood abnormally due to a disease process
(C) secreted enzymes such as clotting proteins in blood
(D) nuclear enzymes

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Answer : (B)
46. One trigger of apoptosis is ____.
(A) overexpression of Bcl-2
(B) inactivation of Casp-9
(C) swelling of the cell
(D) release of mitochondrial cytochrome c
Answer : (D)
47. Malformed Apaf-1 molecules in a cell might ____.
(A) cause rapid apoptosis of the cell
(B) inactivate cytochrome c
(C) lead to the development of a tumor
(D) have no effect on apoptosis
Answer : (C)
48. What is released when nutrient molecules are oxidized?
(A) oxygen
(B) potential (or free) energy
(C) kinetic energy
(D) hydrogen
Answer : (B)
49. In muscle cells, creatine phosphate is used to replenish which substance?
(A) glucose
(B) pyruvic acid
(C) ATP
(D) calcium
Answer : (C)

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50. Phosphorylation of a molecule is generally accomplished by transferring the terminal phosphate
group from which substance?
(A) GTP
(B) pyruvic acid
(C) G6PD
(D) ATP
Answer : (D)
TRUEFALSE
51. The plasma membrane is a sheet-like structure composed solely of lipids.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer : (B)
52. The lipid bilayer determines the function of the plasma membrane, while the proteins are
primarily responsible for the structure of the membrane.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer : (B)
53. The various components within a cell (e.g., mitochondria) are not "free-floating" in the cytosol,
but rather, are held in place by the cytoskeleton.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer : (A)
54. Peripheral proteins are involved in cell-cell recognition, whereas integral proteins function
primarily as receptors/transporters.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer : (A)

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55. Different cells express different proteins because they contain different sequences of DNA in the
nucleus.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer : (B)
56. Polysomes function to transcribe mRNA into proteins.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer : (B)
57. When discussing enzyme kinetics, Km refers to the substrate concentration at which the enzyme
is saturated and functioning at maximal velocity.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer : (B)
58. If two enzymes (e.g., pyruvate dehydrogenase and pyruvate carboxylase) compete for the same
substrate (pyruvate), the one with the higher Km has less affinity and will be more active when
pyruvate concentrations are high.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer : (A)
59. Most cellular reactions are irreversible because the same enzyme that catalyzes the conversion
cannot catalyze the reverse reaction.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer : (B)
60. Allosteric regulation of enzymes is carried out by modulators, other proteins that bind to the
enzyme to inhibit its activity.
(A) True

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(B) False
Answer : (B)
61. Most of the metabolic energy produced in cells is made in the mitochondria.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer : (A)
62. The nuclear envelope is a single membrane structure that helps to isolate the nucleus from the
rest of the cell.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer : (B)
63. Transcription of DNA cannot be altered.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer : (B)
64. An increase in the concentration of a substrate will increase the rate of the enzyme-catalyzed
reaction.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer : (A)
65. Oncosis results from cell injury and is associated with cellular swelling and swelling of the
mitochondrial nucleus.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer : (A)

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MATCH
66. Enzyme Classification: Match the correct enzyme classification with the examples provided.
MATCH
67. Match each description to one of the following terms.
SHORTANSWER
68. List the three mechanisms that can be used to regulate the function of a protein (e.g., an
enzyme) and briefly (in one to two sentences) describe their key features.Answer : Mechanism 1:
Covalent modification—no change in the abundance of a protein. Here, preexisting protein is made
active or inactive by covalently modifying it (involves making or breaking covalent bonds). Examples
include phosphorylation, carboxylation, glycosylation, or proenzyme activation by breaking a peptide
bond.
Answer : Mechanism 2: Allosteric regulation—here we also are not changing the abundance of the
protein (in this case an enzyme), but we are inhibiting or stimulating its activity—not by covalently
modifying the protein, but by having something bind to it, resulting in a change in its conformation
that affects its enzymatic activity. What are these things that bind to enzymes to affect their activity?
NOT other proteins or enzymes—they are typically substrates, intermediates, or products along the
pathway in which the enzyme participates. The book calls them modulators. A good example is
ATP—ATP is the end point of a lot of pathways (glycolysis, TCA cycle) and as such, when it is
abundant, that is a good sign that we have enough ATP/energy. Once the concentration of ATP
reaches a certain level, it begins to bind some of the key enzymes in glycolysis and the TCA cycle
and inhibits them. Why continue to make ATP if we have enough? Conversely, when ADP levels are
higher than ATP (a sign we need energy), ADP binds to these same enzymes, but the result is not
inhibition of their activity, but rather ADP stimulates them to be more active (and thus make more
energy). Then, when ATP levels begin to rise again... we’re back where this paragraph started.
Answer : Mechanism 3: Induction—inducing a gene to be expressed, thereby ultimately resulting in
an increase in the abundance of a protein. This is accomplished by increasing transcription and/or
translation of the corresponding gene/mRNA. [By definition, induction means to increase abundance;
writing "increase and/or decrease" would be incorrect.]
Answer : [Note: For mechanism 1 or 3, the proteins we are talking about can be enzymes,
transporters, and so forth. For 2, we are only talking about enzymes. Don’t let the term active
confuse you—we use it mostly when we talk about enzymes, but an "active protein" means it is
carrying out its function, be it catalytic or transport or anything else. Also note that mechanisms 1
and 2 are fast, whereas mechanism 3 is slower.]
69. Briefly describe the role of DNA in cell replication and transcription.Answer : Cell
Replication:During cell division, DNA must be replicated into two daughter DNA molecules that are
identical to the parental DNA molecule. The DNA molecule unzips and each strand of the double
helix becomes a template used to synthesize a new complementary strand. The new strand is
produced by the process of complementary base pairing. Nucleotide bases connect to the template
at their complementary bases and become connected by phosphate diester bonds through the action
of the enzyme DNA polymerase. In the end, two new DNA chains have joined with the two original
DNA templates to form two new DNA molecules.
Answer : Transcription: This process uses the gene sequence in a DNA strand to direct for the
production of specific proteins. The base sequence of one strand of DNA acts as a template for the
production of a single strand of mRNA. The same single strand of DNA may direct for the creation of

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many different strands of mRNA which will leave the nucleus and bring the genetic code to the
ribosomes for protein production. Specific DNA codons (three bases in a row) act as either initiators
of the production of mRNA or as terminators to specify the length of the mRNA strand.
70. Choose three of the following terms and in one sentence per term, provide a concise definition of
that term: nucleus, mitochondria, RER, transcription, translation, apoptosis, and cell
replication.Answer : The nucleus is the largest organelle in the cell and, because it contains almost
all of the cell’s DNA, it regulates most cellular activities.
Answer : Mitochondria are the organelles in virtually all cells that are responsible for the major
portion of energy (ATP) production, utilizing metabolic processes including the TCA cycle, β-
oxidation, parts of gluconeogenesis, and the electron transport chain.
Answer : The rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) is studded with ribosomes and is intimately
involved in protein synthesis.
Answer : Transcription is the nuclear process of copying one strand of DNA into a single-stranded
mRNA and substituting the base uracil in place of thymine.
Answer : Translation is the process by which the genetic information carried by a molecule of
mRNA becomes the sequence of amino acids in a protein.
Answer : Apoptosis is programmed cell death brought about by several different mechanisms
designed to regulate the number of cells in a tissue.
Answer : Cell replication is the production of two daughter cells from a mother cell that includes the
replication of a single DNA strand into two identical daughter DNA strands (one in each new cell).
71. Why is cholesterol important in plasma membrane function?Answer : The answer should include
the following items:
72. Describe the cytoskeleton (microtrabecular lattice) and its role as an intercommunication system
of proteins and other macromolecules.Answer : The answer should include the following items:
73. Define and describe diagnostic enzymology.Answer : Diagnostic enzymology studies
intracellular enzymes that, due to a problem within the cell, escape and act within the serum where
they do not normally exist. The serum activity of these now displaced enzymes is measured, which
allows for a determination of the site and extent of the cellular damage. An accurate determination
of the site of the damage requires that the enzyme being measured must exhibit a high degree of
organ or tissue specificity.
74. Describe the important implications of the high Km for glucokinase in terms of maintaining
normal blood glucose after a meal and during fasting.Answer : The answer should include the
following items:
75. Describe the process of apoptosis in relation to the life span of the cell.Answer : The answer
should include the following items:
76. Describe the uphill-downhill concept.Answer : The answer should include the following items:
77. Discuss the concept of coupled reactions in the transfer of energy.Answer : The answer should
include the following items (note that students may provide other examples such as the coupling of
phosphocreatine to creatine with the formation of ATP from ADP):
MULTICHOICE
78. A researcher in the field of nutritional genomics is least likely to study ____.

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(A) the interactions among genes and bioactive components in food that change gene expression
without changing the DNA nucleotide sequence (nutritional epigenetics)
(B) inborn changes in DNA nucleotide sequences or gene variants (nutrigenetics)
(C) genetic alterations that can be compensated for by increasing or decreasing specific nutrients
(nutrigenomics)
(D) the interaction between genetically engineered enzymes and their substrates
Answer : (D)
79. A common mutation in the 5,10-methylenetetrahydrofolate reductase enzyme (MTHFR) ____.
(A) prevents the individual from activating the B vitamin folate
(B) has no effect on the activity of the enzyme
(C) increases the activity of the enzyme
(D) modifies the folate molecule directly
Answer : (A)
80. The primary mechanism by which gene expression is modified by bioactive factors in food
appears to be ____.
(A) mutations causing cancer
(B) interactions with transcription factors
(C) production of SNPs
(D) downregulation of translation
Answer : (B)
81. What lifestyle change would be most important to individuals with a common variant in the GST
gene that impairs protection against toxins?
(A) increasing levels of daily exercise
(B) eating a low-fat diet
(C) increasing ingestion of cruciferous vegetables
(D) increasing intake of omega-3 fats
Answer : (C)

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Chapter 02 The Digestive System Mechanism for Nourishing
the Body
MULTICHOICE
1. Within the lamina propria, lying just below the epithelium, is the mucosa-associated lymphoid
tissue (MALT), which ____.
(A) controls secretions from the mucosal glands
(B) contains white blood cells and protects against ingested microorganisms
(C) initiates peristalsis
(D) secretes mucus, hormones, and digestive juices into the lumen
Answer : (B)
2. Which structural component of the gastrointestinal tract lies within the muscularis externa and
controls the contractions that cause motility?
(A) muscularis mucosae
(B) submucosal plexus
(C) myenteric plexus
(D) lumen
Answer : (C)
3. Which structure is not considered an accessory organ?
(A) pancreas
(B) liver
(C) gallbladder
(D) spleen
Answer : (D)
4. Bile is most important for the digestion and absorption of ____.
(A) carbohydrates
(B) proteins
(C) fats

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(D) vitamins
Answer : (C)
5. A decrease in the function of the parotid glands is most likely to result in ____.
(A) a lack of triglyceride digestion
(B) bolus that is difficult to form
(C) saliva that is too thin, that is, a high water to mucus ratio
(D) diarrhea due to malabsorption
Answer : (B)
6. What is the name of the digestive enzyme in saliva that digests starch?
(A) lipase
(B) synthetase
(C) amylase
(D) lactase
Answer : (C)
7. Which substance is not a component of saliva?
(A) mucus
(B) enzymes
(C) water
(D) proteases
Answer : (D)
8. Endocrine cells of the pancreas are found in which structure?
(A) the pancreatic duct
(B) the islets of Langerhans
(C) the sphincter of Oddi
(D) the beta cells
Answer : (B)

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9. Delayed gastric emptying is known as ____.
(A) cholecystitis
(B) cholelithiasis
(C) gastritis
(D) gastroparesis
Answer : (D)
10. What product produced by neck cells in the oxyntic gland of the stomach protects the epithelium
from mechanical and chemical damage?
(A) amylase
(B) pepsin
(C) gastrin
(D) mucus
Answer : (D)
11. Which cells, found both in the oxyntic glands and pyloric glands of the stomach, secrete
hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor?
(A) neck cells
(B) parietal cells
(C) chief cells
(D) enteroendocrine cells
Answer : (B)
12. Which cells, found in oxyntic glands in the body of the stomach, secrete pepsinogens?
(A) neck cells
(B) parietal cells
(C) chief cells
(D) enteroendocrine cells
Answer : (C)
13. Which specialized cell of the gastric epithelium secretes a hormone?

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(A) neck
(B) parietal
(C) chief
(D) G-cell
Answer : (D)
14. The chief cells secrete ____.
(A) gastrin
(B) mucus
(C) zymogens
(D) hydrochloric acid
Answer : (C)
15. The parietal cells secrete ____.
(A) hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor
(B) intrinsic factor and gastrin
(C) gastrin and zymogens
(D) zymogens and hydrochloric acid
Answer : (A)
16. Gastrin stimulates which cells?
(A) oxyntic cells
(B) parietal and chief cells
(C) pancreatic exocrine cells
(D) alpha cells
Answer : (B)
17. When the pH of the stomach is increased to avoid GERD, over time, the stomach may not be
acidic enough. What is the most likely outcome?
(A) lack of carbohydrate digestion

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(B) decreased protein digestion
(C) destruction of bacteria in the stomach
(D) gastric ulcer
Answer : (B)
18. Which glycoproteins bind water and are gel-forming?
(A) mucins
(B) proteoglycans
(C) prostaglandins
(D) zymogens
Answer : (A)
19. The product(s) of pepsin's action is/are ____.
(A) disaccharides
(B) amylose
(C) short-chain fatty acids
(D) hydrolyzed proteins
Answer : (D)
20. Pepcid, a drug that is classified as an H2 receptor blocker, acts by ____.
(A) inhibiting the secretion of hydrogen ions by the parietal cells
(B) inhibiting the release of acetylcholine by the vagus nerve
(C) inhibiting the binding of gastrin to the parietal cells
(D) inhibiting the binding of histamine to the parietal cells
Answer : (D)
21. Which medication inhibits hydrogen release into the gastric juice, which reduces GI mucosal
irritation?
(A) Pepcid
(B) Nexium

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(C) Tums
(D) Tagamet
Answer : (B)
22. Which process allows gastric expansion with food intake with minimal impact on intragastric
pressure?
(A) peristalsis
(B) receptive relaxation
(C) segmentation
(D) pendular movement
Answer : (B)
23. Pyloric glands are located predominantly ____.
(A) at the juncture of the esophagus and the stomach
(B) in the fundus and the body of the stomach
(C) in the antrum of the stomach
(D) in the cardiac portion of the stomach
Answer : (C)
24. Which phrase best describes the function of the crypt of Lieberkühn?
(A) mucus secretion
(B) glucose oxidation
(C) cellular differentiation
(D) amylase secretion
Answer : (C)
25. The pancreas is a digestive system accessory organ with two types of active tissue-the ductless
endocrine cells that secrete insulin and glucagon and the ____.
(A) liver-like cells that produce bile
(B) ductless absorptive tissue that controls bicarbonate
(C) acinar exocrine cells that produce digestive enzymes

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(D) erythropoietic cells that produce red blood cells
Answer : (C)
26. Pancreatic juice that enters the duodenum through the sphincter of Oddi contains all of the
following EXCEPT ____.
(A) digestive enzymes
(B) intrinsic factor
(C) anions such as bicarbonate and chloride
(D) cations such as sodium, potassium, and calcium
Answer : (B)
27. In which part of the brain is the swallowing center located?
(A) the hypothalamus
(B) the medulla oblongata
(C) the thalamus
(D) the pons
Answer : (B)
28. In which organ are enzymes produced that are responsible for digestion of 50 percent of
carbohydrate and protein and 90 percent of fat?
(A) liver
(B) esophagus
(C) pancreas
(D) gallbladder
Answer : (C)
29. Which hormone's major action is to alkalize intestinal contents by stimulating secretion of
bicarbonate from the pancreas and by inhibiting gastric acid secretion and gastric emptying?
(A) gastrin
(B) secretin
(C) cholecystokinin

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(D) GRP
Answer : (B)
30. Dumping syndrome may be caused by ____.
(A) bacterial infections
(B) viral infections
(C) partial removal of the stomach to treat obesity
(D) gall stones
Answer : (C)
31. The hormone primarily responsible for contraction of the gallbladder and release of bile into the
duodenum is ____.
(A) gastrin
(B) secretin
(C) cholecystokinin
(D) GRP
Answer : (C)
32. Bile salts are synthesized from cholesterol in the ____.
(A) canaliculi
(B) common bile duct
(C) hepatocytes
(D) gallbladder
Answer : (C)
33. The surface coat of microvilli is known as ____.
(A) the glycocalyx
(B) the crypts of Lieberkühn
(C) motilin
(D) proteases

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Answer : (A)
34. The total bile acid pool in the human body is 2.5 to 5 g. What percentage of bile is reabsorbed in
the distal ileum?
(A) 10 percent
(B) 30 percent
(C) 65 percent
(D) 90 percent
Answer : (D)
35. A large gall stone blocking the cystic duct might result in ____.
(A) a reduction in the production of bile by the liver
(B) an increase in bile production by the liver
(C) enhancement of fat digestion
(D) interference with fat digestion
Answer : (D)
36. Which substance is enterohepatically circulated?
(A) pancreatic enzymes
(B) bile
(C) glucose
(D) CCK
Answer : (B)
37. In general, in which portion of the gastrointestinal tract does most absorption occur?
(A) esophagus
(B) stomach
(C) small intestine
(D) colon
Answer : (C)

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38. A common cause of peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is the bacterium ____.
(A) Escherichia coli
(B) Helicobacter pylori
(C) Staphylococcus aureus
(D) Enterobacter aerogenes
Answer : (B)
39. Which structure helps to prevent the migration of bacteria from the large intestine back into the
small intestine?
(A) the cecum
(B) the appendix
(C) the ileocecal valve
(D) the ileum
Answer : (C)
40. Which hormone(s) is/are responsible for decreasing sodium absorption in the colon?
(A) glucocorticoids
(B) mineralocorticoids
(C) vasopressin
(D) glucagon
Answer : (C)
41. Which division of the nervous system decreases digestive tract motility and secretions?
(A) parasympathetic
(B) somatic
(C) adrenergic
(D) sympathetic
Answer : (D)
42. Which hormone diminishes gastric acid secretion?

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(A) somatostatin
(B) gastrin
(C) cholecystokinin
(D) pancreatic polypeptide
Answer : (A)
43. Which hormone stimulates gall bladder contraction?
(A) motilin
(B) gastrin
(C) cholecystokinin
(D) secretin
Answer : (C)
44. A deficiency in secretion of cholecystokinin might lead to which problem?
(A) a reduction in gastric acid production
(B) difficulty digesting fats
(C) difficulty digesting proteins
(D) a buildup of intestinal gas
Answer : (B)
45. When diagnosing lactose intolerance, ____ is measured in the breath following oral consumption
of 50 g lactose.
(A) methane
(B) hydrogen
(C) carbon dioxide
(D) sulfur
Answer : (B)
46. Lactose intolerance is least common in _____.
(A) European Americans

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Subject

Biochemistry

Test Bank For Advanced Nutrition and Human Metabolism 7th Edition Test Bank

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