ATI TEAS V7 NurseCheung Science Practice Questions

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ATI TEASSCIENCEPRACTICEQUESTIONSVERSION 7by:NURSECHEUNGwww.nursecheung.com

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Table of ContentsHuman Anatomy and PhysiologyOrganization of the Human BodyQuestions:P.2__Cardiovascular SystemQuestions: P. 3Respiratory SystemQuestions:P.5—Neurological SystemQuestions;P.7Gastrointestinal SystemQuestions:P.8Muscular SystemQuestions;P. 10Reproductive SystemQuestions: __P. 12Integumentary SystemQuestions: P.14__Endocrine SystemQuestions: P. 15Urinary SystemQuestions:P.17Lympathic-Immune SystemQuestions: P.19__Skeletal SystemQuestions: P. 21_Answcis:P.56Answers.P.57Answers; P. 58,,Answers: P. 60_Answers: P. 61Answers; P. 62.Answers:P.64_Answers;P.66Answers:P.68Answers: P. 69Answers: P. 70Life and Physical SciencesBiological Hierarchy of the BodyQuestions:P.22Answers; P. 72Mitosis vs. MeiosisQuestions; P, 24Answers: P. 73Genetics and DNAQuestions:P.25Answers: P. 74Basic MacromoleculesQuestions:P.28__Answers:P.76Micro-Organisms andQuestions: P. 30 __Answers:P.'llMicroscopesChemistryBasic Atomic StructuresQuestions:P.31__Answers:P.78Physical Properties and StatesQuestions: P. 35Answers: P. 81of MatterChemical ReactionsQuestions: P. 38Answers' P 83Conditions that Affect ChemicalQuestions: P. 41Answers:P.85ReactionsProperties of SolutionsQuestions:P.44Answers: P. 87Acids and BasesQuestions: P. 46Answers: P. 89Scientific MethodScientific Measurement andToolsScientific Explanation andDrawing ConclusionsPredicting Relationships AmongEvents, Objects, and ProcessesIdentifying HypothesisAnswers: P. 90Answers: P. 91Answers; P.Answers: P. 94Questions:P.53

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SCIENCES PRACTICE QUESTIONSORGANIZATION OF HUMAN BODYQuestion 11: Which plane divides the body into superior and inferiorQuestion 1: Which term describes a position nearer to the front of theparts?A) Sagittalbody?B) FrontalA) DorsalC) TransverseB) VentralD) MidsagittalC) MedialD) DistalQuestion 12: The mouth is _____ to the nose.Question?:The elbow isto the wrist.A) SuperiorB) InferiorA) ProximalC) AnteriorB) DistalD) PosteriorC) LateralD) InferiorQuestion 13: Which term describes structures found closer to theQuestion 3:The term "superior" is best described as:body's midline?A) MedialA) Toward the midlineB) LateralB) Farther from the headC) DorsalC) Closer to the headD) VentralD) Away from the midlineQuestion 4: Which term is used to describe a structure closer to theQuestion 14: The thumb is _____ to the little finger.A) Proximalbody's surface?B) MedialA) SuperficialC) LateralB) MedialD) DistalC) DeepD) ProximalQuestion 15:Which term describes the position of the spine relative toQuestion 5:If a surgeon makes an incision along the midline of thethe belly button (umbilicus)?A) Anteriorbody, it's referred to as:B) PosteriorA) SagittalC) MedialB) FrontalD) DistalC) TransverseD) LateralQuestion 16: In terms of anatomical positioning, how is the ulna relatedQuestion 6: The sternum isto the heart.to the radius?A) SuperiorA) AnteriorB) MedialB) PosteriorC) LateralC) LateralD) InferiorD) MedialQuestion 7:The anatomical term for the back of the knee is:Question 17: The forehead is also termed as:A) OrbitalA) PatellarB) BuccalB) BrachialC) FrontalC) PoplitealD) NasalD) ScapularQuestion 8: Which of the following is a medial structure?Question 18: Which plane divides the body into equal left and righthalves?A) UlnaA) SagittalB) RadiusB) FrontalC) TibiaC) TransverseD) FibulaD) MidsagittalQuestion 9:The anatomical position is characterized by all theQuestion 19: The heel is _____ to the toes.following EXCEPT:A) SuperiorA) Feet flat on the floorB) InferiorB) Palms facing forwardC) PosteriorC) Thumbs pointing outwardD) AnteriorD) Head tilted backwardQuestion 10: Which term refers to the outermost layer of a structure?Question 20: The anatomical term for the cheek is:A) AxillaryA) ProximalB) BuccalB) MedialC) CervicalC) LateralD) BrachialD) Superficial2

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Question 21: Which of the following terms describes the back of thebody or body part?A) VentralB) AnteriorC) DorsalD) ProximalQuestion 22: The armpit is also known as the:A) AxillaryB) UmbilicalC) CarpalD) PoplitealQuestion 23: The term that refers to a position farther from the body'ssurface is:A) SuperficialB) AnteriorC) DeepD) LateralQuestion 24: In the anatomical position, how are the palms oriented?A) Facing backwardB) Facing the bodyC) Facing downwardD) Facing forwardQuestion 25:Which term describes a structure's location farther fromthe point of attachment to the trunk?A) ProximalB) DistalC) MedialD) LateralQuestion 26: Which term describes the region of the body where theneck joins the trunk?A) AxillaryB) CervicalC) LumbarD) ThoracicQuestion 27: The bridge of the nose is _____ to the left eye.A) MedialB) LateralC) SuperiorD) ProximalQuestion 28: The term that best describes the relationship betweenthe skin and the underlying muscles is:A) ProximalB) MedialC) SuperficialD) DistalQuestion 29: Which of the following regions is NOT associated with theanterior torso?A) SternalB) AxillaryC) ScapularD) UmbilicalQuestion 30: Which term refers to the front of the elbow?A) AntecubitalB) PoplitealC) OlecranalD) CalcanealQuestion 31: The big toe is also known as:A) PollexB) HalluxC) ManusD) CalcanealQuestion 32: The term "inferior" can also be referred to as:A) CaudalB) CranialC) MedialD) LateralQuestion 33: The stomach is primarily located in which of the followingbody cavities?A) DorsalB) ThoracicC) AbdominalD) PelvicQuestion 34: In anatomical terminology, which direction means towardthe tail?A) SuperiorB) AnteriorC) CaudalD) ProximalQuestion 35: Which of the following terms refers to the side of thebody?A) VentralB) LateralC) MedialD) DorsalCARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEMQuestion 1: The heart is enclosed in a double-layered sac called the:A) MyocardiumB) EndocardiumC) PericardiumD) EpicardiumQuestion 2: Which layer of the heart is responsible for its pumpingaction?A) MyocardiumB) EndocardiumC) PericardiumD) EpicardiumQuestion 3: Blood flows from the left atrium into the left ventriclethrough which valve?A) Tricuspid valveB) Pulmonary valveC) Mitral (bicuspid) valveD) Aortic valveQuestion 4: Which vessels deliver oxygen-rich blood from the lungs tothe heart?A) Superior and inferior vena cavaB) Pulmonary veinsC) Pulmonary arteriesD) Coronary arteriesQuestion5: Thevalvelocatedbetweentherightatriumandrightventricle is:A) Tricuspid valveB) Pulmonary valveC) Mitral (bicuspid) valveD) Aortic valveQuestion 6: The structure responsible for initiating the heartbeat is:A) Atrioventricular nodeB) Bundle of HisC) Purkinje fibersD) Sinoatrial node3

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Question 7: The phase when the heart muscle contracts and pumpsblood is called:A) SystoleB) DiastoleC) RepolarizationD) DepolarizationQuestion 8:Which structure is responsible for preventing thebackflow of blood from the aorta into the left ventricle?A) Tricuspid valveB) Mitral valveC) Aortic valveD) Pulmonary valveQuestion 9: The "lub-dub" sound of the heart is produced primarily by:A) Opening and closing of the atrioventricular and semilunar valvesB) Flow of blood through the chambersC) Movement of blood from the veins into the atriaD) Contraction of the myocardiumQuestion 10: Which factor does NOT influence blood pressure?A) Blood volumeB) Heart rateC) Blood viscosityD) ABO blood typeQuestion 11: An acidic blood pH would be a value:A) Greater than 7.45B) Less than 7.35C) Exactly 7.40D) Between 7.35 and 7.45Question 12: Which blood type is considered the universal recipient?A) AB) BC) ABD) OQuestion 13: The blood vessels that carry blood away from the heartto the rest of the body are called:A) VeinsB) CapillariesC) ArteriesD) VenulesQuestion 14: In the cardiac conduction system, after the SA nodefires, the impulse travels to the:A) Bundle of HisB) Purkinje fibersC) Atrioventricular nodeD) Ventricular myocardiumQuestion 15: During which phase does the heart relax and fill withblood?A) SystoleB) DiastoleC) RepolarizationD) DepolarizationQuestion 16: The largest artery in the body, responsible for carryingoxygenated blood away from the heart, is the:A) Pulmonary arteryB) AortaC) Superior vena cavaD) Coronary arteryQuestion 17: Which valve prevents the backflow of blood from thepulmonary trunk into the right ventricle?A) Mitral valveB) Aortic valveC) Pulmonary valveD) Tricuspid valveQuestion 18: The "pacemaker" cells of the heart, responsible for settingthe rate of contractions, are located in the:A) Atrioventricular nodeB) Bundle of HisC) Sinoatrial nodeD) Purkinje fibersQuestion 19:Blood pressure is usually expressed as two numbers. Thehigher number represents:A) Diastolic pressureB) Systolic pressureC) Mean arterial pressureD) Pulse pressureQuestion 20:An individual with Type O blood should NOT receive:A) O bloodB) A bloodC) AB bloodD) Both B and CQuestion 21: Which component of the vascular system is responsiblefor nutrient and gas exchange?A) ArteriesB) VeinsC) CapillariesD) VenulesQuestion 22:The term "cardiac output" refers to:A) The amount of blood the heart pumps in one minuteB) The heart rate multiplied by the stroke volumeC) The volume of blood in one cardiac cycleD) Both A and BQuestion 23:A decrease in blood pH can be caused by:A) HyperventilationB) Decreased carbon dioxide levelsC) Increased bicarbonate levelsD) Accumulation of metabolic acidsQuestion 24:Which of the following is NOT a function of thecardiovascular system?A) Regulation of body temperatureB) Production of hormonesC) Transport of nutrients and oxygen to cellsD) Removal of waste products from tissuesQuestion 25:An increase in which factor would lead to a decrease inblood pressure?A) Blood volumeB) Vessel diameterC) Blood viscosityD) Heart rateQuestion 26: In the cardiac cycle, the QRS complex seen in an ECGrepresents:A) Atrial depolarizationB) Ventricular depolarizationC) Atrial repolarizationD) Ventricular repolarizationQuestion 27:The blood vessels that return deoxygenated blood fromthe body to the heart are:A) ArteriesB) VeinsC) CapillariesD) Arterioles

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Question 28:The inferior tip of the heart, which points downwardtowards the left hip, is called the:A) BaseB) ApexC) SeptumD) AtriumQuestion 29:The difference between systolic and diastolic bloodpressure is known as:A) Mean arterial pressureB) Cardiac outputC) Pulse pressureD) Blood flow resistanceQuestion 30:Which component of the cardiac conduction systemrapidly transmits impulses to the ventricular muscles, ensuring theircoordinated contraction?A) SA nodeB) AV nodeC) Bundle of HisD) Purkinje fibersQuestion 31: Which of the following factors can lead to an increase inblood pressure?A) Decreased cardiac outputB) VasodilationC) Increased sodium intakeD) Decreased blood volumeQuestion 32:Which chamber of the heart receives deoxygenated bloodfrom the body via the superior and inferior vena cava?A) Left atriumB) Left ventricleC) Right atriumD) Right ventricleQuestion 33:Which blood type lacks antigens on the surface of the redblood cells?A) AB) BC) ABD) OQuestion 34:A decrease in which factor can lead to an increase inblood pressure?A) Blood viscosityB) Vessel elasticityC) Blood volumeD) Resistance to blood flowQuestion 35:In a normal cardiac cycle, the ventricles arc filled withblood during:A) Ventricular systoleB) Atrial diastoleC) Ventricular diastoleD) Atrial systoleRESPIRATORY SYSTEMQuestion 1: Which structure serves as a common pathway for both airand food?A) TracheaB) BronchiC) PharynxD) LarynxQuestion 2: The primary site of gas exchange in the lungs is the:A) BronchiolesB) AlveoliC) TracheaD) BronchusQuestion 3: The conducting zones of the respiratory system include allof the following EXCEPT:A) TracheaB) BronchiC) AlveoliD) Nasal cavityQuestion 4: The diaphragm contracts during:A) ExhalationB) InhalationC) Both A and BD) Neither A nor BQuestion 5: Which of the following best describes "ventilation" in thecontext of the respiratory system?A) Exchange of gases between blood and tissuesB) The mechanical process of moving air in and out of the lungsC) The delivery of oxygen to cellsD) The process by which oxygen binds to hemoglobinQuestion 6: During hyperventilation, a person might experience:A) Increased carbon dioxide in the bloodB) Decreased oxygen levels in the bloodC) An increase in blood pHD) A decrease in blood pHQuestion 7: Which structure prevents food and liquid from entering theairways during swallowing?A) PharynxB) UvulaC) LarynxD) EpiglottisQuestion 8:The term "perfusion" in the context of the respiratorysystem refers to:A) Movement of air in and out of the lungsB) Exchange of gases between the lungs and bloodC) Blood flow through the lungsD) Use of oxygen by tissuesQuestion 9: The primary muscles responsible for normal quietbreathing are the:A) Pectoralis major and intercostalsB) Diaphragm and intercostalsC) Latissimus dorsi and serratus anteriorD) Trapezius and diaphragmQuestion 10: In which part of the respiratoiy system does the air getwarmed, moistened, and filtered?A) LarynxB) Nasal cavityC) TracheaD) BronchiQuestion 11: A decreased rate of respiration leading to an increase inblood carbon dioxide levels is termed:A) HyperventilationB) HypoxiaC) HypoventilationD) ApneaQuestion 12: The windpipe is another term for the:A) LarynxB) PharynxC) EsophagusD) Trachea5

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Question 13: Which of the following is NOT a function of therespiratory system?A) Delivering oxygen to the bloodstreamB) Removing waste gases like carbon dioxide from the bloodstreamC) Filtering impurities from the bloodD) Assisting in vocal sound productionQuestion 14: The space within the thoracic cavity that houses thelungs and heart is called the:A) Pleural cavityB) Pericardial cavityC) MediastinumD) Peritoneal cavityQuestion 15: The amount of air that remains in the lungs after a forcedexhalation is termed:A) Tidal volumeB) Residual volumeC) Inspiratory reserve volumeD) Expiratory reserve volumeQuestion 16: The exchange of gases between the blood and tissue cellsis termed:A) Internal respirationB) VentilationC) External respirationD) InhalationQuestion 17: Which layer of the respiratory tract primarily functionsto produce mucus and move it with trapped particles out of the lungs?A) Epithelial liningB) Smooth muscleC) Hyaline cartilageD) Connective tissueQuestion 18: The lung volume that represents the maximum amount ofair that can be inhaled after a normal tidal inhalation is called:A) Expiratory reserve volumeB) Inspiratory capacityC) Inspiratory reserve volumeD) Vital capacityQuestion 19: Which of the following factors will NOT directly influencethe rate of pulmonary ventilation?A) Blood pH levelsB) Blood oxygen levelsC) Blood carbon dioxide levelsD) Blood sugar levelsQuestion 20: In the event of hypoxia, which of the following wouldmost likely occur?A) Reduced heart rateB) Reduced rate of respirationC) Increased rate of respirationD) Reduced blood pressureQuestion 21:The term used to describe the volume of air that isinhaled and exhaled in a single breath during regular breathing is:A) Vital capacityB) Tidal volumeC) Total lung capacityD) Inspiratory reserve volumeQuestion 22:Which structure in the respiratory pathway is primarilyresponsible for voice production?A) TracheaB) PharynxC) BronchiD) LarynxQuestion 23:Which of the following conditions results from chronichypoventilation?A) Respiratory alkalosisB) Respiratory acidosisC) Metabolic alkalosisD) Metabolic acidosisQuestion 24:The bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli arc found within the:A) Conducting zoneB) Respiratory zoneC) Ventilation zoneD) Exchange zoneQuestion 25:The primary force that drives air into the lungs duringinhalation is:A) Increased thoracic pressureB) Decreased thoracic pressureC) Elastic recoil of the lungsD) Muscular contraction of the thoracic wallQuestion 26:An obstruction in which of the following structures wouldmost impact an individual's ability to speak?A) LarynxB) TracheaC) PharynxD) BronchiQuestion 27:The majority of oxygen transported in the blood is boundto:A) HemoglobinB) PlasmaC) White blood cellsD) PlateletsQuestion 28:The primary function of the cilia in the respiratory tract isto:A) Warm the incoming airB) Moisturize the incoming airC) Move mucus and trapped particles out of the lungsD) Facilitate gas exchangeQuestion 29:Which of the following will most likely happen in responseto increased levels of carbon dioxide in the blood?A) Decreased rate of respirationB) Shallow breathingC) Deep and rapid breathingD) ApneaQuestion 30:The space between the visceral and parietal pleurae isknown as:A) Alveolar spaceB) Pleural cavityC) Bronchial lumenD) Interstitial spaceQuestion 31: During hyperventilation, the levels of which gas decreaserapidly in the arterial blood?A) NitrogenB) OxygenC) Carbon dioxideD) HydrogenQuestion 32: The condition in which the alveoli are damaged, leading toa reduction in surface area for gas exchange, is called:A) BronchitisB) AsthmaC) EmphysemaD) Pleurisy6

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Question 33: Theseparates the thoracic and abdominalcavities.A) Intercostal muscleB) DiaphragmC) PleuraD) SternumQuestion 34: Which structure is the final branching of the conductingzone and leads to the respiratory zone?A) BronchiolesB) Alveolar ductsC) Terminal bronchiolesD) Respiratory bronchiolesQuestion 35: Which of the following terms refers to the amount of airthat remains in the lungs after a forceful exhalation?A) Residual volumeB) Expiratory reserve volumeC) Inspiratory reserve volumeD) Tidal volumeNEUROLOGICAL SYSTEMQuestion 1: Which lobe of the brain is primarily responsible for visualprocessing?A) Frontal lobeB) Temporal lobeC) Parietal lobeD) Occipital lobeQuestion 2: The structure that ensures communication between thetwo hemispheres of the brain is the:A) PonsB) HypothalamusC) Corpus callosumD) Basal gangliaQuestion 3: Which part of the brain plays a critical role in coordinatingmotor movements and maintaining balance?A) CerebrumB) ThalamusC) CerebellumD) Brain stemQuestion 4: Which system controls voluntary muscle movements?A) Autonomic nervous systemB) Somatic nervous systemC) Sympathetic nervous systemD) Parasympathetic nervous systemQuestion 5: The part of the neuron that receives information fromother neurons and directs it towards the cell body is the:A) AxonB) DendriteC) SynapseD) Myelin sheathQuestion 6: Which lobe of the brain is primarily responsible forprocessing auditory information?A) Frontal lobeB) Parietal lobeC) Temporal lobeD) Occipital lobeQuestion 7: The "fight or flight" response is triggered by which divisionof the autonomic nervous system?A) ParasympatheticB) SomaticC) SympatheticD) CentralQuestion 8:Which of the following structures is responsible forconnecting the cerebrum with the spinal cord and houses vital centerscontrolling heart rate and respiration?A) HypothalamusB) CerebellumC) Brain stemD) Basal gangliaQuestion 9:The primary function of the parietal lobe is:A) VisionB) HearingC) Motor controlD) Sensation and spatial awarenessQuestion 10:Which part of the brain plays a vital role in controllinghomeostasis, including body temperature, hunger, and thirst?A) HypothalamusB) Frontal lobeC) CerebellumD) AmygdalaQuestion 11: The central nervous system consists of:A) The brain and spinal cordB) The brain and peripheral nervesC) The spinal cord and peripheral nervesD) The autonomic and somatic systemsQuestion 12: Which structure in the brain plays a crucial role inemotion, particularly in processing fear?A) HippocampusB) FornixC) AmygdalaD) ThalamusQuestion 13: Which structure serves as the relay center for sensoryinformation, directing it to appropriate areas of the cerebrum forfurther processing?A) HypothalamusB) PonsC) ThalamusD) Basal gangliaQuestion 14: The area of the brain that plays a crucial role in formingnew memories is the:A) AmygdalaB) Basal gangliaC) HippocampusD) FornixQuestion 15: The outermost layer of the cerebrum, which is responsiblefor complex cognitive functions such as thinking, planning, andlanguage, is the:A) Medulla oblongataB) CerebellumC) Cerebral cortexD) Corpus callosumQuestion 16: Which brain structure is involved in controlling voluntarymotor movements and learned routines?A) ThalamusB) Basal gangliaC) MidbrainD) Corpus callosumQuestion 17: The function of the myelin sheath surrounding a neuron'saxon is to:A) Produce neurotransmittersB) Speed up the transmission of electrical impulsesC) Act as a receptor for incoming signalsD) Generate electrical impulses7

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Question 18: The frontal lobe is primarily responsible for:A) VisionB) Auditory processingC) Reasoning and decision makingD) Balance and coordinationQuestion 19: Which of the following structures connects the pituitarygland to the brain and plays a role in controlling the release ofhormones?A) PonsB) HypothalamusC) ThalamusD) MidbrainQuestion 20: The primary function of the midbrain is to:A) Regulate hunger and thirstB) Control voluntary motor movementsC) Process auditory and visual informationD) Coordinate balance and postureQuestion 21: The division of the nervous system that consists ofnerves and ganglia outside the brain and spinal cord is known as the:A) Central nervous systemB) Somatic nervous systemC) Autonomic nervous systemD) Peripheral nervous systemQuestion 22: The communication fibers that allow the twohemispheres of the brain to interact and share information is calledthe:A) PonsB) FornixC) Corpus callosumD) Basal gangliaQuestion 23: Which region of the brain is responsible for interpretingtouch, temperature, and taste?A) Frontal lobeB ) Temporal lobeC) Occipital lobeD) Parietal lobeQuestion 24: A person with damage to the cerebellum might havetrouble with:A) Emotional regulationB) Language comprehensionC) Coordination and balanceD) Visual processingQuestion 25: Which part of the neuron is primarily responsible fortransmitting information to other neurons or cells?A) DendriteB) Cell bodyC) SynapseD) AxonQuestion 26: The autonomic nervous system can be divided into thesympathetic and parasympathetic divisions. Which of these isprimarily responsible for "rest and digest" activities?A) SympatheticB) SomaticC) CentralD) ParasympatheticQuestion 27: The region of the brain that plays a significant role inmemory, particularly in the consolidation of short-term memories tolong-term memories, is the:A) ThalamusB) Basal gangliaC) HypothalamusD) HippocampusQuestion 28: Which part of the brain stem is continuous with the spinalcord and contains centers that control heart rate, blood pressure, andbreathing?A) MidbrainB) PonsC) Medulla oblongataD) CerebellumQuestion 29: Which of the following is NOT a function of the cerebrum?A) Coordinating motor movementB) Emotional responseC) Problem-solving and reasoningD) Regulation of body temperatureQuestion 30: The small, pea-sized structure that regulates the releaseof hormones from the pituitary gland is the:A) ThalamusB) MidbrainC) HypothalamusD) PonsQuestion 31: Which structure in the brain is responsible for linking thenervous system to the endocrine system via the pituitary gland?A) ThalamusB) HippocampusC) PonsD) HypothalamusQuestion 32: The basal ganglia are associated with all of the followingfunctions EXCEPT:A) Motor controlB) Cognitive functions related to movementC) Emotional regulationD) Vision processingQuestion 33: Damage to which part of the brain would most likelyresultindifficultieswithspatialawarenessandsensoryinterpretation?A) Frontal lobeB) Temporal lobeC) Parietal lobeD) Occipital lobeQuestion 34: In the context of the nervous system, what does the term"afferent" refer to?A) Motor pathways that move away from the central nervous systemB) Sensory pathways that move toward the central nervous systemC) Connections between neurons within the central nervous systemD) The protective sheath around axonsQuestion 35: Which of the following structures plays a primary role incoordinating movements and ensuring balance?A) ThalamusB) HypothalamusC) AmygdalaD) CerebellumGASTROINTESTINAL SYSTEMQuestion1:Whichenzymeisresponsibleforbreakingdowncarbohydrates in the mouth?A) LipaseB) AmylaseC) TrypsinD) PepsinQuestion 2: The process by which digested nutrients pass into theblood vessels in the wall of the intestine is called:A) DigestionB) PropulsionC) AbsorptionD) Defecation8

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Question 3: Which hormone stimulates the gallbladder to release bile?A) GastrinB) InsulinC) Cholecystokinin (CCK)D) GlucagonQuestion 4: The stomach's primary role in digestion is:A) Absorption of nutrientsB) Mechanical and chemical breakdown of foodC) Production of insulinD) Absorption of water and electrolytesQuestion 5: Which section of the GI tract is primarily responsible forwater absorption?A) StomachB ) Small intestineC) Large intestineD) EsophagusQuestion 6: Bile is produced by the ______ and stored in the ______.A) Liver; gallbladderB) Gallbladder; pancreasC) Pancreas; liverD) Stomach; intestinesQuestion 7: Which hormone decreases blood sugar levels by allowingcells to take in glucose?A) GastrinB) GlucagonC) CholecystokininD) InsulinQuestion 8: The primary function of the pyloric sphincter is to:A) Regulate passage of food from the esophagus to the stomachB) Control the flow of chyme from the stomach to the small intestineC) Facilitate the release of bileD) Propel food through the esophagusQuestion 9: In which section of the small intestine does the majorityof digestion and absorption occur?A) DuodenumB) JejunumC) IleumD) CecumQuestion 10: The process of breaking down food into smaller pieceswithout chemical change is known as:A) Chemical digestionB) Mechanical digestionC) AbsorptionD) PropulsionQuestion 11: Which hormone is released by the pancreas to raise bloodsugar levels by stimulating the liver to convert glycogen to glucose?A) GastrinB) InsulinC) GlucagonD) CholecystokininQuestion 12: The process by which food is moved through the digestivetract by alternating contractions and relaxations of smooth musclesis called:A) PeristalsisB) MasticationC) AbsorptionD) DeglutitionQuestion 13: Which enzyme is responsible for breaking down proteins inthe stomach?A) AmylaseB) PepsinC) LipaseD) NucleaseQuestion 14: The ring of muscles at the end of the large intestine thatcontrols the passage of feces out of the body is the:A) Pyloric sphincterB) Ileocecal valveC) Anal sphincterD) Cardiac sphincterQuestion 15: Which of the following is NOT a primary function of theliver?A) Producing bileB) Filtering toxins from the bloodC) Absorbing water and electrolytesD) Storing vitamins and ironQuestion 16: Which enzyme, produced by the pancreas, is responsiblefor breaking down fats in the small intestine?A) PepsinB) Pancreatic amylaseC) Pancreatic lipaseD) RibonucleaseQuestion 17: The first portion of the large intestine, which connects tothe small intestine, is known as:A) CecumB) RectumC) Ascending colonD) Sigmoid colonQuestion 18: Which hormone stimulates the secretion of gastric juicesin response to food entering the stomach?A) InsulinB) SecretinC) GastrinD) GlucagonQuestion 19: The function of bile in the digestive process is to:A) Neutralize stomach acidB) Break down carbohydratesC) Emulsify fats for digestionD) Stimulate peristalsisQuestion 20: The primary function of the esophagus is to:A) Secrete digestive enzymesB) Absorb nutrientsC) Transport food from the mouth to the stomachD) Store ingested foodQuestion 21: Which of the following is NOT a primary secretion of thepancreas?A) BileB) InsulinC) GlucagonD) Pancreatic juiceQuestion 22: The final segment of the colon before the rectum is the:A) Ascending colonB) Transverse colonC) Descending colonD) Sigmoid colon9

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Question 23: The stomach lining is protected from the acidic gastricjuices by:A) Bicarbonate ionsB) Mucus secretionC) Insulin secretionD) Production of pepsinQuestion 24: The elimination of undigested food and waste from thebody is known as:A) AbsorptionB) DefecationC) DigestionD) PropulsionQuestion 25: Which hormone is responsible for stimulating the releaseof pancreatic juice and bicarbonate to neutralize stomach acid?A) GastrinB) SecretinC) CholecystokininD) InsulinQuestion 26: Mechanical digestion begins in which part of thedigestive system?A) StomachB) Small intestineC) MouthD) EsophagusQuestion 27: The process by which food is moved from the pharynx tothe stomach is known as:A) MasticationB) PeristalsisC) DeglutitionD) AbsorptionQuestion 28: Which enzyme, present in the small intestine, breaksdown maltose into glucose?A) PeptidaseB) NucleaseC) MaltaseD) LactaseQuestion 29: The absorption of most nutrients, including amino acidsand monosaccharides, primarily takes place in the:A) StomachB) Large intestineC) EsophagusD) Small intestineQuestion 30: Which hormone, produced by the alpha cells of thepancreas, acts to raise blood glucose levels?A) GastrinB) SecretinC) InsulinD) GlucagonQuestion 31: The primary function of cholecystokinin (CCK) releasedfrom the small intestine is to:A) Stimulate the stomach to release gastric juicesB) Trigger the pancreas to release insulinC) Signal the liver to produce bileD) Cause the gallbladder to release stored bileQuestion 32: The finger-like projections that increase the surface areain the small intestine, allowing for increased absorption of nutrients,are known as:A) RugaeB) VilliC) Plicae circulatesD) AlveoliQuestion 33: Which enzyme, secreted by the stomach, is activated byhydrochloric acid and is essential for protein digestion?A) LipaseB) AmylaseC) PepsinD) NucleaseQuestion 34: The muscular ring located at the end of the esophagusthat prevents the backflow of stomach contents into the esophagus isthe:A) Pyloric sphincterB) Ileocecal valveC) Lower esophageal sphincter (LES)D) Anal sphincterQuestion 35: Which phase of digestion involves the voluntary processof placing food into the mouth?A) SegmentationB) IngestionC) AbsorptionD) PeristalsisMUSCULAR SYSTEMQuestion 1: Which type of muscle tissue is striated and involuntary?A) Smooth muscleB) Cardiac muscleC) Skeletal muscleD) Elastic muscleQuestion 2: The primary function of the trapezius muscle is to:A) Flex the forearmB) Move and stabilize the scapulaC) Extend the kneeD) Close the eyelidsQuestion 3: Which muscle primarily assists in arm abduction?A) TrapeziusB) DeltoidC) RhomboidD) TricepsQuestion 4: Which of the following describes the ability of musclefibers to receive and respond to stimuli?A) ContractilityB) ExcitabilityC) ElasticityD) ExtensibilityQuestion 5: The muscle primarily responsible for extending the forearmat the elbow joint is the:A) BicepsB) DeltoidC) TricepsDj Pectoralis majorQuestion 6: Which of the following muscles is primarily involved inchewing and elevating the mandible?A) TemporalisB) Orbicularis oculiC) TrapeziusD) Rectus abdominusQuestion 7: The type of muscle tissue that lacks striations and isinvoluntary is:A) Smooth muscleB) Cardiac muscleC) Skeletal muscleD) Elastic muscle10

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Question 8: Which muscle primarily flexes the hip joint and assists inknee flexion?A) GracilisB) Rectus femorisC) Gluteus maximusD) SartoriusQuestion 9: The muscle that assists in plantarflexion of the foot andelevating the heel during walking is the:A) Vastus medialisB) Tibialis anteriorC) GastrocnemiusD) Serratus anteriorQuestion 10: Which of the following muscles is primarily involved inflexion of the arm at the elbow joint?A) TricepsB) DeltoidC) BicepsD) Pectoralis majorQuestion 11: The function of the serratus anterior includes:A) Plantarflexion of the footB) Flexion of the forearmC) Protraction and stabilization of the scapulaD) Elevation of the mandibleQuestion 12: The orbicularis oculi muscle is primarily responsible for:A) Chewing foodB) Flexing the hip jointC) Closing the eyelidsD) Extending the forearmQuestion 13: Which muscle extends from the midiinc of the chest andattaches to the humerus, assisting in arm flexion and adduction?A) SternocleidomastoidB) Pectoralis majorC) Latissimus dorsiD) DeltoidQuestion 14: Which muscle group is most directly responsible forextending the thigh and assisting in lateral rotation?A) Rectus femorisB) Gluteus mediusC) Gluteus maximusD) Vastus lateralisQuestion 15: A unique property of muscle tissue that enables it toreturn to its original shape after being stretched is known as:A) ContractilityB) ExcitabilityC) ElasticityD) ExtensibilityQuestion 16: Which of the following muscles aids in elevating thescapula and retracting the shoulder blade?A) RhomboidB) TrapeziusC) DeltoidD) Latissimus dorsiQuestion 17: The latissimus dorsi muscle assists in:A) Flexing the forearmB) Abducting the armC) Extending, adducting, and medially rotating the armD) Raising the eyebrowsQuestion 18: Which muscle is responsible for plantarflexing the foot atthe ankle?A) Tibialis anteriorB) Vastus medialisC) GastrocnemiusD) Serratus anteriorQuestion 19: Which of the following muscles is located in the anteriorcompartment of the thigh and extends the knee?A) GracilisB) Rectus femorisC) Gluteus maximusD) Tibialis anteriorQuestion 20: The primary function of the external oblique muscle is to:A) Plantar flex the footB) Flex the elbowC) Flex the vertebral column and compress abdominal contentsD) Abduct the armQuestion 21: Which of the following muscles aids in dorsiflexion andinversion of the foot'?A) SoleusB) GastrocnemiusC) Vastus lateralisD) Tibialis anteriorQuestion 22: The sternocleidomastoid muscle assists in:A) Flexing the forearmB) Plantarflexing the footC) Flexing the neck and rotating the headD) Adducting the armQuestion 23: Which muscle group is found in the posteriorcompartment of the thigh and helps in knee flexion?A) QuadricepsB) HamstringsC) AdductorsD) Tibialis groupQuestion 24: The biceps femoris is a part of which muscle group?A) QuadricepsB) HamstringsC) Gastrocnemius groupD) AdductorsQuestion 25: The ability of a muscle to stretch without being damagedis termed:A) ContractilityB) ElasticityC) ExtensibilityD) ExcitabilityQuestion 26: Which muscle is primarily responsible for chewing andelevating the mandible?A) TemporalisB) MasseterC) SternocleidomastoidD) Pectoralis majorQuestion 27: Which muscle abducts the arm and stabilizes the scapula?A) RhomboidB) DeltoidC) Serratus anteriorD) Pectoralis majorQuestion 28: The vastus medialis muscle is part of which group ?A) HamstringsB) QuadricepsC) Gastrocnemius groupD) Adductors11

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Question 29: The primary action of the orbicularis oculi muscle is:A) Elevating the eyebrowsB) Closing the eyelidsC) Protracting the scapulaD) Flexing the elbowQuestion 30: Which of the following muscles is NOT involved in theactions of the arm or shoulder?A) DeltoidB) BicepsC) TrapeziusD) Rectus abdominusQuestion 31: The function of the rectus femoris includes:A) Dorsiflexion of the footB) Abduction of the armC) Extension of the kneeD) Plantar flexion of the footQuestion 32: Which muscle group is responsible for moving thefingers?A) Flexors of the forearmB) Extensors of the forearmC) Both A and BD) Deltoid groupQuestion 33: The muscles located in the calf region, primarilyresponsible for plantar flexion, are:A) Tibialis anterior and posteriorB) Gastrocnemius and soleusC) Rectus femoris and vastus lateralisD) Deltoid and trapeziusQuestion 34: The primary function of the diaphragm muscle is:A) Abducting the armB) Elevating the ribsC) Inspiration during breathingD) Flexing the neckQuestion 35: Which of the following muscles aids in hip flexion andknee extension?A) SartoriusB) Biceps femorisC) SoleusD) DeltoidREPRODUCTIVE SYSTEMQuestion 1: The primary function of the fallopian tubes is to:A) Produce eggsB) Release estrogenC) Transport eggs to the uterusD) Store spermQuestion 2: The external male reproductive organ that also serves asthe urinary excretory duct is:A) Vas deferensB) Seminal vesicleC) Prostate glandD) PenisQuestion 3: The cervix is:A) A tube connecting the ovaries to the uterusB) The inner lining of the uterusC) The lower part of the uterus that connects to the vaginaD) The site of egg productionQuestion 4:Which hormone stimulates the testicles to produce sperm?A) EstrogenB) TestosteroneC) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)D) Luteinizing hormone (LH)Question 5:The structure responsible for producing eggs in females is:A) UterusB) VaginaC) OvaryD) Fallopian tubeQuestion 6:The prostate gland in males secretes:A) SpermB) TestosteroneC) A fluid that nourishes and transports spermD) EstrogenQuestion 7: Which layer of the uterine wall is responsible for monthlymenstrual cycles?A) EndometriumB) MyometriumC) PerimetriumD) EpimetriumQuestion 8:The hormone responsible for the secondary sexualcharacteristics in males, such as facial hair growth, is:A) Gonadotropin-releasing hormoneB) EstrogenC) TestosteroneD) ProgesteroneQuestion 9: The vas deferens:A) Produces testosteroneB) Transports sperm from the testiclesC) Is the outermost layer of the uterusD) Is responsible for egg productionQuestion 10:Which hormone is primarily responsible for stimulatingthe growth of ovarian follicles?A) TestosteroneB) EstrogenC) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)D) Luteinizing hormone (LH)Question 11: The structure that stores mature sperm in the malereproductive system is the:A) Seminal vesicleB) Prostate glandC) EpididymisD) UrethraQuestion 12:Which of the following structures aids in the lubrication ofthe vagina?A) Seminal vesiclesB) Bartholin's glandsC) Prostate glandD) Fallopian tubesQuestion 13:The luteinizing hormone (LH) in males promotes:A) The production of spermB) The release of aneggfrom the ovaryC) The secretion of testosteroneD) The thickening of the endometriumQuestion 14:The function of the seminal vesicles is to:A) Produce spermB) Secrete a fluid that constitutes the majority of the semen volumeC) Protect the entrance to the uterusD) Stimulate the production of estrogen12

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Question 14:The function of the seminal vesicles is to:A) Produce spermB) Secrete a fluid that constitutes the majority of the semen volumeC) Protect the entrance to the uterusD) Stimulate the production of estrogenQuestion 15:The monthly release of an egg from an ovary is termed:A) MenstruationB) OvulationC) FertilizationD) ImplantationQuestion 16: The hormone primarily responsible for maintaining theendometrial lining during the second half of the menstrual cycle is:A) EstrogenB) Luteinizing hormone (LH)C) TestosteroneD) ProgesteroneQuestion 17: Sperm cells mature and gain mobility in the:A) Seminal vesicleB) Prostate glandC) UrethraD) EpididymisQuestion 18: The innermost lining of the uterus that sheds duringmenstruation is the:A) MyometriumB) PerimetriumC) EndometriumD) F.pimetriumQuestion 19: The primary function of the testicles is to:A) Store urineB) Produce sperm and testosteroneC) Secrete a fluid to lubricate the urethraD) Produce eggsQuestion 20: Which part of the female reproductive system is oftentermed the "birth canal"?A) UterusB) CervixC) OvaryD) VaginaQuestion 21:Which hormone stimulates the release of an egg from themature follicle?A) ProgesteroneB) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)C) Luteinizing hormone (LH)D) TestosteroneQuestion 22:The male structure that surrounds the urethra andproduces an alkaline fluid is the:A) EpididymisB) Vas deferensC) Prostate glandD) Seminal vesicleQuestion 23:Which part of the brain regulates the release ofhormones from the pituitary gland that controls reproductivefunctions?A) CerebellumB) Medulla oblongataC) HypothalamusD) ThalamusQuestion 24:The function of the vas deferens is to:A) Produce spermB) Store spermC) Transport sperm from the epididymis to the urethraD) Secrete testosteroneQuestion 25:Estrogen is primarily produced in which structure of thefemale reproductive system?A) UterusB) Fallopian tubesC) CervixD) OvariesQuestion 26:The thick middle layer of the uterine wall, consistingmainly of smooth muscle, is the:A) EndometriumB) MyometriumC) PerimetriumD) EpimetriumQuestion 27:Which of the following best describes the function of theurethra in males?A) Production of spermB) Storage of spermC) Passage for both urine and spermD) Production of seminal fluidQuestion 28:Which hormone primarily prepares the endometrium forthe potential implantation of an embryo?A) EstrogenB) ProgesteroneC) Luteinizing hormone (LH)D) Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)Question 29: The muscular structure where sperm is produced in malesis the:A) Prostate glandB) Vas deferensC) EpididymisD) TesticleQuestion 30:Which of the following is NOT a function of testosterone?A) Development of male secondary sexual characteristicsB) Stimulation of sperm productionC) Preparation of the uterine lining for pregnancyD) Increase in muscle mass and bone densityQuestion 31: Which structure serves as the site of fertilization infemales?A) OvaryB) UterusC) VaginaD) Fallopian tubeQuestion 32: Which of the following describes the function of thehormone follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) in females?A) It triggers ovulationB) It stimulates the growth and maturation of ovarian folliclesC) It prepares the endometrium for implantationD) It inhibits the release of estrogenQuestion 33: Which male structure is responsible for producing a fluidthat nourishes and protects sperm?A) EpididymisB) Seminal vesiclesC) Prostate glandD) Vas deferensQuestion 34: The release of an egg from the ovary is regulated by asurge in which hormone?A) EstrogenB) ProgesteroneC) Luteinizing hormone (LH)D) Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)13

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Question 35: In which layer of the uterine wall does implantation of afertilized egg occur?A) MyometriumB) PerimetriumC) EndometriumD) EpimetriumINTEGUMENTARY SYSTEMQuestion 1: Which is the outermost layer of the skin?A) DermisB) Subcutaneous layerC) EpidermisD) EndodermisQuestion 2: The cells responsible for producing the pigment melanin,which protects against UV radiation, arc:A) KeratinocytesB) MelanocytesC) Langerhans cellsD) FibroblastsQuestion 3: Which layer of the epidermis is responsible for waterresistance and is the outermost layer?A) Stratum basaleB) Stratum spinosumC) Stratum granulosumD) Stratum comeumQuestion 4: In which layer of the skin would you find blood vessels,sweat glands, and hair follicles?A) EpidermisB) DermisC) Subcutaneous layerD) Stratum basaleQuestion 5: Which function of the skin involves the activation of aprecursor molecule into Vitamin D when exposed to sunlight?A) ExcretionB) ImmunityC) SensationD) Vitamin D synthesisQuestion 6: What is the primary function of keratinocytes in the skin?A) Produce melaninB) Detect sensationC) Produce keratinD) Secrete sweatQuestion 7: The layer of the epidermis where new skin cells areproduced and pushed upward is the:A) Stratum lucidumB) Stratum granulosumC) Stratum spinosumD) Stratum basaleQuestion 8: Which type of tissue primarily covers and lines organs,vessels, and cavities?A) Muscle tissueB) Connective tissueC) Epithelial tissueD) Nervous tissueQuestion 9: The function of the skin that involves the elimination ofwaste products like urea and salts through sweat is called:A) ImmunityB) SensationC) ExcretionD) ProtectionQuestion 10:Which of the following is NOT a layer of theintegumentary system?A) EpidermisB) EndodermisC) DermisD) Subcutaneous layerQuestion 11:The connective tissue layer beneath the dermis, whichconnects the skin to underlying muscles, is known as:A) Stratum comeumB) EpidermisC) DermisD) Subcutaneous layerQuestion 12: Which cells found in the epidermis are dead and filled withthe protein keratin?A) MelanocytesB) ComeocytesC) Langerhans cellsD) FibroblastsQuestion 13:Which function of the skin involves the detection oftouch, temperature, and pain?A) ExcretionB) ImmunityC) SensationD) Vitamin D synthesisQuestion 14:Which type of tissue is responsible for transmittingelectrical signals throughout the body?A) Muscle tissueB) Connective tissueC) Epithelial tissueD) Nervous tissueQuestion 15:Sweat and sebaceous glands, which aid in the regulation ofbody temperature, are found in which layer of the skin?A) EpidermisB) DermisC) Subcutaneous layerD) Stratum basaleQuestion 16:Which layer of the epidermis is transparent and is foundonly in thick skin, like that of the palms and soles?A) Stratum lucidumB) Stratum granulosumC) Stratum spinosumD) Stratum basaleQuestion 17:Which function of the skin provides a barrier againstharmful agents such as bacteria and UV radiation?A) ImmunityB) SensationC) ExcretionD) ProtectionQuestion 18:Which type of tissue is primarily involved in bodymovement and generates force?A) Muscle tissueB) Connective tissueC) Epithelial tissueD) Nervous tissueQuestion 19: In which layer of the epidermis are cells filled withgranules that promote dehydration, ultimately leading to cell death?A) Stratum comeumB) Stratum lucidumC) Stratum granulosumD) Stratum spinosum14

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Question 20: Which of the following tissues provides support, storesminerals, and produces blood cells?A) Muscle tissueB) Connective tissueC) Epithelial tissueD) Nervous tissueQuestion 21: Which type of cell in the epidermis helps in the immunedefense against pathogens?A) KeratinoeytesB) MelanocytesC) Langerhans cellsD) ComeocytesQuestion 22: The process of producing sweat to help cool down thebody is an example of the skin's function in:A) ImmunityB) Vitamin D synthesisC) ExcretionD) Regulation of body temperatureQuestion 23: Which layer of the epidermis contains actively dividingcells, replenishing the more superficial layers?A) Stratum corneumB) Stratum spinosumC) Stratum lucidumD) Stratum basaleQuestion 24: Which tissue type primarily lines the body's cavities andsurfaces to protect, secrete, and absorb?A) Muscle tissueB) Connective tissueC) Epithelial tissueD) Nervous tissueQuestion 25: Which of the following is not a function of the skin?A) Synthesis of vitamin B12B) Regulation of body temperatureC) Protection against environmental hazardsD) SensationQuestion 26: Which type of epithelial cell is cube-shaped and oftenspecialized for secretion?A) Squamous cellsB) Columnar cellsC) Cuboidal cellsD) Muscle cellsQuestion 27: Where arc columnar cells commonly found?A) Lining the alveoli of the lungsB) Lining the digestive tractC) Covering the outer skinD) Surrounding organs as a protective layerQuestion 28: Which type of cell is flattened and often forms the liningof cavities, such as the inside of blood vessels?A) Cuboidal cellsB) Columnar cellsC) Squamous cellsD) Cardiac cellsQuestion 29: Which type of muscle tissue is multinucleated and undervoluntary control?A) Smooth muscleB) Cardiac muscleC) Skeletal muscleD) Connective muscleQuestion 30:What is the primary function of cardiac muscle?A) Facilitate body movementB) Contract to pump blood through the heartC) Push food through the digestive systemD) Contract involuntarily to move blood in vesselsQuestion 31: In which location can smooth muscle be primarily found?A) In the walls of arteriesB) Attached to bonesC) In the heart chambersD) Surrounding skeletal musclesQuestion32:Whichtypeofconnectivetissueservesasthemainsupporting framework of the body?A) BloodB) BoneC) CartilageD) Proper connective tissueQuestion 33:Which type of connective tissue acts as a cushion and isfound in places like the external ear and nose?A) Proper connective tissueB) BoneC) BloodD) CartilageQuestion 34:What is the primary function of blood as a connectivetissue?A) Provide a framework for muscle attachmentB) Insulate the body against cold temperaturesC) Transport nutrients, gases, and waste throughout the bodyD) Protect organs from physical damageQuestion 35:Which of the following cells is primarily responsible forproducing the extracellular matrix in proper connective tissues?A) ErythrocytesB) MyocytesC) FibroblastsD) OsteocytesENDOCRINE SYSTEMQuestion1:Whichglandservesastheprimarylinkbetweenthenervous and endocrine systems?A) Adrenal cortexB) Pineal glandC) HypothalamusD) Pancreas isletsQuestion 2: Which of the following hormones is released by the anteriorpituitary gland to stimulate growth and cell reproduction?A) ThyroxineB) AdrenalinC) InsulinD) Growth hormoneQuestion 3: The parathyroid glands primarily regulate which mineral?A) SodiumB) PotassiumC) CalciumD) MagnesiumQuestion4:Whichglandisresponsibleforregulatingthebody'scircadian rhythm?A) Pineal glandB) Thyroid glandC) Adrenal medullaD) Pancreas islets15

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Question 5:The outermost layer of the adrenal glands, whichproduces hormones that help regulate metabolism and immuneresponse, is known as:A) Adrenal medullaB) Pituitary glandC) Adrenal cortexD) Pineal glandQuestion 6:Which section of the adrenal glands releases adrenaline inresponse to stress?A) Adrenal cortexB) Pineal glandC) Pituitary glandD) Adrenal medullaQuestion"I:Which gland regulates the body's metabolic rate andenergy production?A) Pancreas isletsB) Thyroid glandC) Adrenal cortexD) Pineal glandQuestion 8:Which of the following is a function of insulin?A) Raising blood glucose levelsB) Breaking down fatsC) Increasing calcium absorptionD) Reducing blood glucose levelsQuestion 9: Which type of feedback mechanism amplifies the effectsof a system?A) Neutral feedbackB) Positive feedbackC) Negative feedbackD) No feedbackQuestion 10:What is the primary function of the endocrine system?A) Physical support to the bodyB) Secreting digestive enzymesC) Producing hormones to regulate physiological processesD) Providing immune defense against pathogensQuestion 11:Which structure connects the hypothalamus to theanterior pituitary gland and is responsible for the transport ofhormones?A) Adrenal medullaB) Corpus callosumC) Pineal glandD) InfundibulumQuestion 12:Which gland releases hormones that help the bodyrespond to stress and inflammation?A) ThyroidB) PinealC) Adrenal cortexD) PituitaryQuestion 13:The release of which hormone regulates the body's sleep-wake cycle?A) ThyroxineB) AdrenalineC) MelatoninD) InsulinQuestion 14:Which of the following hormones primarily regulates thebody's calcium and phosphorus concentration?A) CortisolB) Parathyroid hormoneC) AdrenalineD) MelatoninQuestion 15:The cells of the pancreas that produce insulin are called:A) Alpha cellsB) Beta cellsC) Gamma cellsD) Delta cellsQuestion 16:What is the primary function of the hormone estrogen?A) Increase blood sugarB) Development of male secondary sexual characteristicsC) Regulate sleep-wake cycleD) Development and regulation of the female reproductive systemQuestion 17:Which hormone plays a key role in the body's fight orflight response by increasing heart rate, breathing rate, and musclestrength?A) OxytocinB) EstrogenC) Adrenaline (epinephrine)D) ThyroxineQuestion 18:Which of the following describes a negative feedbackmechanism?A) It amplifies the initial stimulus.B) It neutralizes the effects of a stimulus.C) It reverses the direction of the stimulus.D) It stabilizes the system by reversing deviations from a set point.Question 19:Which hormone, released by the hypothalamus, primarilysignals the pituitary gland to release or inhibit other hormones?A) CortisolB) MelatoninC) Gonadotropin-releasing hormoneD) AdrenalineQuestion 20: Excessive secretion of growth hormone in adults can leadto which condition characterized by enlarged bones?A) DwarfismB) AcromegalyC) Addison's diseaseD) Cushing's syndromeQuestion 21: In which region of the adrenal gland is aldosteroneproduced?A) Adrenal cortexB) Adrenal medullaC) Pineal glandD) Pancreatic isletsQuestion 22: The thalamus, hypothalamus, and pineal gland arc allparts of which brain structure?A) CerebellumB) BrainstemC) Basal gangliaD) DiencephalonQuestion 23: Which endocrine gland stores but docs not produce,hormones?A) Thyroid glandB) Parathyroid glandC) Pineal glandD) Posterior pituitary glandQuestion 24: The release of which hormone raises blood glucose levels?A) InsulinB) GlucagonC) SomatostatinD) Thyroxine16

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Question 25: Which hormone aids in the maturation of T-lymphocytes,essential for immune response?A) EpinephrineB) ProgesteroneC) ProlactinD) ThymosinQuestion 26: Calcitonin, a hormone that helps regulate calcium levelsin the blood, is produced by which gland?A) ParathyroidB) AdrenalC) PinealD) ThyroidQuestion 27: The "fight or flight" response is triggered by the releaseof hormones from which part of the adrenal gland?A) Adrenal cortexB) Adrenal medullaC) Pineal glandD) Pancreatic isletsQuestion 28: Which of the following is a function of the endocrinesystem?A) Mechanical digestionB) Production of body movementC) Gas exchangeD) Regulation of metabolic activitiesQuestion 29: Which of the following is a primary effect of cortisol, ahormone produced by the adrenal cortex?A) Increases blood sugar levelsB) Stimulates the production of red blood cellsC) Reduces inflammationD) A and CQuestion 30: Which endocrine gland is butterfly-shaped and locatedin the neck?A) ParathyroidB) ThyroidC) PinealD) PituitaryQuestion 31: Which hormone is primarily responsible for regulatingthe body's circadian rhythm?A) InsulinB) MelatoninC) EpinephrineD) CortisolQuestion 32: What differentiates endocrine glands from exocrineglands?A) The type of hormones they produceB) Their location in the bodyC) The manner in which they release their secretionsD) Their involvement in the immune systemQuestion 33: Which of the following hormones stimulates milkproduction in the mammary glands?A) OxytocinB) ProgesteroneC) ProlactinD) VasopressinQuestion 34: In response to low blood calcium levels, which hormoneis released to stimulate the release of calcium from bone?A) CalcitoninB) Parathyroid hormone (PTH)C) InsulinD) ThyroxineQuestion 35: Which structure connects the two lobes of the thyroidgland?A) IsthmusB) FuniculusC) CisternaD) VentricleURINARY SYSTEMQuestion 1: Which structure serves as the functional unit of thekidney?A) MedullaB) Renal pyramidC) NephronD) UreterQuestion 2: Where docs the process of filtration primarily occur withinthe nephron?A) Distal convoluted tubuleB) Loop of HenleC) GlomerulusD) Collecting ductQuestion 3: Which structure carries urine from the kidneys to thebladder?A) UrethraB) Renal arteryC) UreterD) Renal veinQuestion 4: The renal columns are found between which structures?A) Renal pyramidsB) Minor calycesC) Major calycesD) Renal pelvisQuestion 5: What is the primary function of the loop of Henle in thenephron?A) Filtration of bloodB) Secretion of waste productsC) Concentration of urineD) Drainage of urine to the ureterQuestion 6: The thick ascending limb actively reabsorbs which of thefollowing ions?A) SodiumB) PotassiumC) ChlorideD) All of the aboveQuestion 7: Where does most reabsorption of solutes and water occurin the nephron?A) Proximal tubuleB) Distal convoluted tubuleC) Collecting ductD) Loop of HenleQuestion 8: Which hormone promotes the reabsorption of water in thecollecting ducts of the nephron?A) AldosteroneB) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)C) Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)D) InsulinQuestion 9: The renal artery supplies blood to the kidneys. Afterpassing through the glomerulus, where does the blood next flow?A) Peritubular capillariesB) Renal veinC) Efferent arterioleD) Afferent arteriole17

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Question 10: Which structure in the urinary system is responsible forstoring urine until it's excreted from the body?A) UreterB) KidneyC) UrethraD) BladderQuestion 11:Within the kidney, the process ofhelps tomaintain blood pressure and volume by adjusting the amount offiltrate that becomes urine.A) FiltrationB) ReabsorptionC) SecretionD) ExcretionQuestion 12:Which structure is responsible for regulating the finalconcentration and volume of urine?A) Proximal tubuleB) Distal convoluted tubuleC) Collecting ductD) GlomerulusQuestion 13:When blood pH becomes too acidic, how do the kidneyscompensate?A) Reabsorb more bicarbonateB) Excrete more bicarbonateC) Decrease urine productionD) Increase sodium reabsorptionQuestion 14:Which structure connects the renal pelvis to the majorcalyces?A) UreterB) Renal pyramidsC) Minor calycesD) Renal columnsQuestion 15:What is the primary function of the distal convolutedtubule in the nephron?A) Filtration of bloodB) Secretion of substances into the filtrateC) Reabsorption of water and solutesD) Concentration of urineQuestion 16:If there's an increase in blood pressure, what will theglomerular filtration rate (GFR) likely do?A) IncreaseB) DecreaseC) Stay the sameD) Fluctuate randomlyQuestion 17:Which of the following is NOT a primary function of thekidneys?A) Digestion of proteinsB) Regulation of blood pressureC) Removal of waste productsD) Regulation of electrolyte balanceQuestion 18:In which part of the nephron is the filtrate mosthypotonic?A) At the beginning of the proximal tubuleB) At the end of the proximal tubuleC) At the bottom of the loop of HenleD) At the start of the distal convoluted tubuleQuestion 19:What hormone stimulates the kidneys to reabsorb moresodium ions when blood pressure is low?A) InsulinB) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)C) AldosteroneD) Parathyroid hormone (PTH)Question 20: The connecting tubule of the nephron primarily connectsto which structure?A) Proximal tubuleB) Loop of HenleC) Collecting ductD) GlomerulusQuestion 21: What is the primary function of the renal pyramids?A) Secretion of hormonesB) Storage of urineC) Production of filtrateD) Collection of urineQuestion 22: The glomerular filtrate primarily consists of:A) Large proteins and blood cellsB) Hormones and enzymesC) Water, glucose, and small solutesD) Hormones and blood cellsQuestion 23: The process ofremoves waste productsfrom the blood and adds them to the filtrate.A) FiltrationB) ReabsorptionC) SecretionD) ExcretionQuestion 24: Which section of the nephron is impenneable to water,allowing only for solute reabsorption?A) Thin descending limbB) Thin ascending limbC) Thick ascending limbD) Proximal convoluted tubuleQuestion 25: An increase in which hormone would lead to an increase inwater reabsorption in the kidneys?A) InsulinB) Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)C) AldosteroneD) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)Question 26: The initial step in urine formation is:A) Tubular secretionB) Tubular reabsorptionC) Glomerular filtrationD) ExcretionQuestion 27: The renal columns are part of which region of the kidney?A) MedullaB) CortexC) PelvisD) UreterQuestion 28: Which structure of the nephron primarily focuses onconserving water?A) Proximal tubuleB) Distal convoluted tubuleC) Collecting ductD) Loop of HenleQuestion 29: Which process directly leads to the elimination of urinefrom the body?A) FiltrationB) ReabsorptionC) SecretionD) ExcretionQuestion 30:The renal vein primarily carries:A) Oxygenated blood to the kidneyB) Deoxygenated blood away from the kidneyC) Filtered blood to the bladderD) Urine to the ureter18

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Question 31:What role do the minor and major calyces play in urinetransport?A) Produce urineB) Filter urineC) Collect and funnel urine toward the renal pelvisD) Store urineQuestion 32:In which part of the nephron docs fine-tuning of salt andwater balance occur, influenced by aldosterone and ADH?A) Proximal tubuleB) Loop of HenleC) Distal convoluted tubule and collecting ductD) GlomerulusQuestion 33:Which structure connects the bladder to the externalbody, allowing for urine excretion?A) UreterB) UrethraC) Renal pelvisD) Renal columnQuestion 34:An increase in the concentration of which ion woulddirectly stimulate the release of aldosterone to promote itsreabsorption?A) CalciumB) PotassiumC) BicarbonateD) HydrogenQuestion 35:When there's a decrease in blood volume, the kidneyscan stimulate the production of red blood cells by releasing:A) AldosteroneB) Antidiurctic hormone (ADH)C) Erythropoietin (EPO)D) ReninLYMPHATIC SYSTEMQuestion 1: Which structure serves as a site for the maturation of Tlymphocytes?A) Bone marrowB) ThymusC) SpleenD) AppendixQuestion 2: Which type of immunity is present at birth and docs notrely on previous exposure to a pathogen?A) Adaptive immunityB) Innate immunityC) Passive immunityD) Active immunityQuestion 3: The function ofis to filter and trap foreignparticles, bacteria, and cellular debris.A) Bone marrowB) ThymusC) Lymph nodesD) TonsilsQuestion 4: Which white blood cell is most commonly found in bloodand primarily targets bacteria'?A) NeutrophilB) LymphocyteC) MonocyteD) EosinophilQuestion 5: An individual who receives a vaccine for chickenpox isgaining which type of immunity?A) Passive immunityB) Active immunityC) Innate immunityD) Adaptive immunityQuestion 6:Which of the following are specifically known for producingantibodies?A) Helper T cellsB) CytokinesC) Cytotoxic T cellsD) B cellsQuestion 7:Which glandular secretion contains enzymes that attackbacterial cell walls?A) SweatB) TearsC) Gastric juiceD) MucusQuestion 8:What role do the tonsils play in immune function?A) Produce white blood cellsB) Filter lymphC) Act as a physical barrier against pathogens entering the oral cavityD) Produce antibodiesQuestion 9:Which cells are primarily responsible for cellular immunityand directly attack body cells infected with pathogens?A) Helper T cellsB) CytokinesC) Cytotoxic T cellsD) Antigen-presenting cellsQuestion 10:Theis known as the body's "blood filter,”removing old and damaged red blood cells.A) AppendixB) SpleenC) ThymusD) Lymph nodeQuestion 11:The primary function of basophils in the immune responseis to:A) Engulf and digest pathogensB) Produce antibodiesC) Release histamines during inflammatory responsesD) Attack infected body cellsQuestion 12:An antigen is best defined as:A) A protein that destroys pathogensB) A substance that triggers an immune responseC) A white blood cellD) A type of antibodyQuestion 13:Which type of immunity results from the transfer ofantibodies from one individual to another, such as from mother tofetus?A) Passive immunityB) Active immunityC) Innate immunityD) Adaptive immunityQuestion 14:Which white blood cell type has granules that stain redand primarily targets parasites?A) NeutrophilB) LymphocyteC) MonocyteD) EosinophilQuestion 15:The thymus decreases in size and becomes less activewith:A) DigestionB) Physical activityC) AgeD) Hydration19

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Question 16:Which of the following is NOT a component of the innateimmune system?A) SkinB) AntibodiesC) MucusD) Gastric acidQuestion 17:Memory cells function to:A) Directly kill pathogensB) Recognize antigens from previous exposures and mount a fasterimmune responseC) Produce histaminesD) Act as the primary defense against bacterial infectionsQuestion 18:The bone marrow is primarily responsible for:A) Filtering lymphB) Producing white blood cells, red blood cells, and plateletsC) Maturing T lymphocytesD) Storing antibodiesQuestion 19:Which of the following best describes the role of helper Tcells in the immune response?A) Directly killing infected cellsB) Producing antibodiesC) Assisting in the activation of other immune cells by releasingcytokinesD) Presenting antigens to other immune cellsQuestion 20:Which of the following structures stores beneficialbacteria that help in breaking down certain substances in theintestine?A) SpleenB) ThymusC) AppendixD) TonsilsQuestion 21: Ciliated mucous membranes primarily function to:A) Produce white blood cellsB ) Trap and move pathogens out of the respiratory systemC) Filter lymphD) Produce antibodiesQuestion 22:Which white blood cell is primarily responsible forphagocytosis?A) BasophilB) LymphocyteC) NeutrophilD) EosinophilQuestion 23:The antibodies produced by the immune systemspecifically bind to:A) Helper T cellsB) CytokinesC) AntigensD) Memory cellsQuestion 24:The primary role of the spleen in the immune response isto:A) Mature T lymphocytesB) Produce antibodiesC) Filter blood and remove damaged blood cellsD) Trap and remove pathogens from the respiratory systemQuestion 25: What role do antigen-presenting cells (APCs) play in theimmune response?A) Produce antibodiesB) Directly attack pathogensC) Present antigens to helper T cells to initiate an adaptive immuneQuestion 26:Gastric secretions in the stomach contribute to immunityby:A) Producing antibodiesB) Releasing cytokinesC) Creating a low pH environment that destroys many pathogensD) Capturing and presenting antigensQuestion 27:Which of the following is a primary function of theadenoids?A) Producing red blood cellsB) Storing beneficial bacteriaC) Trapping and removing pathogens entering through the nasal cavityD) Producing antibodiesQuestion 28:Erythropoiesis regulation is primarily a function of the:A) SpleenB) Lymph nodesC) Bone marrowD) KidneysQuestion 29:Which white blood cell releases chemicals that intensifythe inflammatory response and are involved in allergic reactions?A) NeutrophilB) BasophilC) MonocyteD) LymphocyteQuestion 30:The cells responsible for producing the humoral immuneresponse by secreting antibodies are:A) Cytotoxic T cellsB) Helper T cellsC) B cellsD) Memory cellsQuestion 31:Which of the following best describes the role of cytokinesin the immune response?A) Direct destruction of pathogensB) Production of antibodiesC) Signaling molecules that mediate and regulate immunity,inflammation, and hematopoiesisD) Capturing and presenting antigensQuestion 32:Which structure in the lymphatic system helps in thematuration of B cells?A) SpleenB) Bone marrowC) ThymusD) AdenoidsQuestion 33:The process by which white blood cells engulf and digestpathogens is called:A) PhagocytosisB) PinocytosisC) OsmosisD) Active transportQuestion 34:In an allergic reaction, which cells release histamines thatcause symptoms like itching and inflammation?A) EosinophilsB) NeutrophilsC) BasophilsD) MonocytesQuestion 35:Which of the following is NOT a sign of inflammation?A) RednessB) PainC) ColdnessD) SwellingresponseD) Release histamines20

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Question 12: In which part of the bone is yellow bone marrow primarilyfound?A) PeriosteumB) EpiphysisC) DiaphysisD) Articular cartilageQuestion 13:The function of articular cartilage is to:A) Produce blood cellsB) Store yellow bone marrowC) Provide a smooth surface for joint movementD) Connect bones to musclesQuestion 14:The patella is also known as the:A) Elbow capB) Ankle capC) Wrist capD) KneecapQuestion 15:Which of the following is a part of the thorax?A) SternumB) UlnaC) SacrumD) FemurQuestion 16:What type of bone is primarily composed of trabeculaeand appears porous?A) Compact boneB) Spongy boneC) Articular boneD) Epiphyseal boneQuestion 17:The zygomatic bone is commonly referred to as the:A) JawboneB) CheekboneC) Forehead boneD) Chin boneQuestion 18:Which of the following is NOT a function of bones?A) Production of hormones like insulinB) Storage of minerals like calciumC) Blood cell productionD) Support for the body structureQuestion 19:The hip bone is part of which section of the skeleton?A) CranialB) ThoracicC) AxialD) AppendicularQuestion 20:The bones that form the wrist are known as:A) CarpalsB) TarsalsC) MetacarpalsD) PhalangesQuestion 21:Which bone protects the brain?A) MandibleB) SternumC) CraniumD) TibiaQuestion 22:Which of the following is NOT a type of bone based onshape?A) Circular boneB) Flat boneC) Long boneD) Sesamoid boneSKELETAL SYSTEMQuestion 1: Which of the following bones forms the forehead?A) TemporalB) ParietalC) OccipitalD) FrontalQuestion 2: The vertebrae are part of which division of the skeleton?A) AppendicularB) AxialC) FemoralD) TibialQuestion 3: The primary site of blood cell production in adults is:A) Yellow bone marrowB) Spongy boneC) Red bone marrowD) PeriosteumQuestion 4: Which of the following joints allows for a wide range ofmovement?A) SynarthrosisB) AmphiarthrosisC) DiarthrosisD) None of the aboveQuestion 5: The femur is an example of which type of bone?A) FlatB) ShortC) LongD) SesamoidQuestion 6: The bones that form the palm of the hand are known as:A) CarpalsB) MetacarpalsC) PhalangesD) TarsalsQuestion 7: Which of the following is NOT a function of the skeletalsystem?A) Hormone productionB) Providing support and shape to the bodyC) Protection of vital organsD) Storage of mineralsQuestion 8: The hard, dense bone tissue that forms the outer layer ofbone is known as:A) Compact boneB) Spongy boneC) Trabecular boneD) MarrowQuestion 9: Which bone forms the lower jaw?A) MaxillaB) MandibleC) ZygomaticD) FrontalQuestion 10: The epiphyseal line is:A) Found in mature bones and is a remnant of the epiphyseal plateB) The primary location for bone marrow storageC) The outermost layer of bone tissueD) Part of the bone responsible for producing blood cellsQuestion 11: Which of the following bones is found in the foot?A) MetatarsalB) UlnaC) RadiusD) Humerus21

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Question 23: Which part of the bone contains the epiphyseal line inmature bones?A) DiaphysisB) PeriosteumC) EpiphysisD) EndosteumQuestion 24: The spinal column is responsible for:A) Protecting the spinal cordB) Assisting in movement and flexibilityC) Providing support to the bodyD) All of the aboveQuestion 25: Which of the following bones is part of the axialskeleton?A) FemurB) TibiaC) HumerusD) SternumQuestion 26: Which of the following bones is the longest bone in thehuman body?A) TibiaB) FemurC) HumerusD) RadiusQuestion 27: A sesamoid bone is typically found embedded within:A) LigamentsB) TendonsC) MusclesD) CartilageQuestion 28: Brittle bone disease, also known as osteogenesisimperfecta, is a condition characterized by:A) Excess bone densityB) Lack of bone marrowC) Fragile bones that break easilyD) Overproduction of bone tissueQuestion 29: The periosteum is:A) The inner lining of the boneB) The outer covering of the boneC) A type of bone tissueD) The central cavity of the boneQuestion 30: The primary function of the appendicular skeleton is to:A) Protect vital organsB) Support the body's weightC) Facilitate movementD) House the brainQuestion 31: The primary cells responsible for bone formation are:A) OsteoclastsB) OsteoblastsC) OstcocytcsD) ChondrocytesQuestion 32: The spongy bone is also known as:A) Cortical boneB) Trabecular boneC) Subchondral boneD) Lamellar boneQuestion 33: Which of the following best describes the location of thetibia?A) The larger of the two bones in the upper armB) The larger of the two bones in the lower leg, situated mediallyC) The smaller of the two bones in the lower leg, situated laterallyD) The bone in the forearm on the side of the thumbQuestion 34:Flat bones, such as the bones of the skull, primarily servewhich of the following functions?A) Leverage for muscle attachmentB) Protection of underlying organsC) Weight-bearing supportD) Facilitating a wide range of movementsQuestion 35:In mature bones, the space which originally contained theepiphyseal plate is called the:A) Articular cartilageB) Medullary cavityC) Epiphyseal lineD) Periosteal cavityBIOLOGICAL HIERARCHY OF THE BODYQuestion 1: Which of the following is the most specific level of thebiological hierarchy?A) PhylumB) ClassC) OrderD) SpeciesQuestion 2: What is the correct hierarchical order from most broad tomost specific?A) Family, Genus, SpeciesB) Phylum, Kingdom, ClassC) Kingdom, Phylum, ClassD) Species, Genus, FamilyQuestion 3: Which structure is responsible for the synthesis ofproteins in a cell?A) MitochondriaB) Golgi apparatusC) RibosomesD) VacuoleQuestion 4: What structure in a cell serves as the storage andpackaging center for cell products?A) Rough Endoplasmic ReticulumB) LysosomesC) Golgi ApparatusD) NucleusQuestion 5: Which level of the biological hierarchy is directly above theorgan level?A) CellsB) Organ systemsC) TissuesD) OrganismsQuestion 6: In which organelle is the genetic material of a cell stored?A) MitochondriaB) CytoplasmC) NucleusD) RibosomesQuestion 7: The biological hierarchy level that includes multicellular orunicellular entities is known as:A) GenusB) KingdomC) FamilyD) OrderQuestion 8: Which cell structure is responsible for lipid synthesis?A) Rough Endoplasmic ReticulumB) Smooth Endoplasmic ReticulumC) Golgi ApparatusD) Mitochondria22

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Question 9: Which of the following describes the function oflysosomes?A) Energy productionB) Protein synthesisC) Digestion of cellular wasteD) Storing genetic materialQuestion 10: Which organelle is often referred to as the "powerhouse"of the cell?A) RibosomesB) NucleusC) MitochondriaD) VacuoleQuestion 11: In the biological hierarchy, which is the largest grouping?A) FamilyB) GenusC) KingdomD) PhylumQuestion 12: Which of the following is directly made up of cells?A) Organ systemsB) TissuesC) OrganismsD) OrganQuestion 13: The cell membrane primarily consists of which of thefollowing?A) ProteinsB) PhospholipidsC) CarbohydratesD) Nucleic acidsQuestion 14: Which structure is involved in the production andmodification of polysaccharides and glycoproteins?A) Smooth Endoplasmic ReticulumB) RibosomesC) Golgi ApparatusD) LysosomesQuestion 15: Which cell structure is responsible for detoxifying drugsand poisons in the liver?A) Rough Endoplasmic ReticulumB) Smooth Endoplasmic ReticulumC) LysosomesD) NucleusQuestion 16: What is the role of the vacuole in plant cells?A) Energy productionB) Protein synthesisC) Storing nutrients and waste productsD) Lipid synthesisQuestion 17: What is the primary function of ribosomes attached tothe rough endoplasmic reticulum?A) DNA replicationB) Synthesis of membrane proteinsC) Detoxification of drugsD) Synthesis of carbohydratesQuestion 18: In the biological hierarchy of the body, the ___ is a groupof similar organisms that can breed and produce fertile offspring.A) FamilyB) GenusC) SpeciesD) OrderQuestion 19: Which organelle is primarily responsible for producingATP, the main energy currency of the cell?A) Golgi apparatusB) RibosomeC) MitochondriaD) Smooth Endoplasmic ReticulumQuestion 20: The stratum corncum is the outermost layer of which partof the cell?A) NucleusB) MitochondriaC) CytoplasmD) Cell membraneQuestion 21:Which of the following sequences correctly representsthe hierarchy from simplest to most complex?A) Cells, Tissues. Organs, Organ systems, OrganismsB) Tissues, Cells, Organs, Organisms, Organ systemsC) Organ systems. Organs, Tissues, Cells, OrganismsD) Organisms, Organ systems. Organs, Tissues, CellsQuestion 22: Which of the following structures is responsible forpackaging proteins into vesicles for transport out of the cell?A) Rough Endoplasmic ReticulumB) NucleusC) MitochondriaD) Golgi ApparatusQuestion 23:Where are ribosomal RNA and ribosomal proteinscombined to form functional ribosomes?A) NucleusB) CytoplasmC) Golgi apparatusD) NucleolusQuestion 24:Which cell organelle is responsible for breaking downwaste and old cell components?A) Golgi ApparatusB) LysosomesC) RibosomesD) Endoplasmic ReticulumQuestion 25:In the biological hierarchy, which category falls directlybelow the kingdom level?A) OrderB) GenusC) FamilyD) PhylumQuestion 26:What is the primary function of the smooth endoplasmicreticulum?A) Protein synthesisB) ATP productionC) Lipid synthesis and detoxificationD) Digesting cellular wasteQuestion 27:In the biological hierarchy, which level includes similarspecies grouped together based on common characteristics?A) ClassB) GenusC) OrderD) FamilyQuestion 28:Which part of a cell is responsible for controlling whichsubstances enter or leave the cell?A) CytoplasmB) NucleusC) Cell membraneD) Mitochondria23

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Question 29: The ___ packages and sorts proteins before they aresent to their final destinations.A) NucleusB) LysosomeC) Golgi ApparatusD) RibosomeQuestion 30: Which part of the cell structure is responsible forproducing rRNA and assembling ribosomes?A) MitochondriaB) NucleolusC) Golgi apparatusD) Smooth Endoplasmic ReticulumQuestion 31: Which type of cell structure is involved in the synthesisand transport of lipids and contains no ribosomes?A) Rough Endoplasmic ReticulumB) Smooth Endoplasmic ReticulumC) Golgi ApparatusD) LysosomesQuestion 32: In taxonomic classification, what is the most specificlevel?A) KingdomB) FamilyC) GenusD) SpeciesQuestion 33: Which organelle is considered the "powerhouse" of thecell due to its role in producing energy?A) NucleusB) Golgi ApparatusC) MitochondriaD) Endoplasmic ReticulumQuestion 34: What is the primary function of the cell membrane'sphospholipid bilayer?A) Synthesis of proteinsB) Detoxification of substancesC) Providing a protective barrier for the cellD) Production of ATPQuestion 35: Within the biological hierarchy of the body, which levelprovides the most general classification?A) SpeciesB) GenusC) KingdomD) FamilyMITOSIS AND MEIOSISQuestion 1: Which stage of the cell cycle is primarily characterized bythe cell preparing for division by copying its DNA?A) ProphaseB) InterphaseC) AnaphaseD) TelophaseQuestion 2: What is the primary difference between mitosis andmeiosis?A) Mitosis produces two diploid daughter cells; meiosis produces fourdiploid daughter cells.B) Mitosis produces two diploid daughter cells; meiosis produces fourhaploid daughter cells.C) Mitosis produces two haploid daughter cells; meiosis produces fourdiploid daughter cells.D) Both processes produce haploid daughter cells.Question 3:In which phase of mitosis do the chromosomes align in themiddle of the cell?A) InterphaseB) ProphaseC) MetaphaseD) AnaphaseQuestion 4:Which phase of meiosis is characterized by the separationof homologous chromosomes?A) Anaphase IB) Metaphase IC) Prophase IID) Anaphase IIQuestion 5:When does crossing over, which results in geneticrecombination, primarily occur?A) Prophase of MitosisB) Anaphase of MitosisC) Prophase I of MeiosisD) Prophase II of MeiosisQuestion 6:At the end of telophase in mitosis, what structure begins toform around each set of sister chromatids?A) Nuclear envelopeB) Cell wallC) Mitochondrial membraneD) Golgi apparatusQuestion 7:How many rounds of cell division occur in meiosis?A) OneB) TwoC) ThreeD) FourQuestion 8:In which stage of mitosis do the centromeres split andsister chromatids separate?A) InterphaseB) ProphaseC) MetaphaseD) AnaphaseQuestion 9:Which of the following processes reduces the chromosomenumber by halt?A) MitosisB) MeiosisC) Binary fissionD) BuddingQuestion 10:Which phase of meiosis is similar to mitosis in terms ofevents and outcomes?A) Meiosis IB) Meiosis IIC) Both Meiosis I and IID) Neither Meiosis I nor ITQuestion 11:What event during meiosis can lead to genetic diversityamong offspring?A) DNA replicationB) CytokinesisC) Spindle formationD) Crossing overQuestion 12:Which stage immediately follows metaphase in mitosis?A) ProphaseB) TelophaseC) AnaphaseD) Interphase24

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Question 13: During which phase of meiosis do tetrads form andcrossing over occurs?A) Prophase IB) Metaphase IC) Anaphase ID) Prophase IIQuestion 14: Which event is unique to meiosis and is not seen inmitosis?A) Chromosome replicationB) CytokinesisC) Separation of sister chromatidsD) Synapsis of homologous chromosomesQuestion 15: In which phase of mitosis does the nuclear envelopedisintegrate and chromosomes become visible?A) ProphaseB) MetaphaseC) AnaphaseD) TelophaseQuestion 16: How many daughter cells are produced at the end ofmeiosis II?A) OneB) TwoC) ThreeD) FourQuestion 17: Which of the following is the correct order of phases inmitosis?A) Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, TelophaseB) Anaphase, Metaphase, Prophase, TelophaseC) Metaphase, Prophase, Anaphase, TelophaseD) Telophase, Anaphase, Prophase, MetaphaseQuestion 18: Which phase of meiosis involves the alignment of tetradsat the center of the cell?A) Prophase IB) Metaphase IC) Anaphase ID) Metaphase IIQuestion 19: In which stage of mitosis does the cleavage furrow or cellplate begin to form?A) ProphaseB) MetaphaseC) AnaphaseD) TelophaseQuestion 20: Which process primarily ensures the maintenance ofchromosome number across generations in sexually reproducingorganisms?A) MitosisB) MeiosisC) Binary fissionD) BuddingQuestion 21:During which phase of mitosis do sister chromatidsbecome maximally condensed and become clearly visible under themicroscope?A) InterphaseB) ProphaseC) MetaphaseD) AnaphaseQuestion 22:At the end of Meiosis I, the resulting cells are:A) Diploid and genetically identical.B) Diploid and genetically different.C) Haploid and genetically identical.D) Haploid and genetically different.Question 23: Which phase of meiosis involves the separation of sisterchromatids?A) Prophase IB) Anaphase IC) Metaphase IID) Anaphase IIQuestion 24: In mitosis, what ensures that each daughter cell gets acomplete set of chromosomes?A) DNA replication during interphaseB) Crossing over during prophaseC) The alignment of chromosomes during metaphaseD) The reduction divisionQuestion 25: When does the number of chromosomes get halved duringmeiosis?A) During DNA replicationB) Anaphase of Meiosis IC) Telophase of Meiosis IID) Metaphase of Meiosis IQuestion 26: Which structure holds the sister chromatids togetheruntil they separate during mitosis or meiosis?A) CentrioleB) Spindle fiberC) CentromereD) NucleosomeQuestion 27: Which of the following cells undergo mitosis?A) Somatic cellsB) Germ cellsC) GametesD) ZygotesQuestion 28: Which phase of meiosis introduces genetic variabilitythrough the random alignment of maternal and paternalchromosomes?A) Prophase IB) Metaphase IC) Anaphase 1D) Prophase IIQuestion 29: In which stage of mitosis does the cell officially split intotwo daughter cells?A) ProphaseB) MetaphaseC) AnaphaseD) CytokinesisQuestion 30: In meiosis, when do homologous chromosomes pair up?A) InterphaseB) Prophase IC) Metaphase IID) Telophase ITGENETICS AND DNAQuestion 1: How many chromosomes are typically found in a humanbody cell?A) 23B) 46C) 92D) 64Question 2: In eukaryotes, DNA is primarily found in the:A) NucleusB) RibosomeC) CytoplasmD) Cell wall25

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Question 3: Which nitrogenous base pairs with adenine in DNA?A) GuanineB) CytosineC) ThymineD) UracilQuestion 4: What is the primary function of mRNA?A) TranslationB) ReplicationC) DNA repairD) TranscriptionQuestion 5: Which of the following is NOT a type of RNA?A) Messenger RNA (mRNA)B) Transfer RNA (tRNA)C) Ribosomal DNA (rDNA)D) Ribosomal RNA (rRNA)Question 6: In which process is an RNA molecule synthesized from aDNA template?A) ReplicationB) TranslationC) TranscriptionD) MutationQuestion 7:If an organism has two identical alleles for a trait, it is:A) HomozygousB) HeterozygousC) PhenotypicD) GenomicQuestion 8: In a Punnett square, what does the capital letterrepresent?A) Recessive traitB) Dominant traitC) PhenotypeD) Genomic traitQuestion 9: What type of inheritance results in a phenotype that is ablend of two heterozygous alleles?A) Co-dominanceB) Multiple allelesC) Polygenic traitsD) Incomplete dominanceQuestion 10:Which nitrogenous base in RNA pairs with adenine ofDNA during transcription?A) ThymineB) UracilC) CytosineD) GuanincQuestion 11:Which part of the cell reads mRNA and assembles aminoacids into proteins?A) LysosomeB) Golgi apparatusC) RibosomeD) Endoplasmic reticulumQuestion 12: The observable physical or biochemical characteristics ofan organism are referred to as its:A) GenotypeB) PhenotypeC) GenomeD) GenomicsQuestion 13:Which RNA type brings amino acids to the ribosomeduring protein synthesis?A) mRNAB) tRNAC) rRNAD) rniRNAQuestion 14: In humans, how many genes approximately do they have?A) 10,000B) 30,000C) 20,000D) 50,000Question 15: What is the role of regulatory genes?A) Code for structural proteinsB) Control the expression of other genesC) Determine physical characteristicsD) Repair DNA mutationsQuestion 16: If a trait is controlled by multiple genes rather than asingle gene, it is known as:A) Co-dominanceB) Incomplete dominanceC) Polygenic inheritanceD) Dihybrid crossQuestion 17: Which of the following involves both a dominant and arecessive allele being expressed, resulting in a phenotype that displaysboth traits?A) Incomplete dominanceB) Co-dominanceC) Multiple allelesD) Polygenic inheritanceQuestion 18: The process by which DNA is duplicated before celldivision is called:A) TranscriptionB) TranslationC) ReplicationD) MutationQuestion 19: Which of the following involves the physical appearance ofan organism?A) GenotypeB) PhenotypeC) Gene poolD) Genetic codeQuestion 20: What is the total number of codons that code for aminoacids?A) 20B) 23C) 64D) 46Question 21: Which of the following structures is responsible forbringing the genetic information from the nucleus to the ribosome?A) tRNAB) rRNAC) mRNAD) DNAQuestion 22: If a trait is NOT expressed in the presence of a dominantallele, it is referred to as:A) DominantB) Co-dominantC) Incomplete dominantD) RecessiveQuestion 23: During which process are tRNAs used to add amino acidsto a growing polypeptide chain?A) ReplicationB) TranscriptionC) TranslationD) Mutation26

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Question 24:Which term refers to the combination of alleles anorganism has for a particular trait?A) GenotypeB) PhenotypeC) ChromotypeD) GenomicsQuestion 25: If a gene is present on one of the first 22 pairs of humanchromosomes, it is said to be:A) AutosomalB) Sex-linkedC) RecessiveD) DominantQuestion 26:Which molecule carries the amino acid to the ribosomeduring protein synthesis?A) mRNAB) rRNAC) tRNAD) DNAQuestion 27:Which of the following is NOT a nitrogenous base in DNA?A) AdenineB) UracilC) GuanineD) CytosineQuestion 28:The law that states alleles for different traits aredistributed to sex cells independently is Mendel's Law of:A) DominanceB) SegregationC) Independent AssortmentD) Incomplete DominanceQuestion 29:What term describes the situation where multiple genesdetermine a single trait?A) Multiple AllelesB) Polygenic InheritanceC) Co-dominanceD) Incomplete DominanceQuestion 30:In a heterozygous genotype, which allele is typicallyexpressed in the phenotype?A) Neither alleleB) Both alleles equallyC) The recessive alleleD) The dominant alleleQuestion 31:When an individual inherits two different alleles for atrait, they are described as:A) HomozygousB) HeterozygousC) MonozygousD) PolygenicQuestion 32: If both parents arc heterozygous for a trait, what is theprobability that an offspring will be homozygous dominant for thattrait using a Punnett square?A) 25%B) 50%C) 75%D) 100%Question 33:In a dihybrid cross involving two heterozygous genes(AaBb x AaBb), what is the probability of producing an offspring that ishomozygous dominant for both traits?A) 1/16B) 1/4C) 1/8D) 1/2Question 34: A situation where the heterozygous phenotype issomewhere between the two homozygous phenotypes is called:A) CodominanceB) Multiple allelesC) Incomplete dominanceD) Polygenic inheritanceQuestion 35: Which of the following best describes when two dominantalleles are both expressed in a heterozygous individual?A) Incomplete dominanceB) CodominanceC) Dihybrid inheritanceD) Polygenic inheritanceQuestion 36: What represents an organism's physical characteristicsor appearance?A) GenotypeB) PhenotypeC) KaryotypeD) GenomicsQuestion 37: In the ABO blood group system, what type of inheritanceexplains why an individual with an lAi genotype has type A blood?A) CodominanceB) Multiple allelesC) Incomplete dominanceD) Dihybrid inheritanceQuestion 38: In a Punnett square, if one parent is homozygousdominant (AA) and the other is homozygous recessive (aa), whatpercentage of the offspring will display the dominant phenotype?A) 25%B) 50%C) 75%D) 100%Question 39: Which of the following represents the genetic makeup ofan individual?A) GenotypeB) PhenotypeC) KaryotypeD) GenomicsQuestion 40: In pea plants, the allele for yellow seeds (Y) is dominantover the allele for green seeds (y). If a plant with genotype Yy iscrossed with a yy plant, what fraction of the offspring is expected tohave green seeds?A) 1/4B) 1/203/4D) NoneQuestion 41:In cats, there's a gene where black fur (B) is dominantover white fur (b). Two heterozygous cats (Bb) mate. What percentageof their offspring is expected to be white?A) 25%B) 50%C) 75%D) NoneQuestion 42:In the inheritance of a trait governed by codominance, aheterozygote will express:A) Only the dominant traitB) Only the recessive traitC) Neither traitD) Both traits equally27

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Question 43:Which of the following best describes a trait that isdetermined by more than two genes?A) CodominanceB) Multiple allelesC) Incomplete dominanceD) Polygenic inheritanceQuestion 44:What inheritance pattern docs the ABO blood groupsystem demonstrate due to the presence of three different allelesthat determine blood type?A) CodominanceB) Multiple allelesC)Incomplete dominanceD) Polygenic inheritanceQuestion 45:If a plant that is homozygous for round seeds (RR) iscrossed with a plant that is homozygous for wrinkled seeds (rr), whatwill be the genotype of the F1 generation?A) RRB) RrC) rrD) None of the aboveQuestion 46:When an individual's phenotype is influenced by morethan one pair of genes, this is known as:A) CodominanceB) Multiple allelesC) Incomplete dominanceD) Polygenic inheritanceQuestion 47:An organism's observable characteristics are determinedby its:A) GenotypeB) PhenotypeC) EnvironmentD) Both A and CQuestion 48: In humans, when a child inherits one recessive allele forblue eyes (b) and one dominant allele for brown eyes (B), the child willhave:A) Blue eyesB) Brown eyesC) A mixture of blue and brownD) None of the aboveQuestion 49:If an individual exhibits a blend of two parental traits,this is most likely a result of:A) CodominanceB) Multiple allelesC) Incomplete dominanceD) Polygenic inheritanceQuestion 50:What pattern of inheritance is seen when a heterozygousindividual expresses both alleles, but not as a blend?A) CodominanceB) Multiple allelesC) Incomplete dominanceD) Polygenic inheritanceBASIC MACROMOLECULESQuestion 1: Which of the following is a monosaccharide?A) SucroseB) LactoseC) StarchD) GlucoseQuestion 2:What bond forms between two monosaccharide units in adisaccharide?A) Hydrogen bondB) Glycosidic bondC) Peptide bondD) Ionic bondQuestion 3:Which carbohydrate is primarily stored in the liver andmuscles for energy?A) GlycogenB) GalactoseC) FructoseD) CelluloseQuestion 4:Which is NOT a function of proteins in the body?A) Store genetic informationB) Act as enzymesC) Transport moleculesD) Provide structural supportQuestion 5:What level of protein structure involves the sequence ofamino acids in the polypeptide chain?A) PrimaryB) SecondaryC) TertiaryD) QuaternaryQuestion 6:Which carbohydrate form is helix-shaped?A) CelluloseB) StarchC) GlycogenD) LactoseQuestion 7:Which of the following proteins acts as a catalyst in variousbiochemical reactions?A) EnzymesB) AntibodiesC) HormonesD) CollagenQuestion 8:Which of the following is NOT a disaccharide?A) MaltoseB) RiboseC) LactoseD) SucroseQuestion 9:Which protein provides structural support in skin andconnective tissues?A) HemoglobinB) CollagenC) InsulinD) MyosinQuestion 10: What component makes up the basic structure ofproteins?A) NucleotidesB) Amino acidsC) Fatty acidsD) MonosaccharidesQuestion 11:Which of the following carbohydrates is primarily astructural molecule in the cell walls of plants?A) StarchB) GlycogenC) CelluloseD) Fructose28

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Question 12:Which level of protein structure is determined by thespatial arrangement of multiple polypeptide chains?A) PrimaryB) SecondaryC) TertiaryD) QuaternaryQuestion 13:Lactose is composed of which two monosaccharides?A) Glucose and fructoseB) Glucose and galactoseC) Glucose and glucoseD) Galactose and fructoseQuestion 14:Which protein function involves carrying oxygenthroughout the body?A) StructuralB) StorageC) TransportD) EnzymaticQuestion 15:Which carbohydrate form can have a branchedstructure?A) SucroseB) GlycogenC) RiboseD) FructoseQuestion 16:The specific sequence of which molecules determines thefunction of a protein?A) NucleotidesB) Fatty acidsC) Amino acidsD) SugarsQuestion 17:What is the primary role of carbohydrates in the body?A) Store genetic informationB) Provide quick energyC) Act as enzymesD) Facilitate communication between cellsQuestion 18:Which level of protein structure involves the alpha-helixand beta-pleated sheet formations?A) PrimaryB) SecondaryC) TertiaryD) QuaternaryQuestion 19:Which of the following is NOT a monosaccharide?A) GlucoseB) FructoseC) RiboseD) MaltoseQuestion 20:Which protein type facilitates chemical reactionswithout being consumed in the process?A) Storage proteinsB) Transport proteinsC) Structural proteinsD) EnzymesQuestion 21:Which carbohydrate form is linear and unbranched?A) GlycogenB) CelluloseC) StarchD) LactoseQuestion 22:Which level of protein structure is determined byinteractions between side chains of amino acids?A) PrimaryB) SecondaryC) TertiaryD) QuaternaryQuestion 23:Which disaccharide is found in table sugar?A) LactoseB) MaltoseC) SucroseD) CelluloseQuestion 24:Which protein type is primarily involved in storing aminoacids for later use?A) Structural proteinsB) Storage proteinsC) Transport proteinsD) EnzymesQuestion 25:The molecule that provides quick energy for cells and is aproduct of photosynthesis is:A) GlucoseB) StarchC) CelluloseD) GalactoseQuestion 26:Which protein is responsible for muscle contraction?A) HemoglobinB) MyosinC) CollagenD) AlbuminQuestion 27: In which carbohydrate form are the sugar units primarilybranched?A) GlycogenB) RiboseC) FructoseD) CelluloseQuestion 28:The function of which protein involves transporting vitalmolecules like oxygen?A) KeratinB) HemoglobinC) ActinD) InsulinQuestion 29:Which carbohydrate cannot be digested by humandigestive enzymes?A) StarchB) GlycogenC) CelluloseD) LactoseQuestion 30: Which type of protein is responsible for the elasticity ofskin?A) CollagenB) KeratinC) ElastinD) MyosinQuestion 31: The molecule known as the "milk sugar" is:A) MaltoseB) LactoseC) FructoseD) SucroseQuestion 32:Which type of protein protects the body from pathogens?A) EnzymesB) HormonesC) AntibodiesD) Storage proteinsQuestion 33:Which carbohydrate form provides plants with their rigidstructure?A) GlycogenB) SucroseC) StarchD) Cellulose29

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