CCNA Basic Questions
This CCNA quiz covers key networking topics: MAC address structure, collision and broadcast domains, IOS storage limits, MTU meaning, Ethernet duplex modes, and CSMA/CD. It reinforces foundational concepts essential for Cisco certification success.
Mason Bennett
Contributor
4.6
39
3 months ago
Preview (78 of 259)
Sign in to access the full document!
CCNA - Basic Questions
Question 1
What is the first 24 bits in a MAC address called?
A. NIC
B. BIA
C. GUI
D. VAI
Answer: C
Explanation
Organizational Unique Identifier (GUI) is the first 24 bits of a MAC address for a network device,
which indicates the specific vendor for that device as assigned by the Institute of Electrical and
Electronics Engineers, Incorporated (IEEE). This identifier uniquely identifies a vendor,
manufacturer, or an organization.
Question 2
Which of the following statements describe the network shown in the graphic? (Choose two)
A. There are two broadcast domains in the network.
B. There are four broadcast domains in the network.
C. There are six broadcast domains in the network.
D. There are four collision domains in the network.
E. There are five collision domains in the network.
F. There are seven collision domains in the network.
Question 1
What is the first 24 bits in a MAC address called?
A. NIC
B. BIA
C. GUI
D. VAI
Answer: C
Explanation
Organizational Unique Identifier (GUI) is the first 24 bits of a MAC address for a network device,
which indicates the specific vendor for that device as assigned by the Institute of Electrical and
Electronics Engineers, Incorporated (IEEE). This identifier uniquely identifies a vendor,
manufacturer, or an organization.
Question 2
Which of the following statements describe the network shown in the graphic? (Choose two)
A. There are two broadcast domains in the network.
B. There are four broadcast domains in the network.
C. There are six broadcast domains in the network.
D. There are four collision domains in the network.
E. There are five collision domains in the network.
F. There are seven collision domains in the network.
CCNA - Basic Questions
Question 1
What is the first 24 bits in a MAC address called?
A. NIC
B. BIA
C. GUI
D. VAI
Answer: C
Explanation
Organizational Unique Identifier (GUI) is the first 24 bits of a MAC address for a network device,
which indicates the specific vendor for that device as assigned by the Institute of Electrical and
Electronics Engineers, Incorporated (IEEE). This identifier uniquely identifies a vendor,
manufacturer, or an organization.
Question 2
Which of the following statements describe the network shown in the graphic? (Choose two)
A. There are two broadcast domains in the network.
B. There are four broadcast domains in the network.
C. There are six broadcast domains in the network.
D. There are four collision domains in the network.
E. There are five collision domains in the network.
F. There are seven collision domains in the network.
Question 1
What is the first 24 bits in a MAC address called?
A. NIC
B. BIA
C. GUI
D. VAI
Answer: C
Explanation
Organizational Unique Identifier (GUI) is the first 24 bits of a MAC address for a network device,
which indicates the specific vendor for that device as assigned by the Institute of Electrical and
Electronics Engineers, Incorporated (IEEE). This identifier uniquely identifies a vendor,
manufacturer, or an organization.
Question 2
Which of the following statements describe the network shown in the graphic? (Choose two)
A. There are two broadcast domains in the network.
B. There are four broadcast domains in the network.
C. There are six broadcast domains in the network.
D. There are four collision domains in the network.
E. There are five collision domains in the network.
F. There are seven collision domains in the network.
Answer: A F
Explanation
Only router can break up broadcast domains so in the exhibit there are 2 broadcast domains: from eO
interface to the left is a broadcast domain and from el interface to the right is another broadcast
domain -> A is correct.
Both router and switch can break up collision domains so there is only 1 collision domain on the left
of the router (because hub doesn't break up collision domain) and there are 6 collision domains on
the right of the router (1 collision domain from el interface to the switch + 5 collision domains for 5
PCs in Production) -> F is correct.
Question 3
Refer to the exhibit:
System flash director
File Length Name/status
1 3802992 c827v-y6-mz.121-l.XB
[3803056 bytes used,4585552 available, 8388608 total]
8192K bytes of processor board System flash(Read/Write)
The technician wants to upload a new IOS in the router while keeping the existing IOS. What is the
maximum size of an IOS file that could be loaded if the original IOS is also kept in flash?
A. 3MB
B. 5MB
C. 7MB
D. 4MB
Answer: D
Explanation
From the exhibit we learn there are 4585552 bytes (over 4MB) available so it is only enough space
for an IOS file of 4MB. If bigger file is copied then the existing IOS file will be erased (overwritten).
Question 4
Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the output MTU 1500 bytes?
Explanation
Only router can break up broadcast domains so in the exhibit there are 2 broadcast domains: from eO
interface to the left is a broadcast domain and from el interface to the right is another broadcast
domain -> A is correct.
Both router and switch can break up collision domains so there is only 1 collision domain on the left
of the router (because hub doesn't break up collision domain) and there are 6 collision domains on
the right of the router (1 collision domain from el interface to the switch + 5 collision domains for 5
PCs in Production) -> F is correct.
Question 3
Refer to the exhibit:
System flash director
File Length Name/status
1 3802992 c827v-y6-mz.121-l.XB
[3803056 bytes used,4585552 available, 8388608 total]
8192K bytes of processor board System flash(Read/Write)
The technician wants to upload a new IOS in the router while keeping the existing IOS. What is the
maximum size of an IOS file that could be loaded if the original IOS is also kept in flash?
A. 3MB
B. 5MB
C. 7MB
D. 4MB
Answer: D
Explanation
From the exhibit we learn there are 4585552 bytes (over 4MB) available so it is only enough space
for an IOS file of 4MB. If bigger file is copied then the existing IOS file will be erased (overwritten).
Question 4
Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the output MTU 1500 bytes?
Answer: A F
Explanation
Only router can break up broadcast domains so in the exhibit there are 2 broadcast domains: from eO
interface to the left is a broadcast domain and from el interface to the right is another broadcast
domain -> A is correct.
Both router and switch can break up collision domains so there is only 1 collision domain on the left
of the router (because hub doesn't break up collision domain) and there are 6 collision domains on
the right of the router (1 collision domain from el interface to the switch + 5 collision domains for 5
PCs in Production) -> F is correct.
Question 3
Refer to the exhibit:
System flash director
File Length Name/status
1 3802992 c827v-y6-mz.121-l.XB
[3803056 bytes used,4585552 available, 8388608 total]
8192K bytes of processor board System flash(Read/Write)
The technician wants to upload a new IOS in the router while keeping the existing IOS. What is the
maximum size of an IOS file that could be loaded if the original IOS is also kept in flash?
A. 3MB
B. 5MB
C. 7MB
D. 4MB
Answer: D
Explanation
From the exhibit we learn there are 4585552 bytes (over 4MB) available so it is only enough space
for an IOS file of 4MB. If bigger file is copied then the existing IOS file will be erased (overwritten).
Question 4
Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the output MTU 1500 bytes?
Explanation
Only router can break up broadcast domains so in the exhibit there are 2 broadcast domains: from eO
interface to the left is a broadcast domain and from el interface to the right is another broadcast
domain -> A is correct.
Both router and switch can break up collision domains so there is only 1 collision domain on the left
of the router (because hub doesn't break up collision domain) and there are 6 collision domains on
the right of the router (1 collision domain from el interface to the switch + 5 collision domains for 5
PCs in Production) -> F is correct.
Question 3
Refer to the exhibit:
System flash director
File Length Name/status
1 3802992 c827v-y6-mz.121-l.XB
[3803056 bytes used,4585552 available, 8388608 total]
8192K bytes of processor board System flash(Read/Write)
The technician wants to upload a new IOS in the router while keeping the existing IOS. What is the
maximum size of an IOS file that could be loaded if the original IOS is also kept in flash?
A. 3MB
B. 5MB
C. 7MB
D. 4MB
Answer: D
Explanation
From the exhibit we learn there are 4585552 bytes (over 4MB) available so it is only enough space
for an IOS file of 4MB. If bigger file is copied then the existing IOS file will be erased (overwritten).
Question 4
Refer to the exhibit. What is the meaning of the output MTU 1500 bytes?
Routers show interfaces etne met o
EhierneEO is up, line protocol is up
Hardware is QUICC Ethernet, address is 00c0.ab73 dead (bia 001D.7bcc 7321)
MTU 1500 bytes, BW 10000 Kbit. DLY 1000 usee,
reliability 255/255, txtoad 1/255, rxioad 1/255
Encapsulation ARPA. loopbacK not set
Keepalive set (10 sec)
<oulpul omitted* ______________________________________________
A. The maximum number of bytes that can traverse this interface per second is 1500.
B. The minimum segment size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
C. The minimum segment size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
D. The minimum packet size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
E. The maximum packet size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
F. The maximum frame size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
Answer: E
Explanation
The Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU) defines the maximum Layer 3 packet (in bytes) that the
layer can pass onwards.
Question 5
A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair
network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?
A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.
B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.
Answer: C
Explanation
Modem Ethernet networks built with switches and full-duplex connections no longer utilize
CSMA/CD. CSMA/CD is only used in obsolete shared media Ethernet (which uses repeater or hub).
Question 6
In an Ethernet network, under what two scenarios can devices transmit? (Choose two)
EhierneEO is up, line protocol is up
Hardware is QUICC Ethernet, address is 00c0.ab73 dead (bia 001D.7bcc 7321)
MTU 1500 bytes, BW 10000 Kbit. DLY 1000 usee,
reliability 255/255, txtoad 1/255, rxioad 1/255
Encapsulation ARPA. loopbacK not set
Keepalive set (10 sec)
<oulpul omitted* ______________________________________________
A. The maximum number of bytes that can traverse this interface per second is 1500.
B. The minimum segment size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
C. The minimum segment size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
D. The minimum packet size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
E. The maximum packet size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
F. The maximum frame size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
Answer: E
Explanation
The Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU) defines the maximum Layer 3 packet (in bytes) that the
layer can pass onwards.
Question 5
A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair
network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?
A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.
B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.
Answer: C
Explanation
Modem Ethernet networks built with switches and full-duplex connections no longer utilize
CSMA/CD. CSMA/CD is only used in obsolete shared media Ethernet (which uses repeater or hub).
Question 6
In an Ethernet network, under what two scenarios can devices transmit? (Choose two)
Routers show interfaces etne met o
EhierneEO is up, line protocol is up
Hardware is QUICC Ethernet, address is 00c0.ab73 dead (bia 001D.7bcc 7321)
MTU 1500 bytes, BW 10000 Kbit. DLY 1000 usee,
reliability 255/255, txtoad 1/255, rxioad 1/255
Encapsulation ARPA. loopbacK not set
Keepalive set (10 sec)
<oulpul omitted* ______________________________________________
A. The maximum number of bytes that can traverse this interface per second is 1500.
B. The minimum segment size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
C. The minimum segment size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
D. The minimum packet size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
E. The maximum packet size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
F. The maximum frame size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
Answer: E
Explanation
The Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU) defines the maximum Layer 3 packet (in bytes) that the
layer can pass onwards.
Question 5
A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair
network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?
A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.
B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.
Answer: C
Explanation
Modem Ethernet networks built with switches and full-duplex connections no longer utilize
CSMA/CD. CSMA/CD is only used in obsolete shared media Ethernet (which uses repeater or hub).
Question 6
In an Ethernet network, under what two scenarios can devices transmit? (Choose two)
EhierneEO is up, line protocol is up
Hardware is QUICC Ethernet, address is 00c0.ab73 dead (bia 001D.7bcc 7321)
MTU 1500 bytes, BW 10000 Kbit. DLY 1000 usee,
reliability 255/255, txtoad 1/255, rxioad 1/255
Encapsulation ARPA. loopbacK not set
Keepalive set (10 sec)
<oulpul omitted* ______________________________________________
A. The maximum number of bytes that can traverse this interface per second is 1500.
B. The minimum segment size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
C. The minimum segment size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
D. The minimum packet size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
E. The maximum packet size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
F. The maximum frame size that can traverse this interface is 1500 bytes.
Answer: E
Explanation
The Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU) defines the maximum Layer 3 packet (in bytes) that the
layer can pass onwards.
Question 5
A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair
network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?
A. This is a 10 Mb/s switch port.
B. This is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
C. This is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
D. This is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
E. This is a port on a network interface card in a PC.
Answer: C
Explanation
Modem Ethernet networks built with switches and full-duplex connections no longer utilize
CSMA/CD. CSMA/CD is only used in obsolete shared media Ethernet (which uses repeater or hub).
Question 6
In an Ethernet network, under what two scenarios can devices transmit? (Choose two)
A. when they receive a special token
B. when there is a carrier
C. when they detect no other devices are sending
D. when the medium is idle
E. when the server grants access
Answer: C D
Explanation
Ethernet network is a shared environment so all devices have the right to access to the medium. If
more than one device transmits simultaneously, the signals collide and can not reach the destination.
If a device detects another device is sending, it will wait for a specified amount of time before
attempting to transmit.
When there is no traffic detected, a device will transmit its message. While this transmission is
occurring, the device continues to listen for traffic or collisions on the LAN. After the message is
sent, the device returns to its default listening mode.
So we can see C and D are the correct answers. But in fact —answer C when they detect no other
devices are sending! and —when the medium is idle! are nearly the same.
Question 7
For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses? (Choose two)
A. to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2
B. to allow communication with devices on a different network
C. to differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet
D. to establish a priority system to determine which device gets to transmit first
E. to allow communication between different devices on the same network
F. to allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is unknown
Answer: A E
Explanation
Physical addresses or MAC addresses are used to identify devices at layer 2 -> A is correct.
MAC addresses are only used to communicate on the same network. To communicate on different
network we have to use Layer 3 addresses (IP addresses) -> B is not correct; E is correct.
Layer 2 frame and Layer 3 packet can be recognized via headers. Layer 3 packet also contains
physical address -> C is not correct.
B. when there is a carrier
C. when they detect no other devices are sending
D. when the medium is idle
E. when the server grants access
Answer: C D
Explanation
Ethernet network is a shared environment so all devices have the right to access to the medium. If
more than one device transmits simultaneously, the signals collide and can not reach the destination.
If a device detects another device is sending, it will wait for a specified amount of time before
attempting to transmit.
When there is no traffic detected, a device will transmit its message. While this transmission is
occurring, the device continues to listen for traffic or collisions on the LAN. After the message is
sent, the device returns to its default listening mode.
So we can see C and D are the correct answers. But in fact —answer C when they detect no other
devices are sending! and —when the medium is idle! are nearly the same.
Question 7
For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses? (Choose two)
A. to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2
B. to allow communication with devices on a different network
C. to differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet
D. to establish a priority system to determine which device gets to transmit first
E. to allow communication between different devices on the same network
F. to allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is unknown
Answer: A E
Explanation
Physical addresses or MAC addresses are used to identify devices at layer 2 -> A is correct.
MAC addresses are only used to communicate on the same network. To communicate on different
network we have to use Layer 3 addresses (IP addresses) -> B is not correct; E is correct.
Layer 2 frame and Layer 3 packet can be recognized via headers. Layer 3 packet also contains
physical address -> C is not correct.
On Ethernet, each frame has the same priority to transmit by default -> D is not correct.
All devices need a physical address to identify itself. If not, they can not communicate -> F is not
correct.
Question 8
Which two locations can be configured as a source for the IOS image in the boot system command?
(Choose two)
A. RAM
B. NVRAM
C. flash memory
D. HTTP server
E. TFTP server
F. Telnet server
Answer: C E
Explanation
The following locations can be configured as a source for the IOS image:
+ Flash (the default location)
+ TFTP server
+ ROM (used if no other source is found)
Question 9
What is the difference between a CSU/DSU and a modem?
A. A CSU/DSU converts analog signals from a router to a leased line; a modem converts analog
signals from a router to a leased line.
B. A CSU/DSU converts analog signals from a router to a phone line; a modem converts digital
signals from a router to a leased line.
C. A CSU/DSU converts digital signals from a router to a phone line; a modem converts analog
signals from a router to a phone line.
D. A CSU/DSU converts digital signals from a router to a leased line; a modem converts digital
signals from a router to a phone line.
Answer: D
Question 10
A Cisco router is booting and has just completed the POST process. It is now ready to find and load
an IOS image. What function does the router perform next?
All devices need a physical address to identify itself. If not, they can not communicate -> F is not
correct.
Question 8
Which two locations can be configured as a source for the IOS image in the boot system command?
(Choose two)
A. RAM
B. NVRAM
C. flash memory
D. HTTP server
E. TFTP server
F. Telnet server
Answer: C E
Explanation
The following locations can be configured as a source for the IOS image:
+ Flash (the default location)
+ TFTP server
+ ROM (used if no other source is found)
Question 9
What is the difference between a CSU/DSU and a modem?
A. A CSU/DSU converts analog signals from a router to a leased line; a modem converts analog
signals from a router to a leased line.
B. A CSU/DSU converts analog signals from a router to a phone line; a modem converts digital
signals from a router to a leased line.
C. A CSU/DSU converts digital signals from a router to a phone line; a modem converts analog
signals from a router to a phone line.
D. A CSU/DSU converts digital signals from a router to a leased line; a modem converts digital
signals from a router to a phone line.
Answer: D
Question 10
A Cisco router is booting and has just completed the POST process. It is now ready to find and load
an IOS image. What function does the router perform next?
A. It checks the configuration register
B. It attempts to boot from a TFTP server
C. It loads the first image file in flash memory
D. It inspects the configuration file in NVRAM for boot instructions
Answer: A
Explanation
When you turn the router on, it runs through the following boot process.
The Power-On Self Test (POST) checks the router's hardware. When the POST completes
successfully, the System OK LED indicator comes on.
The router checks the configuration register to identify where to load the IOS image from. A setting
of 0x2102 means that the router will use information in the startup-config file to locate the IOS
image. If the startup-config file is missing or does not specify a location, it will check the following
locations for the IOS image:
1. Flash (the default location)
2. TFTP server
3. ROM (used if no other source is found)
The router loads the configuration file into RAM (which configures the router). The router can load a
configuration file from:
+ NVRAM (startup-configuration file)
+ TFTP server
If a configuration file is not found, the router starts in setup mode.
B. It attempts to boot from a TFTP server
C. It loads the first image file in flash memory
D. It inspects the configuration file in NVRAM for boot instructions
Answer: A
Explanation
When you turn the router on, it runs through the following boot process.
The Power-On Self Test (POST) checks the router's hardware. When the POST completes
successfully, the System OK LED indicator comes on.
The router checks the configuration register to identify where to load the IOS image from. A setting
of 0x2102 means that the router will use information in the startup-config file to locate the IOS
image. If the startup-config file is missing or does not specify a location, it will check the following
locations for the IOS image:
1. Flash (the default location)
2. TFTP server
3. ROM (used if no other source is found)
The router loads the configuration file into RAM (which configures the router). The router can load a
configuration file from:
+ NVRAM (startup-configuration file)
+ TFTP server
If a configuration file is not found, the router starts in setup mode.
Loading page 6...
CCNA - OSI & TCP/IP Model
Question 1
Where does routing occur within the DoD TCP/IP reference model?
A. application
B. internet
C. network
D. transport
Answer: B
Explanation
The picture below shows the comparison between TCP/IP model & OSI model. Notice that the
Internet Layer of TCP/IP is equivalent to the Network Layer which is responsible for routing
decision.
Application Layer
Application Layer
Presentation Layer
Session Layer
Transport Layer Transport Layer
Internet Layer Network Layer
Network Access
Layer
Data Link Layer
Physical Layer
TCP/IP OSI
Question 2
Refer to exhibit.
Router#show running-config
Building configuration...
Current configuration : 659 bytes
!
version 12.4
no service timestamps log datetime msec
no service timestamps debug datetime msec
Question 1
Where does routing occur within the DoD TCP/IP reference model?
A. application
B. internet
C. network
D. transport
Answer: B
Explanation
The picture below shows the comparison between TCP/IP model & OSI model. Notice that the
Internet Layer of TCP/IP is equivalent to the Network Layer which is responsible for routing
decision.
Application Layer
Application Layer
Presentation Layer
Session Layer
Transport Layer Transport Layer
Internet Layer Network Layer
Network Access
Layer
Data Link Layer
Physical Layer
TCP/IP OSI
Question 2
Refer to exhibit.
Router#show running-config
Building configuration...
Current configuration : 659 bytes
!
version 12.4
no service timestamps log datetime msec
no service timestamps debug datetime msec
Loading page 7...
service password-encryption
!
hostname Router
i
enable secret 5 $l$mERr$hx5rVt7rPNoS4wqbXKX7mO
!
interface FastEthemetO/O
ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
ip access-group 101 in
duplex auto
speed auto
!
access- list 101 deny tcp any any eq 22
access- list 101 permit ip any any
line con 0
password 7 0822455D0A16
login
line vty 0 4
login
line vty 5 14
login
f
end
A network administrator cannot establish a Telnet session with the indicated router. What is the
cause of this failure?
A. A Level 5 password is not set.
B. An ACL is blocking Telnet access.
C. The vty password is missing.
D. The console password is missing.
Answer: C
Question 3
Before installing a new, upgraded version of the IOS, what should be checked on the router, and
which command should be used to gather this information? (Choose two)
A. the amount of available ROM
B. the amount of available flash and RAM memory
C. the version of the bootstrap software present on the router
D. show version
E. show processes
F. show running-config
!
hostname Router
i
enable secret 5 $l$mERr$hx5rVt7rPNoS4wqbXKX7mO
!
interface FastEthemetO/O
ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
ip access-group 101 in
duplex auto
speed auto
!
access- list 101 deny tcp any any eq 22
access- list 101 permit ip any any
line con 0
password 7 0822455D0A16
login
line vty 0 4
login
line vty 5 14
login
f
end
A network administrator cannot establish a Telnet session with the indicated router. What is the
cause of this failure?
A. A Level 5 password is not set.
B. An ACL is blocking Telnet access.
C. The vty password is missing.
D. The console password is missing.
Answer: C
Question 3
Before installing a new, upgraded version of the IOS, what should be checked on the router, and
which command should be used to gather this information? (Choose two)
A. the amount of available ROM
B. the amount of available flash and RAM memory
C. the version of the bootstrap software present on the router
D. show version
E. show processes
F. show running-config
Loading page 8...
Answer: B D
Explanation
When upgrading new version of the IOS we need to copy the IOS to the Flash so first we have to
check if the Flash has enough memoiy or not. Also running the new IOS may require more RAM
than the older one so we should check the available RAM too. We can check both with the —show
version! command.
Question 4
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator pings the default gateway at 10.10.10.1 and sees the output as
shown. At which OSI layer is the problem?
O p i n g 10.10.10.1
Pinging 10.10.10.1 with 32 bytes of data:
Request timed out.
Request timed out.
Request timed out.
Request timed out.
Ping statistics for 10.10.10.1:
Packets: sent - 4, Received = 0, Lost - 4 (100% loss)
A. data link layer
B. application layer
C. access layer
D. session layer
E. network layer
Answer: E
Explanation
The Network layer is responsible for network addressing and routing through the internetwork. So a
ping fails, you may have an issue with the Network layer (although lower layers like Data Link &
Physical may cause the problem).
Question 5
At which layer of the OSI model does PPP perform?
A. Layer 2
B. Layer 3
C. Layer 4
D. Layer 5
Explanation
When upgrading new version of the IOS we need to copy the IOS to the Flash so first we have to
check if the Flash has enough memoiy or not. Also running the new IOS may require more RAM
than the older one so we should check the available RAM too. We can check both with the —show
version! command.
Question 4
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator pings the default gateway at 10.10.10.1 and sees the output as
shown. At which OSI layer is the problem?
O p i n g 10.10.10.1
Pinging 10.10.10.1 with 32 bytes of data:
Request timed out.
Request timed out.
Request timed out.
Request timed out.
Ping statistics for 10.10.10.1:
Packets: sent - 4, Received = 0, Lost - 4 (100% loss)
A. data link layer
B. application layer
C. access layer
D. session layer
E. network layer
Answer: E
Explanation
The Network layer is responsible for network addressing and routing through the internetwork. So a
ping fails, you may have an issue with the Network layer (although lower layers like Data Link &
Physical may cause the problem).
Question 5
At which layer of the OSI model does PPP perform?
A. Layer 2
B. Layer 3
C. Layer 4
D. Layer 5
Loading page 9...
Answer: A
Question 6
Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two)
A. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control
information.
B. The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the segment.
C. Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination host
addresses and protocol-related control information.
D. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a
segment.
E. The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link.
Answer: A D
Explanation
The transport layer segments data into smaller pieces for transport. Each segment is assigned a
sequence number, so that the receiving device can reassemble the data on arrival.
The transport layer also use flow control to maximize the transfer rate while minimizing the
requirements to retransmit. For example, in TCP, basic flow control is implemented by
acknowledgment by the receiver of the receipt of data; the sender waits for this acknowledgment
before sending the next part.
-> A is correct.
The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an Frame Check Sequence
(FCS) to the packet (on Layer 3), not segment (on Layer 4) -> B is not correct.
Packets are created when network layer encapsulates a segment (not frame) with source and
destination host addresses and protocol-related control information. Notice that the network layer
encapsulates messages received from higher layers by placing them into datagrams (also called
packets) with a network layer header -> C is not correct.
The Network layer (Layer 3) has two key responsibilities. First, this layer controls the logical
addressing of devices. Second, the network layer determines the best path to a particular destination
network, and routes the data appropriately.
-> D is correct.
The Physical layer (presentation layer) translates bits into voltages for transmission across the
physical link -> E is not correct.
Question 6
Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two)
A. The transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control
information.
B. The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the segment.
C. Packets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination host
addresses and protocol-related control information.
D. Packets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a
segment.
E. The presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link.
Answer: A D
Explanation
The transport layer segments data into smaller pieces for transport. Each segment is assigned a
sequence number, so that the receiving device can reassemble the data on arrival.
The transport layer also use flow control to maximize the transfer rate while minimizing the
requirements to retransmit. For example, in TCP, basic flow control is implemented by
acknowledgment by the receiver of the receipt of data; the sender waits for this acknowledgment
before sending the next part.
-> A is correct.
The data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an Frame Check Sequence
(FCS) to the packet (on Layer 3), not segment (on Layer 4) -> B is not correct.
Packets are created when network layer encapsulates a segment (not frame) with source and
destination host addresses and protocol-related control information. Notice that the network layer
encapsulates messages received from higher layers by placing them into datagrams (also called
packets) with a network layer header -> C is not correct.
The Network layer (Layer 3) has two key responsibilities. First, this layer controls the logical
addressing of devices. Second, the network layer determines the best path to a particular destination
network, and routes the data appropriately.
-> D is correct.
The Physical layer (presentation layer) translates bits into voltages for transmission across the
physical link -> E is not correct.
Loading page 10...
Question 7
A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an
FTP connection to a remote server. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network
administrator is using for this operation?
A. application
B. presentation
C. session
D. transport
E. internet
F. data link
Answer: A
Explanation
FTP belongs to Application layer and it is also the highest layer of the OSI model.
Question 8
At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops?
A. data link
B. network
C. physical
D. transport
Answer: A
Question 9
Which layer in the OSI reference model is responsible for determining the availability of the
receiving program and checking to see if enough resources exist for that communication?
A. transport
B. network
C. presentation
D. session
E. application
Answer: E
Question 10
A network administrator is verifying the configuration of a newly installed host by establishing an
FTP connection to a remote server. What is the highest layer of the protocol stack that the network
administrator is using for this operation?
A. application
B. presentation
C. session
D. transport
E. internet
F. data link
Answer: A
Explanation
FTP belongs to Application layer and it is also the highest layer of the OSI model.
Question 8
At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops?
A. data link
B. network
C. physical
D. transport
Answer: A
Question 9
Which layer in the OSI reference model is responsible for determining the availability of the
receiving program and checking to see if enough resources exist for that communication?
A. transport
B. network
C. presentation
D. session
E. application
Answer: E
Question 10
Loading page 11...
A receiving host computes the checksum on a frame and determines that the frame is damaged. The
frame is then discarded. At which OSI layer did this happen?
A. session
B. network
C. physical
D. data link
E. transport
Answer: D
Explanation
When using the term —frame! we can easily recognize it belongs to the Data Link layerJn this layer,
an Frame Check Sequence (FCS) field is added to the frame to verify that the frame data is received
correctly.
CCNA - IOS Questions
Question 1
Which command encrypts all plaintext passwords?
A. Router# service password-encryption
B. Router(config)# password-encryption
C. Router(config)# service password-encryption
D. Router# password-encryption
Answer: C
Question 2
What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two)
A. Administratively shut down the interface.
B. Physically secure the interface.
C. Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group
command.
D. Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.
E. Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.
frame is then discarded. At which OSI layer did this happen?
A. session
B. network
C. physical
D. data link
E. transport
Answer: D
Explanation
When using the term —frame! we can easily recognize it belongs to the Data Link layerJn this layer,
an Frame Check Sequence (FCS) field is added to the frame to verify that the frame data is received
correctly.
CCNA - IOS Questions
Question 1
Which command encrypts all plaintext passwords?
A. Router# service password-encryption
B. Router(config)# password-encryption
C. Router(config)# service password-encryption
D. Router# password-encryption
Answer: C
Question 2
What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two)
A. Administratively shut down the interface.
B. Physically secure the interface.
C. Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group
command.
D. Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.
E. Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.
Loading page 12...
Answer: D E
Explanation
It is a waste to administratively shut down the interface. Moreover, someone can still access the
virtual terminal interfaces via other interfaces -> A is not correct.
We can not physically secure a virtual interface because it is —virtually B is not correct.
To apply an access list to a virtual terminal interface we must use the —accessdassll command. The
—acces groupll command is only used to apply an access list to a phys ical interface -> C is not
correct; E is correct.
The most simple way to secure the virtual terminal interface is to configure a username & password
to prevent unauthorized login -> D is correct.
Question 3
Refer to the exhibit. Why is flash memory erased prior to upgrading the IOS image from the TFTP
server?
Router# copy tftp flash
Address or name of remote host []? 192.168.2.167
Source filename []? cl600-k8sy-mz.l23-16a.bin
Destination filename [cl600-k8sy-mz.l23-16a.bin]?
Accessing tftp://192.168.2.167/ cl600-k8sy-mz.l23-16a.bin...
Erasing flash before copying? [confirm]
Erasing the flash filesystem will remove all files! continue? [confinn]
Erasing device
Eeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeee
Eeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeee ...erased
Erase of flash: complete
Loading cl600-k8sy-mz.l23-16a.bin from 192.168.2.167 (via EthemetO):
!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
[OK - 6888962/13777920 bytes]
verifying checksum... OK (0x7BF3)
6888962 bytes copied in 209.920 secs (32961 bytes/sec)
Router#
A. The router cannot verify that the Cisco IOS image currently in flash is valid
B. Flash memory on Cisco routers can contain only a single IOS image.
C. Erasing current flash content is requested during the copy dialog.
D. In order for the router to use the new image as the default, it must be the only IOS image in flash.
Answer: C
Explanation
It is a waste to administratively shut down the interface. Moreover, someone can still access the
virtual terminal interfaces via other interfaces -> A is not correct.
We can not physically secure a virtual interface because it is —virtually B is not correct.
To apply an access list to a virtual terminal interface we must use the —accessdassll command. The
—acces groupll command is only used to apply an access list to a phys ical interface -> C is not
correct; E is correct.
The most simple way to secure the virtual terminal interface is to configure a username & password
to prevent unauthorized login -> D is correct.
Question 3
Refer to the exhibit. Why is flash memory erased prior to upgrading the IOS image from the TFTP
server?
Router# copy tftp flash
Address or name of remote host []? 192.168.2.167
Source filename []? cl600-k8sy-mz.l23-16a.bin
Destination filename [cl600-k8sy-mz.l23-16a.bin]?
Accessing tftp://192.168.2.167/ cl600-k8sy-mz.l23-16a.bin...
Erasing flash before copying? [confirm]
Erasing the flash filesystem will remove all files! continue? [confinn]
Erasing device
Eeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeee
Eeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeeee ...erased
Erase of flash: complete
Loading cl600-k8sy-mz.l23-16a.bin from 192.168.2.167 (via EthemetO):
!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
[OK - 6888962/13777920 bytes]
verifying checksum... OK (0x7BF3)
6888962 bytes copied in 209.920 secs (32961 bytes/sec)
Router#
A. The router cannot verify that the Cisco IOS image currently in flash is valid
B. Flash memory on Cisco routers can contain only a single IOS image.
C. Erasing current flash content is requested during the copy dialog.
D. In order for the router to use the new image as the default, it must be the only IOS image in flash.
Answer: C
Loading page 13...
Explanation
During the copy process, the router asked —Erasing flash before copying? [confirm]II and the
administrator confirmed (by pressing Enter) so the flash was deleted.
Note: In this case, the flash has enough space to copy a new IOS without deleting the current one.
The current IOS is deleted just because the administrator wants to do so. If the flash does not have
enough space you will see an error message like this:
%Error copying tftp://192.168.2.167/ cl600-k8sy-mz.l23-16a.bin (Not enough space on device)
Question 4
How does using the service password encryption command on a router provide additional
security?
A. by encrypting all passwords passing through the router
B. by encrypting passwords in the plain text configuration file
C. by requiring entry of encrypted passwords for access to the device
D. by configuring an MD5 encrypted key to be used by routing protocols to validate routing
exchanges
E. by automatically suggesting encrypted passwords for use in configuring the router
Answer: B
Explanation
By using this command, all the (current and future) passwords are encrypted. This command is
primarily useful for keeping unauthorized individuals from viewing your password in your
configuration file.
Question 5
What is a global command?
A. a command that is available in every release of IOS, regardless of the version or deployment
status
B. a command that can be entered in any configuration mode
C. a command that is universal in application and supports all protocols
D. a command that is implemented in all foreign and domestic IOS versions
E. a command that is set once and affects the entire router
Answer: E
During the copy process, the router asked —Erasing flash before copying? [confirm]II and the
administrator confirmed (by pressing Enter) so the flash was deleted.
Note: In this case, the flash has enough space to copy a new IOS without deleting the current one.
The current IOS is deleted just because the administrator wants to do so. If the flash does not have
enough space you will see an error message like this:
%Error copying tftp://192.168.2.167/ cl600-k8sy-mz.l23-16a.bin (Not enough space on device)
Question 4
How does using the service password encryption command on a router provide additional
security?
A. by encrypting all passwords passing through the router
B. by encrypting passwords in the plain text configuration file
C. by requiring entry of encrypted passwords for access to the device
D. by configuring an MD5 encrypted key to be used by routing protocols to validate routing
exchanges
E. by automatically suggesting encrypted passwords for use in configuring the router
Answer: B
Explanation
By using this command, all the (current and future) passwords are encrypted. This command is
primarily useful for keeping unauthorized individuals from viewing your password in your
configuration file.
Question 5
What is a global command?
A. a command that is available in every release of IOS, regardless of the version or deployment
status
B. a command that can be entered in any configuration mode
C. a command that is universal in application and supports all protocols
D. a command that is implemented in all foreign and domestic IOS versions
E. a command that is set once and affects the entire router
Answer: E
Loading page 14...
Explanation
A global command is a command in this form:
Device(config)#
This mode can affect the entire router/switch.
For more information about modes in Cisco devices, please read my Cisco Command Line Interface
CLI tutorial.
Question 6
Refer to the exhibit.
line vty 0 4
password 7 030752180599
login
transport input ssh
What is the effect of the configuration that is shown?
A. It configures SSH globally for all logins.
B. It tells the router or switch to try to establish an SSh connection first and if that foils to use Telnet.
C. It configures the virtual terminal lines with the password 030752180500.
D. It configures a Cisco network device to use the SSH protocol on incoming communications via
the virtual terminal ports.
E. It allows seven failed login attempts before the VTY lines are temporarily shutdown.
Answer: D
Question 7
Which router IOS commands can be used to troubleshoot LAN connectivity problems? (Choose
three)
A. ping
B. tracert
C. ipconfig
D. show ip route
E. winipcfg
F. show interfaces
Answer: A D F
A global command is a command in this form:
Device(config)#
This mode can affect the entire router/switch.
For more information about modes in Cisco devices, please read my Cisco Command Line Interface
CLI tutorial.
Question 6
Refer to the exhibit.
line vty 0 4
password 7 030752180599
login
transport input ssh
What is the effect of the configuration that is shown?
A. It configures SSH globally for all logins.
B. It tells the router or switch to try to establish an SSh connection first and if that foils to use Telnet.
C. It configures the virtual terminal lines with the password 030752180500.
D. It configures a Cisco network device to use the SSH protocol on incoming communications via
the virtual terminal ports.
E. It allows seven failed login attempts before the VTY lines are temporarily shutdown.
Answer: D
Question 7
Which router IOS commands can be used to troubleshoot LAN connectivity problems? (Choose
three)
A. ping
B. tracert
C. ipconfig
D. show ip route
E. winipcfg
F. show interfaces
Answer: A D F
Loading page 15...
Explanation
The ping command can be used to test if the local device can reach a specific destination -> A is
correct.
—tracertll is not a valid command in Cisco IOS commands, the correct command should be
—traceroutell-> B is not correct.
The ipconfig command is not a valid command in Cisco IOS too -> C is not correct.
The —show ip routell command can be used to view the routing table of the router. It is a very useful
command to find out many connectivity problems (like directly connected networks, learned network
via routing protocols...) -> D is correct.
—winipcfgll is an old tool in Windows 95/98 to view IP settings of the installed network interfaces.
But it is not a valid command in Cisco IOS commands -> E is not correct.
The —show interfacesll command is used to check all the interfaces on the local device only. It has
very limited information to trouble LAN connectivity problem but it is the most reasonable to choose
-> F is acceptable.
Question 8
Which command shows your active Telnet connections?
A. show sessions
B. show cdp neighbors
C. show users
D. show queue
Answer: A
Question 9
Which command would you configure globally on a Cisco router that would allow you to view directly
connected Cisco devices?
A. enable cdp
B. cdp enable
C. cdp run
D. run cdp
Answer: C
Question 10
The ping command can be used to test if the local device can reach a specific destination -> A is
correct.
—tracertll is not a valid command in Cisco IOS commands, the correct command should be
—traceroutell-> B is not correct.
The ipconfig command is not a valid command in Cisco IOS too -> C is not correct.
The —show ip routell command can be used to view the routing table of the router. It is a very useful
command to find out many connectivity problems (like directly connected networks, learned network
via routing protocols...) -> D is correct.
—winipcfgll is an old tool in Windows 95/98 to view IP settings of the installed network interfaces.
But it is not a valid command in Cisco IOS commands -> E is not correct.
The —show interfacesll command is used to check all the interfaces on the local device only. It has
very limited information to trouble LAN connectivity problem but it is the most reasonable to choose
-> F is acceptable.
Question 8
Which command shows your active Telnet connections?
A. show sessions
B. show cdp neighbors
C. show users
D. show queue
Answer: A
Question 9
Which command would you configure globally on a Cisco router that would allow you to view directly
connected Cisco devices?
A. enable cdp
B. cdp enable
C. cdp run
D. run cdp
Answer: C
Question 10
Loading page 16...
A network administrator needs to allow only one Telnet connection to a router. For anyone viewing
the confguration and issuing the show run command, the password for Telnet access should be
encrypted. Which set of commands will accomplish this task?
A. service password-encryption
access-list 1 permit 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255
line vty 0 4
login
password cisco
access-class 1
B. enable password secret
line vty 0
login
password cisco
C. service password-encryption
line vty 1
login
password cisco
D. service password-encryption
line vty 0 4
login
password cisco
Answer: C
Question 11
What is the effect of using the service password-encryption command?
A. Only passwords configured after the command has been entered will be encrypted.
B. Only the enable password will be encrypted.
C. Only the enable secret password will be encrypted
D. It will encrypt the secret password and remove the enable secret password from the configuration.
E. It will encrypt all current and future passwords.
Answer: E
Explanation
The secret password (configured by the command —enable secret —) is always encrypted even if the
—service passwordbncryptionll command is not used. Moreover, the secret password is not removed
from the configuration with this command, we still see it in encrypted form in the running-config ->
D is not correct.
the confguration and issuing the show run command, the password for Telnet access should be
encrypted. Which set of commands will accomplish this task?
A. service password-encryption
access-list 1 permit 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255
line vty 0 4
login
password cisco
access-class 1
B. enable password secret
line vty 0
login
password cisco
C. service password-encryption
line vty 1
login
password cisco
D. service password-encryption
line vty 0 4
login
password cisco
Answer: C
Question 11
What is the effect of using the service password-encryption command?
A. Only passwords configured after the command has been entered will be encrypted.
B. Only the enable password will be encrypted.
C. Only the enable secret password will be encrypted
D. It will encrypt the secret password and remove the enable secret password from the configuration.
E. It will encrypt all current and future passwords.
Answer: E
Explanation
The secret password (configured by the command —enable secret —) is always encrypted even if the
—service passwordbncryptionll command is not used. Moreover, the secret password is not removed
from the configuration with this command, we still see it in encrypted form in the running-config ->
D is not correct.
Loading page 17...
The —enable password II does not encrypt the password and can be viewed in clear text in the
running-config. By using the —servictpassword-encryptionll command, that password is encrypted
(both current and future passwords) -> A is not correct, E is correct.
Answer B - Only the enable password will be encrypted seems to be correct but it implies the secret
password will not be encrypted and stay in clear text, which is not correct.
For your information, the secret password is encrypted with MD5 one-way hash algorithm which is
harder to break than the encryption algorithm used by the —service passwordmcryptionll command.
CCNA - WAN Questions
Question 1
Which PPP subprotocol negotiates authentication options?
A. NCP
B. ISDN
C. SUP
D. LCP
E. DLCI
Answer: D
Question 2
A network administrator needs to configure a serial link between the main office and a remote
location. The router at the remote office is a non-Cisco router. How should the network administrator
configure the serial interface of the main office router to make the connection?
A. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# no shut
B. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
Main(config-if)# no shut
C. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay
Main(config-if)# authentication chap
Main(config-if)# no shut
running-config. By using the —servictpassword-encryptionll command, that password is encrypted
(both current and future passwords) -> A is not correct, E is correct.
Answer B - Only the enable password will be encrypted seems to be correct but it implies the secret
password will not be encrypted and stay in clear text, which is not correct.
For your information, the secret password is encrypted with MD5 one-way hash algorithm which is
harder to break than the encryption algorithm used by the —service passwordmcryptionll command.
CCNA - WAN Questions
Question 1
Which PPP subprotocol negotiates authentication options?
A. NCP
B. ISDN
C. SUP
D. LCP
E. DLCI
Answer: D
Question 2
A network administrator needs to configure a serial link between the main office and a remote
location. The router at the remote office is a non-Cisco router. How should the network administrator
configure the serial interface of the main office router to make the connection?
A. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# no shut
B. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
Main(config-if)# no shut
C. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay
Main(config-if)# authentication chap
Main(config-if)# no shut
Loading page 18...
D. Main(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-il)#ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)#encapsulation ietf
Main(config-if)# no shut
Answer: B
Question 3
Which two options are valid WAN connectivity methods? (Choose two)
A. PPP
B. WAP
C. DSL
D. L2TPv3
E. Ethernet
Answer: A C
Question 4
Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous circuits and
has built-in security mechanisms?
A. HDLC
B. PPP
C. X.25
D. Frame Relay
Answer: B
Explanation
PPP supports both synchronous (like analog phone lines) and asynchronous circuits (such as ISDN or
digital links). With synchronous circuits we need to use clock rate.
Note: Serial links can be synchronous or asynchronous. Asynchronous connections used to be only
available on low-speed (<2MB) serial interfaces, but now, there are the new HWICs (High-Speed
WAN Interface Cards) which also support asynchronous mode. To learn more about them please
visit
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/prod/collateral/modules/ps5949/ps6182/prod_qas0900aecd80274424.ht
ml.
Question 5
Main(config-il)#ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)#encapsulation ietf
Main(config-if)# no shut
Answer: B
Question 3
Which two options are valid WAN connectivity methods? (Choose two)
A. PPP
B. WAP
C. DSL
D. L2TPv3
E. Ethernet
Answer: A C
Question 4
Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous circuits and
has built-in security mechanisms?
A. HDLC
B. PPP
C. X.25
D. Frame Relay
Answer: B
Explanation
PPP supports both synchronous (like analog phone lines) and asynchronous circuits (such as ISDN or
digital links). With synchronous circuits we need to use clock rate.
Note: Serial links can be synchronous or asynchronous. Asynchronous connections used to be only
available on low-speed (<2MB) serial interfaces, but now, there are the new HWICs (High-Speed
WAN Interface Cards) which also support asynchronous mode. To learn more about them please
visit
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/prod/collateral/modules/ps5949/ps6182/prod_qas0900aecd80274424.ht
ml.
Question 5
Loading page 19...
Which command is used to enable CHAP authentication with PAP as the fallback method on a
serial interface?
A. (config-if)# authentication ppp chap fallback ppp
B. (config-if)# authentication ppp chap pap
C. (config-if)# ppp authentication chap pap
D. (config-if)# ppp authentication chap fallback ppp
Answer: C
Explanation
The command —ppp authentication chap papll command indicates the CHAP authentication is used
first. If it fails or is rejected by other side then uses PAP instead. If you want to use PAP first (then
CHAP) you can use the —ppp authentication pap chap II command.
Question 6
Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop
B. A modem terminates a digital local loop
C. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop
D. A modem terminates an analog local loop
E. A router is commonly considered a DTE device
F. A router is commonly considered a DCE device
Answer: A D E
Explanation
The idea behind a WAN is to be able to connect two DTE networks together through a DCE
network. The network's DCE device (includes CSU/DSU) provides clocking to the DTE -connected
interface (the router's serial interface).
serial interface?
A. (config-if)# authentication ppp chap fallback ppp
B. (config-if)# authentication ppp chap pap
C. (config-if)# ppp authentication chap pap
D. (config-if)# ppp authentication chap fallback ppp
Answer: C
Explanation
The command —ppp authentication chap papll command indicates the CHAP authentication is used
first. If it fails or is rejected by other side then uses PAP instead. If you want to use PAP first (then
CHAP) you can use the —ppp authentication pap chap II command.
Question 6
Which of the following describes the roles of devices in a WAN? (Choose three.)
A. A CSU/DSU terminates a digital local loop
B. A modem terminates a digital local loop
C. A CSU/DSU terminates an analog local loop
D. A modem terminates an analog local loop
E. A router is commonly considered a DTE device
F. A router is commonly considered a DCE device
Answer: A D E
Explanation
The idea behind a WAN is to be able to connect two DTE networks together through a DCE
network. The network's DCE device (includes CSU/DSU) provides clocking to the DTE -connected
interface (the router's serial interface).
Loading page 20...
DCE nr Frame Rt-lay Swilrh
Question 7
Which two statements about using the CHAP authentication mechanism in a PPP link are true?
(Choose two)
A. CHAP uses a two-way handshake.
B. CHAP uses a three-way handshake.
C. CHAP authentication periodically occurs after link establishment.
D. CHAP authentication passwords are sent in plaintext.
E. CHAP authentication is performed only upon link establishment.
F. CHAP has no protection from playback attacks.
Answer: B C
CCNA - Switch Questions
Question 1
Refer to the exhibit.
Switch-1* show mac address-table
Dynamic Addresses Count:
SeL-ure Addresses (User-del inert) Count;
Static Addresses (User-defined) Count:
System Self Addresses Count:
Total Mac addresses:
3
0
0
41
50
Destination Port
Non-static Address Table:
Destination Address Address Type VLAN
0010.0de0.e289 Dynamic 1 Fa tit F.then ietO/1
0010.7b00.1540 Dynamic 2 FastEtheriietO/3
0010.7b00.1545 Dynamic 2 FastEthcmetO/2
Question 7
Which two statements about using the CHAP authentication mechanism in a PPP link are true?
(Choose two)
A. CHAP uses a two-way handshake.
B. CHAP uses a three-way handshake.
C. CHAP authentication periodically occurs after link establishment.
D. CHAP authentication passwords are sent in plaintext.
E. CHAP authentication is performed only upon link establishment.
F. CHAP has no protection from playback attacks.
Answer: B C
CCNA - Switch Questions
Question 1
Refer to the exhibit.
Switch-1* show mac address-table
Dynamic Addresses Count:
SeL-ure Addresses (User-del inert) Count;
Static Addresses (User-defined) Count:
System Self Addresses Count:
Total Mac addresses:
3
0
0
41
50
Destination Port
Non-static Address Table:
Destination Address Address Type VLAN
0010.0de0.e289 Dynamic 1 Fa tit F.then ietO/1
0010.7b00.1540 Dynamic 2 FastEtheriietO/3
0010.7b00.1545 Dynamic 2 FastEthcmetO/2
Loading page 21...
Switch-1 needs to send data to a host with a MAC address of 00b0.d056.efa4. What will Switch-1 do
with this data?
A. Switch-1 will drop the data because it does not have an entry for that MAC address.
B. Switch-1 will forward the data to its default gateway.
C. Switch-1 will flood the data out all of its ports except the port from which the data originated.
D. Switch-1 will send an ARP request out all its ports except the port from which the data originated.
Answer: C
Explanation
The MAC address of 00b0.d056.efa4 has not been learned in its MAC address table so Switch-1 will
broadcast the frame out all of its ports except the port from which the data originated.
Question 2
Workstation
A technician has installed SwitchB and needs to configure it for remote access from the management
workstation connected SwitchA. Which set of commands is required to accomplish this task?
A.
SwitchB(config)#interface FastEthemet 0/1
SwitchB(config)#ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config)#no shutdown
B.
SwitchB(config)#ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254
SwitchB(config)#interface vlan 1
SwitchB(config)#ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config)#no shutdown
C.
SwitchB(config)#interface vlan 1
SwitchB(config)#ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
with this data?
A. Switch-1 will drop the data because it does not have an entry for that MAC address.
B. Switch-1 will forward the data to its default gateway.
C. Switch-1 will flood the data out all of its ports except the port from which the data originated.
D. Switch-1 will send an ARP request out all its ports except the port from which the data originated.
Answer: C
Explanation
The MAC address of 00b0.d056.efa4 has not been learned in its MAC address table so Switch-1 will
broadcast the frame out all of its ports except the port from which the data originated.
Question 2
Workstation
A technician has installed SwitchB and needs to configure it for remote access from the management
workstation connected SwitchA. Which set of commands is required to accomplish this task?
A.
SwitchB(config)#interface FastEthemet 0/1
SwitchB(config)#ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config)#no shutdown
B.
SwitchB(config)#ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254
SwitchB(config)#interface vlan 1
SwitchB(config)#ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config)#no shutdown
C.
SwitchB(config)#interface vlan 1
SwitchB(config)#ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
Loading page 22...
SwitchB(config)#ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config)#no shutdown
D.
SwitchB(config)#ip default-network 192.168.8.254
SwitchB(config)#interface vlan 1
SwitchB(config)#ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config)#no shutdown
Answer: B
Explanation
To remote access to SwitchB, it must have a management IP address on a VLAN on that switch.
Traditionally, we often use VLAN 1 as the management VLAN (but in fact it is not secure).
In the exhibit, we can recognize that the Management Workstation is in a different subnet from the
SwitchB. For intersubnetwork communication to occur, you must configure at least one default
gateway. This default gateway is used to foiward traffic originating from the switch only, not to
forward traffic sent by devices connected to the switch.
Question 3
A switch is configured with all ports assigned to vlan 2 with full duplex FastEthemet to segment
existing departmental traffic. What is the effect of adding switch ports to a new VLAN on the
switch?
A. More collision domains will be created.
B. IP address utilization will be more efficient.
C. More bandwidth will be required than was needed previously.
D. An additional broadcast domain will be created.
Answer: D
Question 4
Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What
would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three)
SwitchB(config)#no shutdown
D.
SwitchB(config)#ip default-network 192.168.8.254
SwitchB(config)#interface vlan 1
SwitchB(config)#ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config)#no shutdown
Answer: B
Explanation
To remote access to SwitchB, it must have a management IP address on a VLAN on that switch.
Traditionally, we often use VLAN 1 as the management VLAN (but in fact it is not secure).
In the exhibit, we can recognize that the Management Workstation is in a different subnet from the
SwitchB. For intersubnetwork communication to occur, you must configure at least one default
gateway. This default gateway is used to foiward traffic originating from the switch only, not to
forward traffic sent by devices connected to the switch.
Question 3
A switch is configured with all ports assigned to vlan 2 with full duplex FastEthemet to segment
existing departmental traffic. What is the effect of adding switch ports to a new VLAN on the
switch?
A. More collision domains will be created.
B. IP address utilization will be more efficient.
C. More bandwidth will be required than was needed previously.
D. An additional broadcast domain will be created.
Answer: D
Question 4
Refer to the exhibit. The two connected ports on the switch are not turning orange or green. What
would be the most effective steps to troubleshoot this physical layer problem? (Choose three)
Loading page 23...
Router
A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.
B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.
C. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.
D. Ensure the switch has power.
E. Reboot all of the devices.
F. Reseat all cables.
Answer: B D F
Explanation
The ports on the switch are not up indicating it is a layer 1 (physical) problem so we should check
cable type, power and how they are plugged in.
Question 5
Refer to the exhibit.
A. Ensure that the Ethernet encapsulations match on the interconnected router and switch ports.
B. Ensure that cables A and B are straight-through cables.
C. Ensure cable A is plugged into a trunk port.
D. Ensure the switch has power.
E. Reboot all of the devices.
F. Reseat all cables.
Answer: B D F
Explanation
The ports on the switch are not up indicating it is a layer 1 (physical) problem so we should check
cable type, power and how they are plugged in.
Question 5
Refer to the exhibit.
Loading page 24...
What two results would occur if the hub were to be replaced with a switch that is configured with
one Ethernet VLAN? (Choose two)
A. The number of collision domains would remain the same.
B. The number of collision domains would decrease.
C. The number of collision domains would increase.
D. The number of broadcast domains would remain the same.
E. The number of broadcast domains would decrease.
F. The number of broadcast domains would increase.
Answer: C D
Question 6
Refer to the exhibit. Give this output for SwitchC, what should the network administrator's next
action be?
SwitchC show interface faO/1
FastEthemetO/1 is up, line protocol is up (connected)
Hardware is Fast Ethernet, address is 0010.0000.5e03)
MTV 1500 bytes, BW 100000 Kbit, DLY lOOiisec
reliabilitv 255/255, txload 14/255, rxload 14/255
Encapsulation ARFA, loopback not set
Keepalive set (10 sec)
Full-duplex, lOOMbA, media type is W/lOOBaseTX
input flow control is off, output flow control is unsupported
«Text omitted»
5 minute input rate 364000 bsts/sec, 344 packets/sec
5 minute output rate, 367000 bits/sec, 0 no butter
Received 1244 broadcasts (0 multicast)
0 runts, 3 giants, 0 throttles
741 input errors, 738 CKC, 0 frame, 0 overrun, 0 ignored
0 watchdog, 1243 multicast, 0 pause input
0 input packets with dribble condition detected
16420 packets output, 2375034 bytes, 0 underruns
«Text omitted»
A. Check the trunk encapsulation mode for Switches faO/1 port.
B. Check the duplex mode for Switches faO/1 port.
C. Check the duplex mode for SwitchA's faO/2 port.
D. Check the trunk encapsulation mode for SwitchA's faO/2 port.
Answer: C
one Ethernet VLAN? (Choose two)
A. The number of collision domains would remain the same.
B. The number of collision domains would decrease.
C. The number of collision domains would increase.
D. The number of broadcast domains would remain the same.
E. The number of broadcast domains would decrease.
F. The number of broadcast domains would increase.
Answer: C D
Question 6
Refer to the exhibit. Give this output for SwitchC, what should the network administrator's next
action be?
SwitchC show interface faO/1
FastEthemetO/1 is up, line protocol is up (connected)
Hardware is Fast Ethernet, address is 0010.0000.5e03)
MTV 1500 bytes, BW 100000 Kbit, DLY lOOiisec
reliabilitv 255/255, txload 14/255, rxload 14/255
Encapsulation ARFA, loopback not set
Keepalive set (10 sec)
Full-duplex, lOOMbA, media type is W/lOOBaseTX
input flow control is off, output flow control is unsupported
«Text omitted»
5 minute input rate 364000 bsts/sec, 344 packets/sec
5 minute output rate, 367000 bits/sec, 0 no butter
Received 1244 broadcasts (0 multicast)
0 runts, 3 giants, 0 throttles
741 input errors, 738 CKC, 0 frame, 0 overrun, 0 ignored
0 watchdog, 1243 multicast, 0 pause input
0 input packets with dribble condition detected
16420 packets output, 2375034 bytes, 0 underruns
«Text omitted»
A. Check the trunk encapsulation mode for Switches faO/1 port.
B. Check the duplex mode for Switches faO/1 port.
C. Check the duplex mode for SwitchA's faO/2 port.
D. Check the trunk encapsulation mode for SwitchA's faO/2 port.
Answer: C
Loading page 25...
Question 7
Which three statements accurately describe layer 2 Ethernet switches? (choose three)
A. Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network.
B. If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination.it uses ARP to resolve the address.
C. Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share vlan information.
D. In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will
contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that broadcast
domain will have only one root port.
E. Establishing vlans increases the number of broadcast domains.
F. Switches that are configured with vlans make forwarding decisions based on both layer 2 and
layer 3 address information.
Answer: ADE
Question 8
Why will a switch never learn a broadcast address?
A. Broadcast frames are never sent to switches.
B. Broadcast addresses use an incorrect format for the switching table.
C. A broadcast address will never be the source address of a frame.
D. Broadcasts only use network layer addressing.
E. A broadcast frame is never forwarded by a switch.
Answer: C
Question 9
Refer to the exhibit:
Which three statements accurately describe layer 2 Ethernet switches? (choose three)
A. Microsegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network.
B. If a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination.it uses ARP to resolve the address.
C. Spanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share vlan information.
D. In a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will
contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that broadcast
domain will have only one root port.
E. Establishing vlans increases the number of broadcast domains.
F. Switches that are configured with vlans make forwarding decisions based on both layer 2 and
layer 3 address information.
Answer: ADE
Question 8
Why will a switch never learn a broadcast address?
A. Broadcast frames are never sent to switches.
B. Broadcast addresses use an incorrect format for the switching table.
C. A broadcast address will never be the source address of a frame.
D. Broadcasts only use network layer addressing.
E. A broadcast frame is never forwarded by a switch.
Answer: C
Question 9
Refer to the exhibit:
Loading page 26...
Switch!# show mac address-table
System Self Addresses Count: ' l l
Total MAC addresses: 50
Non- static Address Table:
Destination Address AddressType VLAN Destination Port
OOAO.OdeO.e289 Dynamic 1 FastEthemetO/l
OOAQ.7bOO.15dO Dynamic 2 FastEthemetO/5
OOAO.7bOO.1545 Dynamic 2 FastEthemetO/5
00 A0.5c 74.0076 Dynamic 1 FastEthernetO/l
QOAO.5cf4.0O77 Dynamic 3 FastEthernetO/1
OOAO.5cf4.1315 Dynamic 1 FastEthernetO/1
0OA0.7Ocb.f301 Dynamic 2 FastEthernetO/1
GOAO.7Ocb.3fOl Dynamic 5 FastEthem.etO/2
OOAO.le42.997S Dynamic 4 FastEthernetO/1
OOAO.le9f.39QO Dynamic 3 FastEthernetO/1
OOAD. 70cb.33fl Dynamic 6 Fasti’ t hernetO/3
OOAO.70cb.103f Dynamic 6 Fastf thernetO/4
co utput omitted:*
Switchl#showcdp neighbors
Capability Codes: R - Router, I - I rams Bridge, B- Source Rome Bridge
S- Switch, It - Host, I - IGMPr r - Repeater
Device ID Local Intrfce Hoidtime Capability Platform Port ID
Switch2 Fas 0/1 157 5 2950-12 Fas 0/1
Switch3 Fas 0/2 143 5 2950-12 Fas 0/5
Switchl#
Which two statements are tine of the interfaces on Switch1? (Choose two)
A. Interface FastEthemetO/2 has been disabled.
B. Multiple devices are connected directly to FastEthemetO/1.
C. FastEthemetO/1 is configured as a trunk link.
D. FastEthemetO/1 is connected to a host with multiple network interface cards
E. FastEthemetO/5 has statically assigned MAC addresses.
F. A hub is connected directly to FastEthernetO/5
Answer: C F
Explanation
System Self Addresses Count: ' l l
Total MAC addresses: 50
Non- static Address Table:
Destination Address AddressType VLAN Destination Port
OOAO.OdeO.e289 Dynamic 1 FastEthemetO/l
OOAQ.7bOO.15dO Dynamic 2 FastEthemetO/5
OOAO.7bOO.1545 Dynamic 2 FastEthemetO/5
00 A0.5c 74.0076 Dynamic 1 FastEthernetO/l
QOAO.5cf4.0O77 Dynamic 3 FastEthernetO/1
OOAO.5cf4.1315 Dynamic 1 FastEthernetO/1
0OA0.7Ocb.f301 Dynamic 2 FastEthernetO/1
GOAO.7Ocb.3fOl Dynamic 5 FastEthem.etO/2
OOAO.le42.997S Dynamic 4 FastEthernetO/1
OOAO.le9f.39QO Dynamic 3 FastEthernetO/1
OOAD. 70cb.33fl Dynamic 6 Fasti’ t hernetO/3
OOAO.70cb.103f Dynamic 6 Fastf thernetO/4
co utput omitted:*
Switchl#showcdp neighbors
Capability Codes: R - Router, I - I rams Bridge, B- Source Rome Bridge
S- Switch, It - Host, I - IGMPr r - Repeater
Device ID Local Intrfce Hoidtime Capability Platform Port ID
Switch2 Fas 0/1 157 5 2950-12 Fas 0/1
Switch3 Fas 0/2 143 5 2950-12 Fas 0/5
Switchl#
Which two statements are tine of the interfaces on Switch1? (Choose two)
A. Interface FastEthemetO/2 has been disabled.
B. Multiple devices are connected directly to FastEthemetO/1.
C. FastEthemetO/1 is configured as a trunk link.
D. FastEthemetO/1 is connected to a host with multiple network interface cards
E. FastEthemetO/5 has statically assigned MAC addresses.
F. A hub is connected directly to FastEthernetO/5
Answer: C F
Explanation
Loading page 27...
FastEthemetO/1 can receive traffic from multiple VLANs -> it is configured as a trunk.
There are two MAC addresses learned from FastEthemetO/5 -> a hub is used on this port.
Question 10
The network administrator normally establishes a Telnet session with the switch from host A. The
administrator's attempt to establish a connect via Telnet to the switch from host B fails, but pings
from host B to other two hosts are successful. What is the issue for this problem?
FaCVO.l - 172,19,1.254'24 VLAN 1
FaO/032- 172.19.32.25'1'24 VLAN 32
FatV033- 172.19.33.254'24 VI.AN 33
Switchr show ip interlace briei
Interface [P-Address OK? Method Status protocol
Vian 1 172.19.1.250 Yes manual U F up
FditElhenietD/1 urtassigned Yes unset up UP
fastEthemetO/2 unassigned Yes unset up up
FastEthemetO/3 unassigned Yes unset UP up
Output
A. Host B and the switch need to be in the same subnet.
B. The switch needs an appropriate default gateway assigned.
C. The switch interface connected to the router is down.
D. Host B need to be assigned an IP address in vlan 1.
Answer: B
Explanation
Host A (172.19.1.1) and the management IP address of the Switch (172.19.1.250) are in the same
subnet so telnet from host A to the switch can be successful even if a default gateway is not set on
host A.
But host B (172.19.32.2) and the management IP address of the Switch (172.19.1 .250) are not in the
same subnet so host B needs a default gateway to telnet to the switch. The default gateway on host B
should be 172.19.32.254.
There are two MAC addresses learned from FastEthemetO/5 -> a hub is used on this port.
Question 10
The network administrator normally establishes a Telnet session with the switch from host A. The
administrator's attempt to establish a connect via Telnet to the switch from host B fails, but pings
from host B to other two hosts are successful. What is the issue for this problem?
FaCVO.l - 172,19,1.254'24 VLAN 1
FaO/032- 172.19.32.25'1'24 VLAN 32
FatV033- 172.19.33.254'24 VI.AN 33
Switchr show ip interlace briei
Interface [P-Address OK? Method Status protocol
Vian 1 172.19.1.250 Yes manual U F up
FditElhenietD/1 urtassigned Yes unset up UP
fastEthemetO/2 unassigned Yes unset up up
FastEthemetO/3 unassigned Yes unset UP up
Output
A. Host B and the switch need to be in the same subnet.
B. The switch needs an appropriate default gateway assigned.
C. The switch interface connected to the router is down.
D. Host B need to be assigned an IP address in vlan 1.
Answer: B
Explanation
Host A (172.19.1.1) and the management IP address of the Switch (172.19.1.250) are in the same
subnet so telnet from host A to the switch can be successful even if a default gateway is not set on
host A.
But host B (172.19.32.2) and the management IP address of the Switch (172.19.1 .250) are not in the
same subnet so host B needs a default gateway to telnet to the switch. The default gateway on host B
should be 172.19.32.254.
Loading page 28...
CCNA - Switch Questions 2
Question 1
What does a Layer 2 switch use to decide where to forward a received frame?
A. source MAC address
B. source IP address
C. source switch port
D. destination IP address
E. destination port address
F. destination MAC address
Answer: F
Question 2
The network administrator cannot connect to Switch1 over a Telnet session, although the hosts
attached to Switch1 can ping the interface FaO/O of the router. Given the information in the graphic
and assuming that the router and Switch2 are configured properly, which of the following commands
should be issued on Switchl to correct this problem?
A. Switchl (config)# line conO
Switchl (config-line)# password cisco
Switchl (config-line)#login
B. Switchl (config)# interface faO/1
Switch l(config-if)# ip address 192.168.24.3 255.255.255.0
C. Switchl (config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.24.1
D. Switchl (config)# interface faO/1
Switch l(config-if)# duplex full
Switch 1(config-if)# speed 100
E. Switchl (config)# interface faO/1
Switch 1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
Answer: C
Question 3
How many broadcast domains are shown in the graphic assuming only the default vlan is configured
on the switches?
Question 1
What does a Layer 2 switch use to decide where to forward a received frame?
A. source MAC address
B. source IP address
C. source switch port
D. destination IP address
E. destination port address
F. destination MAC address
Answer: F
Question 2
The network administrator cannot connect to Switch1 over a Telnet session, although the hosts
attached to Switch1 can ping the interface FaO/O of the router. Given the information in the graphic
and assuming that the router and Switch2 are configured properly, which of the following commands
should be issued on Switchl to correct this problem?
A. Switchl (config)# line conO
Switchl (config-line)# password cisco
Switchl (config-line)#login
B. Switchl (config)# interface faO/1
Switch l(config-if)# ip address 192.168.24.3 255.255.255.0
C. Switchl (config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.24.1
D. Switchl (config)# interface faO/1
Switch l(config-if)# duplex full
Switch 1(config-if)# speed 100
E. Switchl (config)# interface faO/1
Switch 1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
Answer: C
Question 3
How many broadcast domains are shown in the graphic assuming only the default vlan is configured
on the switches?
Loading page 29...
H witch switch
A. one
B. six
C. twelve
D. two
Answer: A
Explanation
Only router can break up broadcast domains but in this exhibit no router is used so there is only 1
broadcast domain.
For your information, there are 7 collision domains in this exhibit (6 collision domains between hubs
& switches + 1 collision between the two switches).
Question 4
Refer to the exhibit. Which of these statements correctly describes the state of the switch once the
boot process has been completed?
A. one
B. six
C. twelve
D. two
Answer: A
Explanation
Only router can break up broadcast domains but in this exhibit no router is used so there is only 1
broadcast domain.
For your information, there are 7 collision domains in this exhibit (6 collision domains between hubs
& switches + 1 collision between the two switches).
Question 4
Refer to the exhibit. Which of these statements correctly describes the state of the switch once the
boot process has been completed?
Loading page 30...
GO 0D:39: NEPRO I O-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on nterface Vian1 changed state to down
GO 00:40: %SPANTREE-5-EXTENDED_SYSID Extended Sys Id enabled for type 4an
00 09:42: %SYS-5-C0NFIG_l: Configured from memory by console
00' 00:42: %SYS-5-RESTART: System re stared --
Cisco IOS Software C2960 Software (C296O LANEASEK9-M], Version 12 2(25] SEE 2 RELEASE SOFTWARE if cl)
Copyright (c) 1986 2006 by Cisco Systems, Inc
Compiled Fri 26- Ju 06 11 57 by yenanh
00 00:44’ 7- N|< 5 r.i IA NGED ■ fnre 4ac e Vian1 c hanged sta te To aomini strat ve ly dow n
00 CO 'To %; NK 3 : JPDOWN: nterface z asrEthernsrtYl , changed state to up
00.00:44 %L NK-3- UPDOWhl nterface -as tEtHernetCh , changed state ic up
00 00:44: 5t_ NK-3- LJPDOWN ntertace FastEthernetOf11 , changed state to up
00 00:45: %i. NEPRO I 0-5-UPD0WN Line protocol on nterface FastEthernettVI changed state to up
00 00:45. %L NEPRO 1 0-5-UPD0WN. _me protocol on nterface l-s5tEthernetQ/2 ■■.‘hanged state to up
00 00.45. %L NEPRO 1 0-5-UPD0WN. Line protocol on nterface l-astElhernetCVI 1, changed state to up
00 00.48. %L NK-3-UPDOWN. nterface ■ astEthemet0fl2, ctm-iged state to up
00 00.49: yc _ NEPRO! 0-5-UPD0WN. _me protocol on nterface r aslEif err etD/12, changed state ■<; up
A. As FastEthernetO/12 will be the last to come up, it will not be blocked by STP.
B. Remote access management of this switch will not be possible without configuration change.
C. More VLANs will need to be created for this switch.
D. The switch will need a different IOS code in order to support VLANs and STP.
Answer: B
Explanation
From the output we notice that the administrator has just shut down Interface Vlanl, which is the
default VLAN so no one can access it remotely (like telnet) -> B is correct.
Answer A is not correct as STP calculation does not depend on which port comes up first or last.
STP recalculates when there is a change in the network.
A normal switch can operate without VLAN -> C is not correct.
This IOS does support VLAN because it has VLAN 1 on it -> D is not correct.
GO 00:40: %SPANTREE-5-EXTENDED_SYSID Extended Sys Id enabled for type 4an
00 09:42: %SYS-5-C0NFIG_l: Configured from memory by console
00' 00:42: %SYS-5-RESTART: System re stared --
Cisco IOS Software C2960 Software (C296O LANEASEK9-M], Version 12 2(25] SEE 2 RELEASE SOFTWARE if cl)
Copyright (c) 1986 2006 by Cisco Systems, Inc
Compiled Fri 26- Ju 06 11 57 by yenanh
00 00:44’ 7- N|< 5 r.i IA NGED ■ fnre 4ac e Vian1 c hanged sta te To aomini strat ve ly dow n
00 CO 'To %; NK 3 : JPDOWN: nterface z asrEthernsrtYl , changed state to up
00.00:44 %L NK-3- UPDOWhl nterface -as tEtHernetCh , changed state ic up
00 00:44: 5t_ NK-3- LJPDOWN ntertace FastEthernetOf11 , changed state to up
00 00:45: %i. NEPRO I 0-5-UPD0WN Line protocol on nterface FastEthernettVI changed state to up
00 00:45. %L NEPRO 1 0-5-UPD0WN. _me protocol on nterface l-s5tEthernetQ/2 ■■.‘hanged state to up
00 00.45. %L NEPRO 1 0-5-UPD0WN. Line protocol on nterface l-astElhernetCVI 1, changed state to up
00 00.48. %L NK-3-UPDOWN. nterface ■ astEthemet0fl2, ctm-iged state to up
00 00.49: yc _ NEPRO! 0-5-UPD0WN. _me protocol on nterface r aslEif err etD/12, changed state ■<; up
A. As FastEthernetO/12 will be the last to come up, it will not be blocked by STP.
B. Remote access management of this switch will not be possible without configuration change.
C. More VLANs will need to be created for this switch.
D. The switch will need a different IOS code in order to support VLANs and STP.
Answer: B
Explanation
From the output we notice that the administrator has just shut down Interface Vlanl, which is the
default VLAN so no one can access it remotely (like telnet) -> B is correct.
Answer A is not correct as STP calculation does not depend on which port comes up first or last.
STP recalculates when there is a change in the network.
A normal switch can operate without VLAN -> C is not correct.
This IOS does support VLAN because it has VLAN 1 on it -> D is not correct.
Loading page 31...
CCNA - VLAN Questions
Question 1
What are three benefits of implementing VLANs? (Choose three)
A. A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many physical groups to use the
same network infrastructure
B. Broadcast storms can be mitigated by decreasing the number of broadcast domains,thus increasing
their size.
C. A higher level of network security can be reached by separating sensitive data traffic from other
network traffic.
D. Port-based vlans increase switch-port use efficient,thanks to 802. IQ trunks
E. A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many logical networks to use the
same network infrastructure.
F. Broadcast storms can be mitigated by increasing the number of broadcast domains,thus reducing
their size.
G. VLANs make it easier for IT staff to configure new logical groups,because the vlans all belong to
the same broadcast domain.
Answer: C E F
Question 2
VLAN 3 is not yet configured on your switch. What happens if you set the switchport access vlan 3
command interface configuration mode?
A. The command is accepted and the respective VLAN is added to vlan.dat.
B. The command is rejected.
C. The command is accepted and you must configure the VLAN manually.
D. The port turns amber.
Answer: A
Explanation
Even VLAN 3 is not yet configured on the switch, we can set the switchport access vlan 3 command
without no problem and it also displays when we type the —show runningponfigll command.
Question 3
What are three advantages of VLANs? (Choose three)
A. VLANs establish broadcast domains in switched networks.
B. VLANs utilize packet filtering to enhance network security.
Question 1
What are three benefits of implementing VLANs? (Choose three)
A. A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many physical groups to use the
same network infrastructure
B. Broadcast storms can be mitigated by decreasing the number of broadcast domains,thus increasing
their size.
C. A higher level of network security can be reached by separating sensitive data traffic from other
network traffic.
D. Port-based vlans increase switch-port use efficient,thanks to 802. IQ trunks
E. A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many logical networks to use the
same network infrastructure.
F. Broadcast storms can be mitigated by increasing the number of broadcast domains,thus reducing
their size.
G. VLANs make it easier for IT staff to configure new logical groups,because the vlans all belong to
the same broadcast domain.
Answer: C E F
Question 2
VLAN 3 is not yet configured on your switch. What happens if you set the switchport access vlan 3
command interface configuration mode?
A. The command is accepted and the respective VLAN is added to vlan.dat.
B. The command is rejected.
C. The command is accepted and you must configure the VLAN manually.
D. The port turns amber.
Answer: A
Explanation
Even VLAN 3 is not yet configured on the switch, we can set the switchport access vlan 3 command
without no problem and it also displays when we type the —show runningponfigll command.
Question 3
What are three advantages of VLANs? (Choose three)
A. VLANs establish broadcast domains in switched networks.
B. VLANs utilize packet filtering to enhance network security.
Loading page 32...
C. VLANs provide a method of conserving IP addresses in large networks.
D. VLANs provide a low-latency internetworking alternative to routed networks.
E. VLANs allow access to network services based on department, not physical location.
F. VLANs can greatly simplify adding, moving, or changing hosts on the network.
Answer: A E F
Question 4
On corporate network, hosts on the same VLAN can communicate with each other, but they are
unable to communicate with hosts on different VLANs. What is needed to allow communication
between the VLANs?
A. a router with subinterfaces configured on the physical interface that is connected to the switch
B. a router with an IP address on the physical interface connected to the switch
C. a switch with an access link that is configured between the switches
D. a switch with a trunk link that is configured between the switches
Answer: A
Question 5
Cisco Catalyst switches CAT1 and CAT2 have a connection between them using ports FaO/13. An
802. IQ trunk is configured between the two switches. On CAT1, VLAN 10 is chosen as native, but
on CAT2 the native VLAN is not specified. What will happen in this scenario?
A. 802. IQ giants frames could saturate the link.
B. VLAN 10 on CAT1 and VLAN 1 on CAT2 will send untagged frames.
C. A native VLAN mismatch error message will appear.
D. VLAN 10 on CAT1 and VLAN 1 on CAT2 will send tagged frames.
Answer: C
Explanation
D. VLANs provide a low-latency internetworking alternative to routed networks.
E. VLANs allow access to network services based on department, not physical location.
F. VLANs can greatly simplify adding, moving, or changing hosts on the network.
Answer: A E F
Question 4
On corporate network, hosts on the same VLAN can communicate with each other, but they are
unable to communicate with hosts on different VLANs. What is needed to allow communication
between the VLANs?
A. a router with subinterfaces configured on the physical interface that is connected to the switch
B. a router with an IP address on the physical interface connected to the switch
C. a switch with an access link that is configured between the switches
D. a switch with a trunk link that is configured between the switches
Answer: A
Question 5
Cisco Catalyst switches CAT1 and CAT2 have a connection between them using ports FaO/13. An
802. IQ trunk is configured between the two switches. On CAT1, VLAN 10 is chosen as native, but
on CAT2 the native VLAN is not specified. What will happen in this scenario?
A. 802. IQ giants frames could saturate the link.
B. VLAN 10 on CAT1 and VLAN 1 on CAT2 will send untagged frames.
C. A native VLAN mismatch error message will appear.
D. VLAN 10 on CAT1 and VLAN 1 on CAT2 will send tagged frames.
Answer: C
Explanation
Loading page 33...
A —native VLAN mismatch! error will appear by CDP if there is a native VLAN mismatch on an
802. IQ link. —VLAN mismatch! can cause traffic from one vlan to leak ini another vlan.
Question 6
Which of the following are benefits of VLANs? (Choose three)
A. They increase the size of collision domains.
B. They allow logical grouping of users by function.
C. They can enhance network security.
D. They increase the size of broadcast domains while decreasing the number of collision domains.
E. They increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the broadcast
domains.
F. They simplify switch administration.
Answer: BCE
Explanation
When using VLAN the number and size of collision domains remain the same -> A is not correct.
VLANs allow to group users by function, not by location or geography -> B is correct.
VLANs help minimize the incorrect configuration of VLANs so it enhances the security of the
network -> C is correct.
VLAN increases the size of broadcast domains but does not decrease the number of collision
domains -> D is not correct.
VLANs increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the broadcast
domains which increase the utilization of the links. It is also a big advantage of VLAN -> E is
correct.
VLANs are useful but they are more complex and need more administration -> F is not correct.
Question 7
802. IQ link. —VLAN mismatch! can cause traffic from one vlan to leak ini another vlan.
Question 6
Which of the following are benefits of VLANs? (Choose three)
A. They increase the size of collision domains.
B. They allow logical grouping of users by function.
C. They can enhance network security.
D. They increase the size of broadcast domains while decreasing the number of collision domains.
E. They increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the broadcast
domains.
F. They simplify switch administration.
Answer: BCE
Explanation
When using VLAN the number and size of collision domains remain the same -> A is not correct.
VLANs allow to group users by function, not by location or geography -> B is correct.
VLANs help minimize the incorrect configuration of VLANs so it enhances the security of the
network -> C is correct.
VLAN increases the size of broadcast domains but does not decrease the number of collision
domains -> D is not correct.
VLANs increase the number of broadcast domains while decreasing the size of the broadcast
domains which increase the utilization of the links. It is also a big advantage of VLAN -> E is
correct.
VLANs are useful but they are more complex and need more administration -> F is not correct.
Question 7
Loading page 34...
Sir show interface trunk
Port Mode Encapsulation Status Native vlan.
FaO/1 on 802, Iq Trunking 1
Port VLtns allowed a trunk
FaO/1 1,1005
Port Vlans allowed and active in management domain
FaO/1 12
S2#slupw interface trunk
Port Mode Encapsulation Status Native vlan
FaO/1 on 802. Iq Trunking 2
Port Vlans allowed a trunk
FaO/1 1.1005
Port Vlans allowed and active in management domain
FaO/1 12
A frame from VLAN1 of switch SI is sent to switch S2 where the frame received on VLAN2. What
causes this behavior?
A. trunk mode mismatches
B. vlans that do not correspond to a unique IP subnet
C. native vlan mismatches
D. allowing only vlan 2 on the destination.
Answer: C
Explanation
For 802. Iq encapsulation, the native VLAN must matched at both side; otherwise the link will not
work. In this case the native VLAN of SI is 1 while the native VLAN of S2 is 2.
Question 8
Which statement about vlan operation on Cisco Catalyst switches is true?
A. when a packet is received from an 802. IQ trunk, the vlan id can be determined from the source
MAC address table.
B. unknown unicast frames are retransmitted only to the ports that belong to the same vlan.
C. ports between switches should be configured in access mode so that vlans can span across the
ports.
D. broadcast and multicast frames are retransmitted to ports that are configured on different vlan.
Port Mode Encapsulation Status Native vlan.
FaO/1 on 802, Iq Trunking 1
Port VLtns allowed a trunk
FaO/1 1,1005
Port Vlans allowed and active in management domain
FaO/1 12
S2#slupw interface trunk
Port Mode Encapsulation Status Native vlan
FaO/1 on 802. Iq Trunking 2
Port Vlans allowed a trunk
FaO/1 1.1005
Port Vlans allowed and active in management domain
FaO/1 12
A frame from VLAN1 of switch SI is sent to switch S2 where the frame received on VLAN2. What
causes this behavior?
A. trunk mode mismatches
B. vlans that do not correspond to a unique IP subnet
C. native vlan mismatches
D. allowing only vlan 2 on the destination.
Answer: C
Explanation
For 802. Iq encapsulation, the native VLAN must matched at both side; otherwise the link will not
work. In this case the native VLAN of SI is 1 while the native VLAN of S2 is 2.
Question 8
Which statement about vlan operation on Cisco Catalyst switches is true?
A. when a packet is received from an 802. IQ trunk, the vlan id can be determined from the source
MAC address table.
B. unknown unicast frames are retransmitted only to the ports that belong to the same vlan.
C. ports between switches should be configured in access mode so that vlans can span across the
ports.
D. broadcast and multicast frames are retransmitted to ports that are configured on different vlan.
Loading page 35...
Answer: B
Explanation
Answer A is not correct because when a packet is received from an 802. IQ trunk, it always carries
VLAN ID information in the VLAN tag portion so the switch does not need to look up its source
MAC address table to determine the VLAN ID of that packet.
Question 9
Which two benefits are provided by creating VLANs? (Choose two)
A. added security
B. dedicated bandwidth
C. provides segmentation
D. allows switches to route traffic between subinterfaces
E. contains collisions
Answer: A C
Question 10
Assuming the default switch configuration which vlan range can be added modified and removed on
a Cisco switch?
A. 2 through 1001
B. 1 through 1001
C. 1 through 1002
D. 2 through 1005
Answer: A
Explanation
VLAN 1 is the default VLAN on Cisco switch. It always exists and can not be added, modified or
removed.
VLANs 1002-1005 are default VLANs for FDDI & Token Ring and they can't be deleted or used for
Ethernet.
Explanation
Answer A is not correct because when a packet is received from an 802. IQ trunk, it always carries
VLAN ID information in the VLAN tag portion so the switch does not need to look up its source
MAC address table to determine the VLAN ID of that packet.
Question 9
Which two benefits are provided by creating VLANs? (Choose two)
A. added security
B. dedicated bandwidth
C. provides segmentation
D. allows switches to route traffic between subinterfaces
E. contains collisions
Answer: A C
Question 10
Assuming the default switch configuration which vlan range can be added modified and removed on
a Cisco switch?
A. 2 through 1001
B. 1 through 1001
C. 1 through 1002
D. 2 through 1005
Answer: A
Explanation
VLAN 1 is the default VLAN on Cisco switch. It always exists and can not be added, modified or
removed.
VLANs 1002-1005 are default VLANs for FDDI & Token Ring and they can't be deleted or used for
Ethernet.
Loading page 36...
CCNA - Trunking Questions
Question 1
Refer to the topology and router output shown in the exhibit:
S w l l F shew vLui brief
VLAN1 Name Status Ports
1 default actrVr
W Marketing active Fa0/6. FaO/7, FaO/8, FaO/9
Fa0/l 0. FaO/U. Fa0/12, Fa 0/13
FaOrtl, Fafl/15
15 Accounting active FaO/lto, FaO,13. FaD/19, Fa0J20
FaO.'Zf.. FaO/22, FaO/24
20 Adnuii active FaO.T. FaO/2, FaO/3, FaO/4
FaOr'5
1002 fddi default active
1003 token nng default active
1004 iddinet default active
1005 tmet-defauit
Switch
active
A technician is troubleshooting host connectivity issues on the switches. The hosts in VLANs 10 and
15 on Swll are unable to communicate with hosts in the same VLANs on Swl2. Hosts in the Admin
VLAN are able to communicate. The port-to-VLAN assignments are identical on the two switches.
What could be the problem?
A. The FaO/1 port is not operational on one of the switches.
B. The Link connecting the switches has not been configured as a trunk.
C. At lease one port needs to be configured in VLAN 1 for VLANs 10 and 15 to be able to
communicate.
D. Port FastEthemet 0/1 needs to be configured as an access link on both switches.
E. A router is required for hosts on Swll in VLANs 10 and 15 to communicate with hosts in the
same VLAN on Swl2.
Answer: B
Explanation
Question 1
Refer to the topology and router output shown in the exhibit:
S w l l F shew vLui brief
VLAN1 Name Status Ports
1 default actrVr
W Marketing active Fa0/6. FaO/7, FaO/8, FaO/9
Fa0/l 0. FaO/U. Fa0/12, Fa 0/13
FaOrtl, Fafl/15
15 Accounting active FaO/lto, FaO,13. FaD/19, Fa0J20
FaO.'Zf.. FaO/22, FaO/24
20 Adnuii active FaO.T. FaO/2, FaO/3, FaO/4
FaOr'5
1002 fddi default active
1003 token nng default active
1004 iddinet default active
1005 tmet-defauit
Switch
active
A technician is troubleshooting host connectivity issues on the switches. The hosts in VLANs 10 and
15 on Swll are unable to communicate with hosts in the same VLANs on Swl2. Hosts in the Admin
VLAN are able to communicate. The port-to-VLAN assignments are identical on the two switches.
What could be the problem?
A. The FaO/1 port is not operational on one of the switches.
B. The Link connecting the switches has not been configured as a trunk.
C. At lease one port needs to be configured in VLAN 1 for VLANs 10 and 15 to be able to
communicate.
D. Port FastEthemet 0/1 needs to be configured as an access link on both switches.
E. A router is required for hosts on Swll in VLANs 10 and 15 to communicate with hosts in the
same VLAN on Swl2.
Answer: B
Explanation
Loading page 37...
The show vlan command only displays access ports, the trunk ports are not shown in this command
(we can use the —show interface trunkll command to see trunked ports). In the output we can see the
ports FaO/1 connecting between two switches in VLAN 20 -> they are access ports and only VLAN
20 can communicate. To make all VLANs can communicate (with the same VLAN at the other
switch), the link between two switches must be set as trunk -> B is correct.
Question 2
In a switched environment, what does the IEEE 802. IQ standard describe?
A. the operation of VTP
B. a method of VLAN trunking
C. an approach to wireless LAN communication
D. the process for root bridge selection
E. VLAN pruning
Answer: B
Question 3
As a network technician, do you know which are valid modes for a switch port used as a VLAN
trunk? (Choose three)
A. transparent
B. auto
C. on
D. desirable
E. blocking
F. forwarding
Answer: B C D
Question 4
Refer to the exhibit:
(we can use the —show interface trunkll command to see trunked ports). In the output we can see the
ports FaO/1 connecting between two switches in VLAN 20 -> they are access ports and only VLAN
20 can communicate. To make all VLANs can communicate (with the same VLAN at the other
switch), the link between two switches must be set as trunk -> B is correct.
Question 2
In a switched environment, what does the IEEE 802. IQ standard describe?
A. the operation of VTP
B. a method of VLAN trunking
C. an approach to wireless LAN communication
D. the process for root bridge selection
E. VLAN pruning
Answer: B
Question 3
As a network technician, do you know which are valid modes for a switch port used as a VLAN
trunk? (Choose three)
A. transparent
B. auto
C. on
D. desirable
E. blocking
F. forwarding
Answer: B C D
Question 4
Refer to the exhibit:
Loading page 38...
SwitchA Switch B
SltfitchA£ show niiiiLLrig-cujlfig
Build Lng con h gi ir.it i on ...
<3utpx.it omitted--'
Current configuration: 100 bytes
I
interface FasEthemetO/24
switchport mode access
no ip address
l
output omitted---
end
SwitdlBi show nuuliilg-COufig
Building configuration...
Output omitted>
Current configuration; IGO bytes
I
interface Fa3EthemetO/24
switchport mode access
no ip address
I
output omitted3’
end
All switch ports are assigned to the correct VLANs, but none of the hosts connected to SwitchA can
communicate with hosts in the same VLAN connected to SwitchB. Based on the output shown, what
is the most likely problem?
A. The access link needs to be configured in multiple VLANs.
B. The link between the switches is configured in the wrong VLAN
C. The link between the switches needs to be configured as a trunk.
D. VTP is not configured to carry VLAN information between the switches.
E. Switch IP addresses must be configured in order for traffic to be forwarded between the switches.
Answer: C
Question 5
Which IEEE standard protocol is initiated as a result of successful DTP completion in a switch over
FastEthemet?
A. 802.3ad
B. 802. Iw
C. 802.1Q
D. 802. Id
SltfitchA£ show niiiiLLrig-cujlfig
Build Lng con h gi ir.it i on ...
<3utpx.it omitted--'
Current configuration: 100 bytes
I
interface FasEthemetO/24
switchport mode access
no ip address
l
output omitted---
end
SwitdlBi show nuuliilg-COufig
Building configuration...
Output omitted>
Current configuration; IGO bytes
I
interface Fa3EthemetO/24
switchport mode access
no ip address
I
output omitted3’
end
All switch ports are assigned to the correct VLANs, but none of the hosts connected to SwitchA can
communicate with hosts in the same VLAN connected to SwitchB. Based on the output shown, what
is the most likely problem?
A. The access link needs to be configured in multiple VLANs.
B. The link between the switches is configured in the wrong VLAN
C. The link between the switches needs to be configured as a trunk.
D. VTP is not configured to carry VLAN information between the switches.
E. Switch IP addresses must be configured in order for traffic to be forwarded between the switches.
Answer: C
Question 5
Which IEEE standard protocol is initiated as a result of successful DTP completion in a switch over
FastEthemet?
A. 802.3ad
B. 802. Iw
C. 802.1Q
D. 802. Id
Loading page 39...
Answer: C
Explanation
Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP) is a Cisco proprietary protocol for negotiating trunking on a link
between two devices and for negotiating the type of trunking encapsulation (802. IQ) to be used.
Question 6
Which three of these statements regarding 802. IQ trunking are correct? (Choose three)
A. 802. IQ native VLAN frames are untagged by default.
B. 802. IQ trunking ports can also be secure ports.
C. 802. IQ trunks can use 10 Mb/s Ethernet interfaces.
D. 802. IQ trunks require full-duplex, point-to-point connectivity.
E. 802.1 Q trunks should have native VLANs that are the same at both ends.
Answer: ACE
Question 7
Refer to the exhibit:
Fa0/0,l - 172,19,1,254/24 VLAN 1
FaOfo.2 - 172.19.2, 25 L 21 VLAN 2
Fafl/0.3 - 172.193,15-1/24 VLAN 3
C-router is to be used as a —route-ion-a-stickll to route between the VLANs. All the interfaces have
been properly configured and IP routing is operational. The hosts in the VLANs have been
configured with the appropriate default gateway. What can be said about this configuration?
A. These commands need to be added to the configuration:
C-router(config)# router eigrp 123
C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0
B. No further routing configuration is required.
C. These commands need to be added to the configuration:
C-router(config)# router ospf 1
C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
Explanation
Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP) is a Cisco proprietary protocol for negotiating trunking on a link
between two devices and for negotiating the type of trunking encapsulation (802. IQ) to be used.
Question 6
Which three of these statements regarding 802. IQ trunking are correct? (Choose three)
A. 802. IQ native VLAN frames are untagged by default.
B. 802. IQ trunking ports can also be secure ports.
C. 802. IQ trunks can use 10 Mb/s Ethernet interfaces.
D. 802. IQ trunks require full-duplex, point-to-point connectivity.
E. 802.1 Q trunks should have native VLANs that are the same at both ends.
Answer: ACE
Question 7
Refer to the exhibit:
Fa0/0,l - 172,19,1,254/24 VLAN 1
FaOfo.2 - 172.19.2, 25 L 21 VLAN 2
Fafl/0.3 - 172.193,15-1/24 VLAN 3
C-router is to be used as a —route-ion-a-stickll to route between the VLANs. All the interfaces have
been properly configured and IP routing is operational. The hosts in the VLANs have been
configured with the appropriate default gateway. What can be said about this configuration?
A. These commands need to be added to the configuration:
C-router(config)# router eigrp 123
C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0
B. No further routing configuration is required.
C. These commands need to be added to the configuration:
C-router(config)# router ospf 1
C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
Loading page 40...
D. These commands need to be added to the configuration:
C-router(config)# router rip
C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0
Answer: B
Question 8
Refer to the exhibit:
Switch!
IP address: 192.168.1.2/24
Ports 2-12 VLAN 10
Ports 13-24 VLAN 20
Hout 1 Host 2
IP address: 192.168.10.5/24 IF address: 192.168.20.5/24
Detail It Gateway: 192,168 10.1 Detault Gateway; 192.168.20.1
What commands must be configured on the 2950 switch and the router to allow communication
between host 1 and host 2? (Choose two)
A. Router(config)#interface fastethemet 0/0
Router(config-if)#ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
Router(config-if)#no shut down
B. Router(config)#interface fastethemet 0/0
Router(config-if)#no shutdown
Router(config)#interface fastethemet 0/0.1
Router(config-subif)#encapsulation dotlq 10
Router(config-subif)#ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0
Router(config-subif)#interface fastethemet 0/0.2
Router(config-subif)#encapsulation dotlq 20
Router(config-subif)#ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0
C. Router (config)#router eigrp 100
Router(config-router)#network 192.168.10.0
Router(config-router)#network 192.168.20.0
C-router(config)# router rip
C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0
Answer: B
Question 8
Refer to the exhibit:
Switch!
IP address: 192.168.1.2/24
Ports 2-12 VLAN 10
Ports 13-24 VLAN 20
Hout 1 Host 2
IP address: 192.168.10.5/24 IF address: 192.168.20.5/24
Detail It Gateway: 192,168 10.1 Detault Gateway; 192.168.20.1
What commands must be configured on the 2950 switch and the router to allow communication
between host 1 and host 2? (Choose two)
A. Router(config)#interface fastethemet 0/0
Router(config-if)#ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
Router(config-if)#no shut down
B. Router(config)#interface fastethemet 0/0
Router(config-if)#no shutdown
Router(config)#interface fastethemet 0/0.1
Router(config-subif)#encapsulation dotlq 10
Router(config-subif)#ip address 192.168.10.1 255.255.255.0
Router(config-subif)#interface fastethemet 0/0.2
Router(config-subif)#encapsulation dotlq 20
Router(config-subif)#ip address 192.168.20.1 255.255.255.0
C. Router (config)#router eigrp 100
Router(config-router)#network 192.168.10.0
Router(config-router)#network 192.168.20.0
Loading page 41...
D. Switch1(config)# vlan database
Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp domain XYZ
Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp server
E. Switch1(config) # interface fastEthemet 0/1
Switch l(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
F. Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch l(config-if)# ip default-gateway 192.168.1.1
Answer: B E
Question 9
Which two of these are characteristics of the 802. IQ protocol? (Choose two)
A. It is a layer 2 messaging protocol which maintains vlan configurations across network.
B. It includes an 8-bit field which specifies the priority of a frame.
C. It is used exclusively for tagging vlan frames and does not address network reconvergence
following switched network topology changes.
D. It modifies the 802.3 frame header and thus requires that the FCS be recomputed.
E. It is a trunking protocol capable of earring untagged frames.
Answer: D E
Explanation
IEEE 802. IQ is the networking standard that supports Virtual LANs (VLANs) on an Ethernet
network. It is a protocol that allows VLANs to communicate with one another using a router. 802.1 Q
trunks support tagged and untagged frames.
If a switch receives untagged frames on a trunk port, it believes that frame is a part of the native
VLAN. Also, frames from a native VLAN are not tagged when exiting the switch via a trunk port.
The 802. Iq frame format is same as 802.3. The only change is the addition of 4 bytes fields. That
additional header includes a field with which to identify the VLAN number. Because inserting this
header changes the frame, 802. IQ encapsulation forces a recalculation of the original FCS field in
the Ethernet trailer.
Note: Frame Check Sequence (FCS) is a four-octet field used to verify that the frame was received
without loss or error. FCS is based on the contents of the entire frame.
Question 10
What are the possible trunking modes for a switch port? (Choose three)
Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp domain XYZ
Switch1(config-vlan)# vtp server
E. Switch1(config) # interface fastEthemet 0/1
Switch l(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
F. Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1
Switch l(config-if)# ip default-gateway 192.168.1.1
Answer: B E
Question 9
Which two of these are characteristics of the 802. IQ protocol? (Choose two)
A. It is a layer 2 messaging protocol which maintains vlan configurations across network.
B. It includes an 8-bit field which specifies the priority of a frame.
C. It is used exclusively for tagging vlan frames and does not address network reconvergence
following switched network topology changes.
D. It modifies the 802.3 frame header and thus requires that the FCS be recomputed.
E. It is a trunking protocol capable of earring untagged frames.
Answer: D E
Explanation
IEEE 802. IQ is the networking standard that supports Virtual LANs (VLANs) on an Ethernet
network. It is a protocol that allows VLANs to communicate with one another using a router. 802.1 Q
trunks support tagged and untagged frames.
If a switch receives untagged frames on a trunk port, it believes that frame is a part of the native
VLAN. Also, frames from a native VLAN are not tagged when exiting the switch via a trunk port.
The 802. Iq frame format is same as 802.3. The only change is the addition of 4 bytes fields. That
additional header includes a field with which to identify the VLAN number. Because inserting this
header changes the frame, 802. IQ encapsulation forces a recalculation of the original FCS field in
the Ethernet trailer.
Note: Frame Check Sequence (FCS) is a four-octet field used to verify that the frame was received
without loss or error. FCS is based on the contents of the entire frame.
Question 10
What are the possible trunking modes for a switch port? (Choose three)
Loading page 42...
A. transparent
B. auto
C. on
D. desirable
E. client
F. forwarding
Answer: BCD
CCNA - Trunking Questions 2
Question 1
What is the function of the command switchport trunk native vlan 999 on a trunk port?
A. It designates VLAN 999 for untagged traffic.
B. It blocks VLAN 999 traffic from passing on the trunk.
C. It creates a VLAN 999 interface.
D. It designates VLAN 999 as the default for all unknown tagged traffic.
Answer: A
Question 2
Which three elements must be used when you configure a router interface for vlan trunking? (Choose
three)
A. one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface
B. subinterface numbering that matches vlan tages
C. subinterface encapsulation identifiers that match vlan tags
D. a management domain for each subinterface G E. one physical interface for each subinterface
F. one subinterface per vlan
Answer: A C F
Question 3
Which two link protocols are used to carry multiple VLANs over a single link? (Choose two)
A. VTP
B. 802. Iq
C. IGP
B. auto
C. on
D. desirable
E. client
F. forwarding
Answer: BCD
CCNA - Trunking Questions 2
Question 1
What is the function of the command switchport trunk native vlan 999 on a trunk port?
A. It designates VLAN 999 for untagged traffic.
B. It blocks VLAN 999 traffic from passing on the trunk.
C. It creates a VLAN 999 interface.
D. It designates VLAN 999 as the default for all unknown tagged traffic.
Answer: A
Question 2
Which three elements must be used when you configure a router interface for vlan trunking? (Choose
three)
A. one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface
B. subinterface numbering that matches vlan tages
C. subinterface encapsulation identifiers that match vlan tags
D. a management domain for each subinterface G E. one physical interface for each subinterface
F. one subinterface per vlan
Answer: A C F
Question 3
Which two link protocols are used to carry multiple VLANs over a single link? (Choose two)
A. VTP
B. 802. Iq
C. IGP
Loading page 43...
D. ISL
E. 802.3u
Answer: B D
Explanation
Cisco switches support two trunking protocols 802. Iq & ISL. 802. Iq is an open standard and is thus
compatible between most vendors' equipment while Inter -Switch Link (ISL) is Cisco proprietary.
Question 4
Which two commands can be used to verify a trunk link configuration status on a Cisco switch?
(choose two)
A. show interfaces trunk
B. show interfaces switchport
C. show ip interface brief
D. show interfaces vlan
Answer: A B
Explanation
The —show interfaces trunkll command and —show interfaces switchportll command can be used to
verify the status of an interface (trunking or not). The outputs of these commands are shown below
(port Ethernet 1/0 has been configured as trunk):
PlUltshoH
P o r t
Ltl/0
i n t e r f a c e s t r u n k j
Hnde
\ on Enc apsu l a t Ion
. i d S t a t u s
t r u n k i n g N a t i v e
1 < v l a n
Port
Etl/fl Ulans
1 4094 a l l o w e d on t r u n k
Port U Ians
1 a l l o w e d and a c t i v e in management domain
P o r t
Ft 1 / 0 U Ians
1 in s p a n n i n g tree forwarding s t a t e and not pruned
E. 802.3u
Answer: B D
Explanation
Cisco switches support two trunking protocols 802. Iq & ISL. 802. Iq is an open standard and is thus
compatible between most vendors' equipment while Inter -Switch Link (ISL) is Cisco proprietary.
Question 4
Which two commands can be used to verify a trunk link configuration status on a Cisco switch?
(choose two)
A. show interfaces trunk
B. show interfaces switchport
C. show ip interface brief
D. show interfaces vlan
Answer: A B
Explanation
The —show interfaces trunkll command and —show interfaces switchportll command can be used to
verify the status of an interface (trunking or not). The outputs of these commands are shown below
(port Ethernet 1/0 has been configured as trunk):
PlUltshoH
P o r t
Ltl/0
i n t e r f a c e s t r u n k j
Hnde
\ on Enc apsu l a t Ion
. i d S t a t u s
t r u n k i n g N a t i v e
1 < v l a n
Port
Etl/fl Ulans
1 4094 a l l o w e d on t r u n k
Port U Ians
1 a l l o w e d and a c t i v e in management domain
P o r t
Ft 1 / 0 U Ians
1 in s p a n n i n g tree forwarding s t a t e and not pruned
Loading page 44...
Ulflttshow interfaces sw it chpo rt
Name: E t 1 / 0
S w i t c h p o r t : E n a b l e d
A d m i n i s t r a t i v e Ho de: trunk
Opn rat iu.nal Hode : t r u n k
A d m i n i s t r a t i v e T r u n k i n g E n c a p s u l a t ion : d o t l q
O p e r a t i o n a l T r u n k i n g E n c a p s u l a t i o n : d o t l q
Opr I'rt l. i luirtl El.hk rl.jjjiti ; RxRlflfl
N e g o t i a t i o n of T r u n k i n g : On
A c c e s s Ftodc ULAN: 1 { d e f a u l t >
T r u n k i n g N a t i v e Hinde ULAN; f <tl«faLil1:>
A d m i n i s t r a t i v e N a t i v e VLAN t a g g i n g : e n a b l e d
O p e r a t i o n a l N a t i v e ULAN t a g g i n g : d i s a b l e d
Ihiiize ULAN; none
A d m i n i s t r a t i v e p r i v a t e —u lan ho s t - a s s o c i a t ion : none
A d m i n i s t r a t i v e p r i v a t e ulan n a p p i n g : none
Ope rai. i t m a l p r i o a t e - u T a n ; nape
T r u n k i n g VLANs E n a b l e d : ALL
P r u n i n g ULflNs E n a b l e d : 2 1801
Capture Mode Disabled
Capture ULANc A l l o w e d : ALL
The —show ip interface brief'll command only gives us information about the IP address, the status
(up/down) of an interface:
S10#show ip i n t e r f a c e b r i e f
i n t e r f a c e T P - A d d r e s s OK? Method S t a t u s P r o t o c o I
Ethcrnctfl/fl u n a s s i g n e d VER HU KAM admin i s t rat iuc Ly down down
E t h e r n e t 0 / 1 u n a s s i g n e d VES NV RAN admin i s t rat ive I.y down down
Ft herne i.fl/2 u n a s s i g n e d VER NVRAM adi.ri r i . l s t r a l . i u e l y down dirun
Ether net 0/3 u n a s s i g n e d VES NVRAM admin i s t rat ive l y down down
E t h e r n e t ! /fl u n a s s i g n e d VES u n s e t up up
EtheriWfil/i ii rias 5 i g n e d VER NVRAM adm in t s t r a t i uel.y down dnwri
E t h e r n e t 1/2 u n a s s i g n e d VES NVRAM adninistrat ive ly down down
E t l i e r n c t l / 3 u n a s s i g n e d VES NVRAM admin i s t rat ive 1 y down down
lild.nl u n a s s igned VER NVRAM adm i.n i s t ra t iv e l y down down
The —show interfaces vlanll command only gives uanformation about that VLAN, not about which
ports are the trunk links:
SlflWshou interfaces v lan 1
J l o n l is a d m i n i s t r a t i v e l y down, l i n e p r o t o c o l i s down
Hardware is E t h e r S U I , a d d r e s s i s aabb . ccSfl.Ba00 <bia a a b b _ c c 8 0 . 0a0B5
fill] IbflB b y t e s , BW 1B0B0B0 K b i t , PL? 10 u s e e ,
r e l i a b i l i t y 2 5 5 / 2 5 5 - t x l o a d 1 / 2 5 5 . r x l o a d 1 / 2 5 5
E n c a p s u l a t i o n ARPA, l o o p b a c k not s e t
K e e p a l i v e not s u p p o r t e d
ARP t y p e s AREA, ARP l i n e o u t 0 4 : 0 0 ; 00
Last input n e u e r , o u t p u t n e u e r , o u t p u t hang n e u e r
Last c l e a r i n g of "show i n t e r f a c e 1' c o u n t e r s n e v e r
fupu.1. q u e u e : 0/75/0/0 i e e / n a x / d r o p s / f t u s h e s > ■ T o t a l o u t p u t drups : ft
Que us in g s t rat e gy : f if o
Output q u e u e : (1/40 ( s i s e / m a x ?
5 m i n u t e i n p u t rate 0 h i t s / s e r . 0 i > a r k e t s / N e c
5 m i n u t e o u t p u t r a t e 0 b i t s / s o e , fl p a c k e t s / s e c
fl p a c k e t s i n p u t , (J b y t e s , 0 no b u f f e r
R e c e i v e d 0 h m a d u a l s <0 TP n u l t { . c a s t s >
O r u n t s , 0 g i a n t s , B t h r o t t l e s
0 i n p u t e r r o r s , 0 CBC, (J f r a n c , fl o v e r r u n , fl i g n o r e d
0 p a c k e t s o u t p u t . 0 b y t e s - 0 under runs
(i o u t p u t e r r o r s , 1 i n t e r f a c e r e s e t s
B o u t p u t b u f f e r f a i l u r e s , 0 o u t p u t b u f f e r s swapped out
Question 5
Refer to the exhibit:
Name: E t 1 / 0
S w i t c h p o r t : E n a b l e d
A d m i n i s t r a t i v e Ho de: trunk
Opn rat iu.nal Hode : t r u n k
A d m i n i s t r a t i v e T r u n k i n g E n c a p s u l a t ion : d o t l q
O p e r a t i o n a l T r u n k i n g E n c a p s u l a t i o n : d o t l q
Opr I'rt l. i luirtl El.hk rl.jjjiti ; RxRlflfl
N e g o t i a t i o n of T r u n k i n g : On
A c c e s s Ftodc ULAN: 1 { d e f a u l t >
T r u n k i n g N a t i v e Hinde ULAN; f <tl«faLil1:>
A d m i n i s t r a t i v e N a t i v e VLAN t a g g i n g : e n a b l e d
O p e r a t i o n a l N a t i v e ULAN t a g g i n g : d i s a b l e d
Ihiiize ULAN; none
A d m i n i s t r a t i v e p r i v a t e —u lan ho s t - a s s o c i a t ion : none
A d m i n i s t r a t i v e p r i v a t e ulan n a p p i n g : none
Ope rai. i t m a l p r i o a t e - u T a n ; nape
T r u n k i n g VLANs E n a b l e d : ALL
P r u n i n g ULflNs E n a b l e d : 2 1801
Capture Mode Disabled
Capture ULANc A l l o w e d : ALL
The —show ip interface brief'll command only gives us information about the IP address, the status
(up/down) of an interface:
S10#show ip i n t e r f a c e b r i e f
i n t e r f a c e T P - A d d r e s s OK? Method S t a t u s P r o t o c o I
Ethcrnctfl/fl u n a s s i g n e d VER HU KAM admin i s t rat iuc Ly down down
E t h e r n e t 0 / 1 u n a s s i g n e d VES NV RAN admin i s t rat ive I.y down down
Ft herne i.fl/2 u n a s s i g n e d VER NVRAM adi.ri r i . l s t r a l . i u e l y down dirun
Ether net 0/3 u n a s s i g n e d VES NVRAM admin i s t rat ive l y down down
E t h e r n e t ! /fl u n a s s i g n e d VES u n s e t up up
EtheriWfil/i ii rias 5 i g n e d VER NVRAM adm in t s t r a t i uel.y down dnwri
E t h e r n e t 1/2 u n a s s i g n e d VES NVRAM adninistrat ive ly down down
E t l i e r n c t l / 3 u n a s s i g n e d VES NVRAM admin i s t rat ive 1 y down down
lild.nl u n a s s igned VER NVRAM adm i.n i s t ra t iv e l y down down
The —show interfaces vlanll command only gives uanformation about that VLAN, not about which
ports are the trunk links:
SlflWshou interfaces v lan 1
J l o n l is a d m i n i s t r a t i v e l y down, l i n e p r o t o c o l i s down
Hardware is E t h e r S U I , a d d r e s s i s aabb . ccSfl.Ba00 <bia a a b b _ c c 8 0 . 0a0B5
fill] IbflB b y t e s , BW 1B0B0B0 K b i t , PL? 10 u s e e ,
r e l i a b i l i t y 2 5 5 / 2 5 5 - t x l o a d 1 / 2 5 5 . r x l o a d 1 / 2 5 5
E n c a p s u l a t i o n ARPA, l o o p b a c k not s e t
K e e p a l i v e not s u p p o r t e d
ARP t y p e s AREA, ARP l i n e o u t 0 4 : 0 0 ; 00
Last input n e u e r , o u t p u t n e u e r , o u t p u t hang n e u e r
Last c l e a r i n g of "show i n t e r f a c e 1' c o u n t e r s n e v e r
fupu.1. q u e u e : 0/75/0/0 i e e / n a x / d r o p s / f t u s h e s > ■ T o t a l o u t p u t drups : ft
Que us in g s t rat e gy : f if o
Output q u e u e : (1/40 ( s i s e / m a x ?
5 m i n u t e i n p u t rate 0 h i t s / s e r . 0 i > a r k e t s / N e c
5 m i n u t e o u t p u t r a t e 0 b i t s / s o e , fl p a c k e t s / s e c
fl p a c k e t s i n p u t , (J b y t e s , 0 no b u f f e r
R e c e i v e d 0 h m a d u a l s <0 TP n u l t { . c a s t s >
O r u n t s , 0 g i a n t s , B t h r o t t l e s
0 i n p u t e r r o r s , 0 CBC, (J f r a n c , fl o v e r r u n , fl i g n o r e d
0 p a c k e t s o u t p u t . 0 b y t e s - 0 under runs
(i o u t p u t e r r o r s , 1 i n t e r f a c e r e s e t s
B o u t p u t b u f f e r f a i l u r e s , 0 o u t p u t b u f f e r s swapped out
Question 5
Refer to the exhibit:
Loading page 45...
Switch?
IP address: 192.168.1.3/24
Porta 2-12 VLAN 10
Ports 13-24 VLAN 20 ____________
How should the FastEthernetO/1 port on the 2950 model switches that are shown in the exhibit be
configured to allow connectivity between all devices?
A. The ports only need to be connected by a crossover cable.
B. SwitchX (config)#interface FastEthemet 0/1
SwitchX(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
C. SwitchX (config)#interface FastEthemet 0/1
SwitchX(config-if)#switchport mode access
SwitchX(config-if)#switchport access vlan 1
D. SwitchX (config)#interface FastEthemet 0/1
SwitchX(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
SwitchX(config-if)#switchport trunk vlan 1
SwitchX(config-if)#switchport trunk vlan 10
SwitchX(config-if)#switchport trunk vlan 20
Rout&tl
fa 0/0.1”192.168,1.1/24 VI AN 1
fa 0/0,10 192.168.10.1/24 VLAN 10
fa 0/0.20 192.168.20.1/24 VLAN 20
Switch1
IPaddress; 192.168.1.2/24
Ports 3-12 VLAN 10
Ports 13-24 VJ AN 20
Answer: B
CCNA- EtherChannel
Notes:
The Port Aggregation Protocol (PAgP) and Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP) facilitate the
automatic creation of EtherChannels by exchanging packets between Ethernet interfaces. The Port
Aggregation Protocol (PAgP) is a Cisco-proprietary solution, and the Link Aggregation Control
Protocol (LACP) is standards based.
LACP modes:
IP address: 192.168.1.3/24
Porta 2-12 VLAN 10
Ports 13-24 VLAN 20 ____________
How should the FastEthernetO/1 port on the 2950 model switches that are shown in the exhibit be
configured to allow connectivity between all devices?
A. The ports only need to be connected by a crossover cable.
B. SwitchX (config)#interface FastEthemet 0/1
SwitchX(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
C. SwitchX (config)#interface FastEthemet 0/1
SwitchX(config-if)#switchport mode access
SwitchX(config-if)#switchport access vlan 1
D. SwitchX (config)#interface FastEthemet 0/1
SwitchX(config-if)#switchport mode trunk
SwitchX(config-if)#switchport trunk vlan 1
SwitchX(config-if)#switchport trunk vlan 10
SwitchX(config-if)#switchport trunk vlan 20
Rout&tl
fa 0/0.1”192.168,1.1/24 VI AN 1
fa 0/0,10 192.168.10.1/24 VLAN 10
fa 0/0.20 192.168.20.1/24 VLAN 20
Switch1
IPaddress; 192.168.1.2/24
Ports 3-12 VLAN 10
Ports 13-24 VJ AN 20
Answer: B
CCNA- EtherChannel
Notes:
The Port Aggregation Protocol (PAgP) and Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP) facilitate the
automatic creation of EtherChannels by exchanging packets between Ethernet interfaces. The Port
Aggregation Protocol (PAgP) is a Cisco-proprietary solution, and the Link Aggregation Control
Protocol (LACP) is standards based.
LACP modes:
Loading page 46...
+ on: the link aggregation is forced to be formed without any LACP negotiation. A port-channel is
formed only if the peer port is also in —onll mode.
+ off: disable LACP and prevent ports to form a port-channel
+ passive: the switch does not initiate the channel, but does understand incoming LACP packets
+ active: send LACP packets and willing to form a port-channel
The table below lists if an EtherChannel will be formed or not for LACP:
LACP Active Passive
Active Yes Yes
Passive Yes No
PAgP modes:
+ on: The link aggregation is forced to be formed without any PAgP negotiation. A port-channel is
formed only if the peer port is also in —onlluode.
+ off: disable PAgP and prevent ports to form a port-channel
+ desirable: send PAgP packets and willing to form a port-channel
+ auto: does not start PAgP packet negotiation but responds to PAgP packets it receives
The table below lists if an EtherChannel will be formed or not for PAgP:
PAgP Desirable Auto
Desirable Yes Yes
Auto Yes No
An EtherChannel in Cisco can be defined as a Layer 2 EtherChannel or a Layer 3 EtherChannel.
+ For Layer 2 EtherChannel, physical ports are placed into an EtherChannel group. A logical port-
channel interface will be created automatically. An example of configuring Layer 2 EtherChannel
can be found in Question 1 in this article.
+ For Layer 3 EtherChannel, a Layer 3 Switch Virtual Interface (SVI) is created and then the
physical ports are bound into this Layer 3 SVI.
For more information about EtherChannel, please read our EtherChannel tutorial.
Question 1
Refer to the exhibit.
formed only if the peer port is also in —onll mode.
+ off: disable LACP and prevent ports to form a port-channel
+ passive: the switch does not initiate the channel, but does understand incoming LACP packets
+ active: send LACP packets and willing to form a port-channel
The table below lists if an EtherChannel will be formed or not for LACP:
LACP Active Passive
Active Yes Yes
Passive Yes No
PAgP modes:
+ on: The link aggregation is forced to be formed without any PAgP negotiation. A port-channel is
formed only if the peer port is also in —onlluode.
+ off: disable PAgP and prevent ports to form a port-channel
+ desirable: send PAgP packets and willing to form a port-channel
+ auto: does not start PAgP packet negotiation but responds to PAgP packets it receives
The table below lists if an EtherChannel will be formed or not for PAgP:
PAgP Desirable Auto
Desirable Yes Yes
Auto Yes No
An EtherChannel in Cisco can be defined as a Layer 2 EtherChannel or a Layer 3 EtherChannel.
+ For Layer 2 EtherChannel, physical ports are placed into an EtherChannel group. A logical port-
channel interface will be created automatically. An example of configuring Layer 2 EtherChannel
can be found in Question 1 in this article.
+ For Layer 3 EtherChannel, a Layer 3 Switch Virtual Interface (SVI) is created and then the
physical ports are bound into this Layer 3 SVI.
For more information about EtherChannel, please read our EtherChannel tutorial.
Question 1
Refer to the exhibit.
Loading page 47...
aw i bau/2
SW1
interface FastEthemet 0/1
channel- group 1 mode auto
switchport trunk encapsulation dotlq
switch port mode trunk
interface FastEttiernel 0/2
channel-group 1 mode auto
switchport trunk encapsulation dotlq
switch port mode trunk A network administrator is configuring an
EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2. The SW1 configuration is shown. What is the correct
configuration for SW2?
A. interface FastEthemet 0/1
channel-group 1 mode active
switchport trunk encapsulation dotlq
switchport mode trunk
!
interface FastEthernet 0/2
channel-group 1 mode active
switchport trunk encapsulation dotlq
switchport mode trunk
B. interface FastEthemet 0/1
channel-group 2 mode auto
switchport trunk encapsulation dotlq
switchport mode trunk
interface FastEthemet 0/2
channel-group 2 mode auto
switchport trunk encapsulation dotlq
switchport mode trunk
C. interface FastEthemet 0/1
channel-group 1 mode desirable
switchport trunk encapsulation dotlq
switchport mode trunk
!
interface FastEthemet 0/2
channel-group 1 mode desirable
switchport trunk encapsulation dotlq
switchport mode trunk
D. interface FastEthemet 0/1
channel-group 1 mode passive
switchport trunk encapsulation dotlq
SW1
interface FastEthemet 0/1
channel- group 1 mode auto
switchport trunk encapsulation dotlq
switch port mode trunk
interface FastEttiernel 0/2
channel-group 1 mode auto
switchport trunk encapsulation dotlq
switch port mode trunk A network administrator is configuring an
EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2. The SW1 configuration is shown. What is the correct
configuration for SW2?
A. interface FastEthemet 0/1
channel-group 1 mode active
switchport trunk encapsulation dotlq
switchport mode trunk
!
interface FastEthernet 0/2
channel-group 1 mode active
switchport trunk encapsulation dotlq
switchport mode trunk
B. interface FastEthemet 0/1
channel-group 2 mode auto
switchport trunk encapsulation dotlq
switchport mode trunk
interface FastEthemet 0/2
channel-group 2 mode auto
switchport trunk encapsulation dotlq
switchport mode trunk
C. interface FastEthemet 0/1
channel-group 1 mode desirable
switchport trunk encapsulation dotlq
switchport mode trunk
!
interface FastEthemet 0/2
channel-group 1 mode desirable
switchport trunk encapsulation dotlq
switchport mode trunk
D. interface FastEthemet 0/1
channel-group 1 mode passive
switchport trunk encapsulation dotlq
Loading page 48...
switchport mode trunk
!
interface FastEthernet 0/2
channel-group 1 mode passive
switchport trunk encapsulation dotlq
switchport mode trunk
Answer: C
Explanation
From the configuration of SW1, we see it is using Port Aggregation Protocol (PAgP) with —autoll
mode so the other end (SW2) must also runs PAgP with —desirablell mode to actively sending request
to form an Etherchannel.
Question 2
Refer to the exhibit.
!
interface FastEthernet 0/2
channel-group 1 mode passive
switchport trunk encapsulation dotlq
switchport mode trunk
Answer: C
Explanation
From the configuration of SW1, we see it is using Port Aggregation Protocol (PAgP) with —autoll
mode so the other end (SW2) must also runs PAgP with —desirablell mode to actively sending request
to form an Etherchannel.
Question 2
Refer to the exhibit.
Loading page 49...
FaO/1 FaO/1
FaO/2 FaO/2
SWlfcshow etherchannel summary
Flags D ■ down P - bundled in port-channel
l sland alone s - suspended
H Hol-standby (LACP only)
R - Layers S - Layer?
U - in use f - failed to allocale aggregator
M - not in use minimum links not met
u unsuitable for dunoting
w waiting to be aggregated
d - default port
Number of channel-groups in use: 2
Number of aggregators: 2
SW2#show etherchannel summary
Flags D - down p - bundled in port-channel
i stand alone s suspended
H Hot-standby (LACP only)
R - Layer3 S - Layer?
U - in use t - tailed to allocate aggregator
M - not in use. minimum links not met
u - unsuitable tor bundling
w K ailing tu be aggregated
d ■ default port
Number of channel -groups in use. 2
Number of aggregators' 2
Group Port- channel Protocol Ports
1 Pol(SU) LACP Faflr2{P) FaO/1(D)
Group Port- channel Protocol: Ports
1 Po1(SU) LACP FaD/2(P) FaO/1(D)
SW1#show mlertace ta(]/1
FastFthernotO/1 Is down, line protocol is down (disabled)
Hardware is AmdP2r address is aabb.ccoo 05 in
(bia aabb.ccOO 0510)
MTU 1500 bytes. BW 10000 Kbil/sec, DLY 1000 usee,
reliability 255/255, txload 1/255, reload 1/255
l.ncapsulation ARFA, loopback not set
Keepalive set (10 sec)
Full duplex, I0MO/S
input How control is off. oulpul How control is unsupported
ARP type: ARPA, ARP Timeout 04:00:00
Last input 00:00:04, output 00:00:00, output hang never
I a st clearing of "show interface" counters never
input queue: q/2D00W0 {size/max/dmps/nushes);
Total output drops, o
Queueing strategy, fifo
Output queue. D?0 (size/max)
5 minute input rate 0 bits,1sec, 0 packets/sec
5 minute output rate D tuts/sec. 0 packets/sec
SW2#show interface tau/l
FastFihernctn/1 is down, line protocol is down (disabled)
Hardware Is AmdP2, address is aabb.ccOO.0510
(bia aabb.cc00.0510)
MTU 1500 bytes. BW WOOD KbiVsec. DLY 1000 usee,
reliability 255/255, bdoad 1/255, reload 1/255
L.ncapsulation ARFA loopback not set
Kcepaltve set (10 sec)
Full duplex. 100Mb/s
input How control is off. output flow control is unsupported
ARP type. ARPA, ARP Timeout 04:00.00
Last input 00’00:04, output 00:00:00, output bang never
Last deanng or "show interlace'’ counters never
input queue n/7oon/D/n ($ize/max/drops/fiusftes);
Total output drops: 0
Queueing strategy. Tifo
Output queue: 0/0 (size/max)
5 minute input rate 0 bits/sec, 0 packets/sec
5 minute output rale D tnlsteec. 0 packets/sec
If the devices produced the given output, what is the cause of the EtherChannel problem?
A. SWTs Fa0/l interface is administratively shut down.
B. There is an encapsulation mismatch between SWTs Fa0/l and SW2's Fa0/l interfaces.
C. There is an MTU mismatch between SWTs Fa0/l and SW2's Fa0/l interfaces.
D. There is a speed mismatch between SWl's Fa0/l and SW2's Fa0/l interfa ces.
Answer: D
Explanation
All interfaces in an EtherChannel must be configured identically to form an EtherChannel. Specific
settings that must be identical include:
FaO/2 FaO/2
SWlfcshow etherchannel summary
Flags D ■ down P - bundled in port-channel
l sland alone s - suspended
H Hol-standby (LACP only)
R - Layers S - Layer?
U - in use f - failed to allocale aggregator
M - not in use minimum links not met
u unsuitable for dunoting
w waiting to be aggregated
d - default port
Number of channel-groups in use: 2
Number of aggregators: 2
SW2#show etherchannel summary
Flags D - down p - bundled in port-channel
i stand alone s suspended
H Hot-standby (LACP only)
R - Layer3 S - Layer?
U - in use t - tailed to allocate aggregator
M - not in use. minimum links not met
u - unsuitable tor bundling
w K ailing tu be aggregated
d ■ default port
Number of channel -groups in use. 2
Number of aggregators' 2
Group Port- channel Protocol Ports
1 Pol(SU) LACP Faflr2{P) FaO/1(D)
Group Port- channel Protocol: Ports
1 Po1(SU) LACP FaD/2(P) FaO/1(D)
SW1#show mlertace ta(]/1
FastFthernotO/1 Is down, line protocol is down (disabled)
Hardware is AmdP2r address is aabb.ccoo 05 in
(bia aabb.ccOO 0510)
MTU 1500 bytes. BW 10000 Kbil/sec, DLY 1000 usee,
reliability 255/255, txload 1/255, reload 1/255
l.ncapsulation ARFA, loopback not set
Keepalive set (10 sec)
Full duplex, I0MO/S
input How control is off. oulpul How control is unsupported
ARP type: ARPA, ARP Timeout 04:00:00
Last input 00:00:04, output 00:00:00, output hang never
I a st clearing of "show interface" counters never
input queue: q/2D00W0 {size/max/dmps/nushes);
Total output drops, o
Queueing strategy, fifo
Output queue. D?0 (size/max)
5 minute input rate 0 bits,1sec, 0 packets/sec
5 minute output rate D tuts/sec. 0 packets/sec
SW2#show interface tau/l
FastFihernctn/1 is down, line protocol is down (disabled)
Hardware Is AmdP2, address is aabb.ccOO.0510
(bia aabb.cc00.0510)
MTU 1500 bytes. BW WOOD KbiVsec. DLY 1000 usee,
reliability 255/255, bdoad 1/255, reload 1/255
L.ncapsulation ARFA loopback not set
Kcepaltve set (10 sec)
Full duplex. 100Mb/s
input How control is off. output flow control is unsupported
ARP type. ARPA, ARP Timeout 04:00.00
Last input 00’00:04, output 00:00:00, output bang never
Last deanng or "show interlace'’ counters never
input queue n/7oon/D/n ($ize/max/drops/fiusftes);
Total output drops: 0
Queueing strategy. Tifo
Output queue: 0/0 (size/max)
5 minute input rate 0 bits/sec, 0 packets/sec
5 minute output rale D tnlsteec. 0 packets/sec
If the devices produced the given output, what is the cause of the EtherChannel problem?
A. SWTs Fa0/l interface is administratively shut down.
B. There is an encapsulation mismatch between SWTs Fa0/l and SW2's Fa0/l interfaces.
C. There is an MTU mismatch between SWTs Fa0/l and SW2's Fa0/l interfaces.
D. There is a speed mismatch between SWl's Fa0/l and SW2's Fa0/l interfa ces.
Answer: D
Explanation
All interfaces in an EtherChannel must be configured identically to form an EtherChannel. Specific
settings that must be identical include:
Loading page 50...
+ Speed settings
+ Duplex settings
+ STP settings
+ VLAN membership (for access ports)
+ Native VLAN (for trunk ports)
+ Allowed VLANs (for trunk ports)
+ Trunking Encapsulation (ISL or 802. IQ, for trunk ports)
In the output of the —show interface faO/1" commands we see the speed of interface FaO/1 of SW1 is
—1OOMb/sll while that of SW2 is — lOMb/sll so the speed is mismatched hcr-e> an Etherchannel will
not be formed.
Question 3
A network administrator creates a layer 3 EtherChannel, bundling four interfaces into channel group
1. On what interface is the IP address configured?
A. the port-channel 1 interface
B. the highest number member interface
C. all member interfaces
D. the lowest number member interface
Answer: A
Explanation
When an EtherChannel is created, a logical interface will be created on the switches or routers
representing for that EtherChannel. You can configure this logical interface in the way you want. For
example, assign access/trunk mode on switches or assign IP address for the logical interface on
routers... An example of a Layer 3 Etherchannel port is shown below:
interface PortChannell2
description Link to R2
ip address 10.2.4.13 255.255.255.252
Question 4
What parameter can be different on ports within an EtherChannel?
A. speed
B. DTP negotiation settings
C. trunk encapsulation
D. duplex
+ Duplex settings
+ STP settings
+ VLAN membership (for access ports)
+ Native VLAN (for trunk ports)
+ Allowed VLANs (for trunk ports)
+ Trunking Encapsulation (ISL or 802. IQ, for trunk ports)
In the output of the —show interface faO/1" commands we see the speed of interface FaO/1 of SW1 is
—1OOMb/sll while that of SW2 is — lOMb/sll so the speed is mismatched hcr-e> an Etherchannel will
not be formed.
Question 3
A network administrator creates a layer 3 EtherChannel, bundling four interfaces into channel group
1. On what interface is the IP address configured?
A. the port-channel 1 interface
B. the highest number member interface
C. all member interfaces
D. the lowest number member interface
Answer: A
Explanation
When an EtherChannel is created, a logical interface will be created on the switches or routers
representing for that EtherChannel. You can configure this logical interface in the way you want. For
example, assign access/trunk mode on switches or assign IP address for the logical interface on
routers... An example of a Layer 3 Etherchannel port is shown below:
interface PortChannell2
description Link to R2
ip address 10.2.4.13 255.255.255.252
Question 4
What parameter can be different on ports within an EtherChannel?
A. speed
B. DTP negotiation settings
C. trunk encapsulation
D. duplex
Loading page 51...
Answer: B
Explanation
All interfaces in an EtherChannel must be configured identically to form an EtherChannel. Specific
settings that must be identical include:
+ Speed settings
+ Duplex settings
+ STP settings
+ VLAN membership (for access ports)
+ Native VLAN (for trunk ports)
+ Allowed VLANs (for trunk ports)
+ Trunking Encapsulation (ISL or 802. IQ, for trunk ports)
-> DTP negotiation settings can be different on ports within an EtherChannel.
Question 5
Refer to the exhibit.
FastEthemetO/3:
Port state - 1
Channel group = 2
Fort-channel - Po2
Port index = 0
Mode = Passive
GC - -
Load =0x00
Gcchange = -
Pseudo port-channel - Po2
Protocol = LACP
What set of commands was configured on interface FaO/3 to produce the given output?
A. interface FastEthernet 0/3
channel-group 1 mode desirable
switchport trunk encapsulation dotlq
switchport mode trunk
B. interface FastEthernet 0/3
channel-group 2 mode passive
switchport trunk encapsulation dotlq
switchport mode trunk
C. interface FastEthernet 0/3
channel-group 2 mode active
switchport trunk encapsulation dotlq
switchport mode trunk
D. interface FastEthernet 0/3
channel-group 2 mode on
switchport trunk encapsulation dotlq
switchport mode trunk
Explanation
All interfaces in an EtherChannel must be configured identically to form an EtherChannel. Specific
settings that must be identical include:
+ Speed settings
+ Duplex settings
+ STP settings
+ VLAN membership (for access ports)
+ Native VLAN (for trunk ports)
+ Allowed VLANs (for trunk ports)
+ Trunking Encapsulation (ISL or 802. IQ, for trunk ports)
-> DTP negotiation settings can be different on ports within an EtherChannel.
Question 5
Refer to the exhibit.
FastEthemetO/3:
Port state - 1
Channel group = 2
Fort-channel - Po2
Port index = 0
Mode = Passive
GC - -
Load =0x00
Gcchange = -
Pseudo port-channel - Po2
Protocol = LACP
What set of commands was configured on interface FaO/3 to produce the given output?
A. interface FastEthernet 0/3
channel-group 1 mode desirable
switchport trunk encapsulation dotlq
switchport mode trunk
B. interface FastEthernet 0/3
channel-group 2 mode passive
switchport trunk encapsulation dotlq
switchport mode trunk
C. interface FastEthernet 0/3
channel-group 2 mode active
switchport trunk encapsulation dotlq
switchport mode trunk
D. interface FastEthernet 0/3
channel-group 2 mode on
switchport trunk encapsulation dotlq
switchport mode trunk
Loading page 52...
Answer: B
Explanation
From the output we see these lines:
+ Port-channel = Po2 -> must use the command —channel roup 2 ...II
+ Mode = Passive -> must set the mode to passive.
+ Protocol = LACP -> In fact, from the —passive! mode we have already learned it is running ACP.
Therefore the correct command should be —channe roup 2 mode passive!.
Explanation
From the output we see these lines:
+ Port-channel = Po2 -> must use the command —channel roup 2 ...II
+ Mode = Passive -> must set the mode to passive.
+ Protocol = LACP -> In fact, from the —passive! mode we have already learned it is running ACP.
Therefore the correct command should be —channe roup 2 mode passive!.
Loading page 53...
CCNA - InterVLAN Questions
Question 1
Refer to the exhibit:
FaO/O
Trunk
FaO/l 192.168.1.2/24
VLAN 3 VLAN 2 VLAN 3
Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the exhibit?
(Choose two)
A. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.
B. Routed and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
C. Routerl will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.
D. The FastEthemet 0/0 interface on Routerl must be configured with subinterfaces.
E. Routerl needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit.
F. The FastEthemet 0/0 interface on Routerl and Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using the
same encapsulation type.
Answer: D F
Question 1
Refer to the exhibit:
FaO/O
Trunk
FaO/l 192.168.1.2/24
VLAN 3 VLAN 2 VLAN 3
Which two statements are true about interVLAN routing in the topology that is shown in the exhibit?
(Choose two)
A. Host E and host F use the same IP gateway address.
B. Routed and Switch2 should be connected via a crossover cable.
C. Routerl will not play a role in communications between host A and host D.
D. The FastEthemet 0/0 interface on Routerl must be configured with subinterfaces.
E. Routerl needs more LAN interfaces to accommodate the VLANs that are shown in the exhibit.
F. The FastEthemet 0/0 interface on Routerl and Switch2 trunk ports must be configured using the
same encapsulation type.
Answer: D F
Loading page 54...
CCNA- STP
Question 1
Refer to the topology shown in the exhibit. Which ports will be STP designated ports if all the links
are operating at the same bandwidth? (Choose three)
MAC: OfOOdtace.OOOC
default priority
MAC: OfOd i a f e t i l l
detanlt priority
MAC: OlOO.fAre.DDOO
default priority
A. Switch A - FaO/O
B. Switch A - FaO/1
C. Switch B - FaO/O
D. Switch B - FaO/1
E. Switch C - FaO/O
F. Switch C - FaO/1
Answer: BCD
Explanation
First by comparing their MAC addresses we learn that switch B will be root bridge as it has lowest
MAC. Therefore all of its ports are designated ports -> C & D are correct.
On the link between switch A & switch C there must have one designated port and one non-
designated (blocked) port. We can figure out which port is designated port by comparing their MAC
address again. A has lower MAC so FaO/1 of switch A will be designated port while FaO/1 of switch
C will be blocked -> B is correct.
Question 2
What value is primarily used to determine which port becomes the root port on each non-root switch
in a spanning-tree topology?
Question 1
Refer to the topology shown in the exhibit. Which ports will be STP designated ports if all the links
are operating at the same bandwidth? (Choose three)
MAC: OfOOdtace.OOOC
default priority
MAC: OfOd i a f e t i l l
detanlt priority
MAC: OlOO.fAre.DDOO
default priority
A. Switch A - FaO/O
B. Switch A - FaO/1
C. Switch B - FaO/O
D. Switch B - FaO/1
E. Switch C - FaO/O
F. Switch C - FaO/1
Answer: BCD
Explanation
First by comparing their MAC addresses we learn that switch B will be root bridge as it has lowest
MAC. Therefore all of its ports are designated ports -> C & D are correct.
On the link between switch A & switch C there must have one designated port and one non-
designated (blocked) port. We can figure out which port is designated port by comparing their MAC
address again. A has lower MAC so FaO/1 of switch A will be designated port while FaO/1 of switch
C will be blocked -> B is correct.
Question 2
What value is primarily used to determine which port becomes the root port on each non-root switch
in a spanning-tree topology?
Loading page 55...
A. lowest port MAC address
B. port priority number and MAC address.
C. VTP revision number
D. highest port priority number.
E. path cost
Answer: E
Explanation
The path cost to the root bridge is the most important value to determine which port will become the
root port on each non-root switch. In particular, the port with lowest cost to the root bridge will
become root port (on non-root switch).
Question 3
What is one benefit of PVST+?
A. PVST+ reduces the CPU cycles for all the switches in the network.
B. PVST+ automatically selects the root bridge location, to provide optimization.
C. PVST+ allows the root switch location to be optimized per vlan.
D. PVST+ supports Layer 3 load balancing without loops.
Answer: C
Explanation
Per VLAN Spanning Tree (PVST) maintains a spanning tree instance for each VLAN configured in
the network. It means a switch can be the root bridge of a VLAN while another switch can be the
root bridge of other VLANs in a common topology. For example, Switch 1 can be the root bridge for
Voice data while Switch 2 can be the root bridge for Video data. If designed correctly, it can
optimize the network traffic.
Question 4
Which two protocols are used by bridges and/or switches to prevent loops in a layer 2 network?
(Choose two)
A. 802. Id
B. VTP
C. 802. Iq
D. STP
E. SAP
B. port priority number and MAC address.
C. VTP revision number
D. highest port priority number.
E. path cost
Answer: E
Explanation
The path cost to the root bridge is the most important value to determine which port will become the
root port on each non-root switch. In particular, the port with lowest cost to the root bridge will
become root port (on non-root switch).
Question 3
What is one benefit of PVST+?
A. PVST+ reduces the CPU cycles for all the switches in the network.
B. PVST+ automatically selects the root bridge location, to provide optimization.
C. PVST+ allows the root switch location to be optimized per vlan.
D. PVST+ supports Layer 3 load balancing without loops.
Answer: C
Explanation
Per VLAN Spanning Tree (PVST) maintains a spanning tree instance for each VLAN configured in
the network. It means a switch can be the root bridge of a VLAN while another switch can be the
root bridge of other VLANs in a common topology. For example, Switch 1 can be the root bridge for
Voice data while Switch 2 can be the root bridge for Video data. If designed correctly, it can
optimize the network traffic.
Question 4
Which two protocols are used by bridges and/or switches to prevent loops in a layer 2 network?
(Choose two)
A. 802. Id
B. VTP
C. 802. Iq
D. STP
E. SAP
Loading page 56...
Answer: A D
Question 5
In which circumstance are multiple copies of the same unicast frame likely to be transmitted in a
switched LAN?
A. after broken links are re-established
B. in an improperly implemented redundant topology
C. when upper-layer protocols require high reliability
D. during high traffic periods
E. when a dual ring topology is in use
Answer: B
Explanation
If we connect two switches via 2 or more links and do not enable STP on these switches then a loop
(which creates multiple copies of the same unicast frame) will occur. It is an example of an
improperly implemented redundant topology.
Question 6
Refer to the exhibit.
A problem with network connectivity has been observed. It is suspected that the cable connected to
switch port FaO/9 on Switch1 is disconnected. What would be an effect of this cable being
disconnected?
A. Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9 until the cable is reconnected.
B. Communication between VLAN3 and the other VLANs would be disabled.
C. The transfer of files from Host B to the server in VLAN9 would be significantly slower.
Question 5
In which circumstance are multiple copies of the same unicast frame likely to be transmitted in a
switched LAN?
A. after broken links are re-established
B. in an improperly implemented redundant topology
C. when upper-layer protocols require high reliability
D. during high traffic periods
E. when a dual ring topology is in use
Answer: B
Explanation
If we connect two switches via 2 or more links and do not enable STP on these switches then a loop
(which creates multiple copies of the same unicast frame) will occur. It is an example of an
improperly implemented redundant topology.
Question 6
Refer to the exhibit.
A problem with network connectivity has been observed. It is suspected that the cable connected to
switch port FaO/9 on Switch1 is disconnected. What would be an effect of this cable being
disconnected?
A. Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9 until the cable is reconnected.
B. Communication between VLAN3 and the other VLANs would be disabled.
C. The transfer of files from Host B to the server in VLAN9 would be significantly slower.
Loading page 57...
D. For less than a minute. Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9. Then normal
network function would resume.
Answer: D
Question 7
Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?
A. learning
B. listening
C. discarding
D. forwarding
Answer: C
Explanation
PVST+ is based on IEEE802.1D Spanning Tree Protocol (STP). But PVST+ has only 3 port states
(discarding, learning and forwarding) while STP has 5 port states (blocking, listening, learning,
forwarding and disabled). So discarding is a new port state in PVST+.
Question 8
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the information given, which switch will be elected root bridge and
why?
A. Switch A, because it has the lowest MAC address
B. Switch A, because it is the most centrally located switch
C. Switch B, because it has the highest MAC address
D. Switch C, because it is the most centrally located switch
E. Switch C, because it has the lowest priority
F. Switch D, because it has the highest priority
network function would resume.
Answer: D
Question 7
Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?
A. learning
B. listening
C. discarding
D. forwarding
Answer: C
Explanation
PVST+ is based on IEEE802.1D Spanning Tree Protocol (STP). But PVST+ has only 3 port states
(discarding, learning and forwarding) while STP has 5 port states (blocking, listening, learning,
forwarding and disabled). So discarding is a new port state in PVST+.
Question 8
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the information given, which switch will be elected root bridge and
why?
A. Switch A, because it has the lowest MAC address
B. Switch A, because it is the most centrally located switch
C. Switch B, because it has the highest MAC address
D. Switch C, because it is the most centrally located switch
E. Switch C, because it has the lowest priority
F. Switch D, because it has the highest priority
Loading page 58...
Answer: E
Question 9
Which term describes a spanning-tree network that has all switch ports in either the blocking or
forwarding state?
A. redundant
B. spanned
C. provisioned
D. converged
Answer: D
Explanation
Spanning Tree Protocol convergence (Layer 2 convergence) happens when bridges and switches
have transitioned to either the forwarding or blocking state. When layer 2 is converged, root bridge is
elected and all port roles (Root, Designated and Non-Designated) in all switches are selected.
Question 10
Refer to the exhibit. Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, what is the most likely
reason that interface FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2?
Switch# show spanning-tree interface fastethernet0/10
Vic?'1 Role Sts Cost Prio.Nbr Type
VLANDOC1 Root FWD 19 128.1 P2p
VLANOO02 Aitn BLK 19 128.2 P2p
VLAN0003 Root FWD 19 128.2 P2p
A. This switch has more than one interface connected to the root network segment in VLAN 2.
B. This switch is running RSTP while the elected designated switch is running 802. Id Spanning
Tree.
C. This switch interface has a higher path cost to the root bridge than another in the topology.
D. This switch has a lower bridge ID for VLAN 2 than the elected designated switch.
Answer: C
Question 9
Which term describes a spanning-tree network that has all switch ports in either the blocking or
forwarding state?
A. redundant
B. spanned
C. provisioned
D. converged
Answer: D
Explanation
Spanning Tree Protocol convergence (Layer 2 convergence) happens when bridges and switches
have transitioned to either the forwarding or blocking state. When layer 2 is converged, root bridge is
elected and all port roles (Root, Designated and Non-Designated) in all switches are selected.
Question 10
Refer to the exhibit. Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, what is the most likely
reason that interface FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2?
Switch# show spanning-tree interface fastethernet0/10
Vic?'1 Role Sts Cost Prio.Nbr Type
VLANDOC1 Root FWD 19 128.1 P2p
VLANOO02 Aitn BLK 19 128.2 P2p
VLAN0003 Root FWD 19 128.2 P2p
A. This switch has more than one interface connected to the root network segment in VLAN 2.
B. This switch is running RSTP while the elected designated switch is running 802. Id Spanning
Tree.
C. This switch interface has a higher path cost to the root bridge than another in the topology.
D. This switch has a lower bridge ID for VLAN 2 than the elected designated switch.
Answer: C
Loading page 59...
CCNA- STP2
Question 1
Three switches are connected to one another via trunk ports. Assuming the default switch
configuration, which switch is elected as the root bridge for the spanning-tree instance of VLAN 1?
A. the switch with the highest MAC address
B. the switch with the lowest MAC address
C. the switch with the highest IP address
D. the switch with the lowest IP address
Answer: B
Question 2
Based on the network shown in the graphic
Which option contains both the potential networking problem and the protocol or setting that should
be used to prevent the problem?
A. routing loops, hold down timers
B. Switching loops, split horizon
C. routing loops, split horizon
D. Switching loops, VTP
E. routing loops, STP
F. Switching loops, STP
Answer: F
Question 3
Question 1
Three switches are connected to one another via trunk ports. Assuming the default switch
configuration, which switch is elected as the root bridge for the spanning-tree instance of VLAN 1?
A. the switch with the highest MAC address
B. the switch with the lowest MAC address
C. the switch with the highest IP address
D. the switch with the lowest IP address
Answer: B
Question 2
Based on the network shown in the graphic
Which option contains both the potential networking problem and the protocol or setting that should
be used to prevent the problem?
A. routing loops, hold down timers
B. Switching loops, split horizon
C. routing loops, split horizon
D. Switching loops, VTP
E. routing loops, STP
F. Switching loops, STP
Answer: F
Question 3
Loading page 60...
Refer to the exhibit. Which switch provides the spanning-tree designated port role for the network
segment that services the printers?
A. Switch1
B. Switch2
C. Switch3
D. Switch4
Answer: C
Explanation
First, the question asks what switch services the printers, so it can be Switch 3 or Switch 4 which is
connected directly to the Printers.
Next, by comparing the MAC address of Switch 3 and Switch 4 we found that the MAC of Switch 3
is smaller. Therefore the interface connected to the Printers of Switch 3 will become designated
interface and the interface of Switch 4 will be blocked. The picture below shows the roles of all
ports:
segment that services the printers?
A. Switch1
B. Switch2
C. Switch3
D. Switch4
Answer: C
Explanation
First, the question asks what switch services the printers, so it can be Switch 3 or Switch 4 which is
connected directly to the Printers.
Next, by comparing the MAC address of Switch 3 and Switch 4 we found that the MAC of Switch 3
is smaller. Therefore the interface connected to the Printers of Switch 3 will become designated
interface and the interface of Switch 4 will be blocked. The picture below shows the roles of all
ports:
Loading page 61...
Sv/iichl Distribution Layer Switch?
DP: Designated Port
RP: Root Port
BP: Blocked Port
(Please notice that Switch 1 will become the root bridge because of its lowest priority, not Switch 3)
CCNA- RSTP
Note: If you are not sure about Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol, please read our Rapid Spanning Tree
Protocol RSTP Tutorial.
Question 1
Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three)
A. RSTP significantly reduces topology reconvening time after a link failure.
B. RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles.
C. RSTP port states are blocking, discarding, learning, or forwarding.
D. RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does.
E. RSTP also uses the STP proposal-agreement sequence.
F. RSTP uses the same timer-based process as STP on point-to-point links.
Answer: ABD
Question 2
Refer to the exhibit:
DP: Designated Port
RP: Root Port
BP: Blocked Port
(Please notice that Switch 1 will become the root bridge because of its lowest priority, not Switch 3)
CCNA- RSTP
Note: If you are not sure about Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol, please read our Rapid Spanning Tree
Protocol RSTP Tutorial.
Question 1
Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three)
A. RSTP significantly reduces topology reconvening time after a link failure.
B. RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles.
C. RSTP port states are blocking, discarding, learning, or forwarding.
D. RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does.
E. RSTP also uses the STP proposal-agreement sequence.
F. RSTP uses the same timer-based process as STP on point-to-point links.
Answer: ABD
Question 2
Refer to the exhibit:
Loading page 62...
Switch show spanning-tree vlan 1
VLAN0001
Spanning tree enabled protocol rstp
Root ID Priority
Address
Cost
Port
Hello Time 2 sec Max Age 20 sec Forward Delay 15 sec
20481
0008.217a.5800
38
1 (FastEthernetO/1)
Priority 32769 (priority 32768 sys-id-ext 1)
Address 0008.205c.6600
Hello Time 2 sec Max Age 20 sec Forward Delay 1 5 sec
Aging Time 300
Bridge ID
Interface Role Sts Cost Prio.Ntn Type
FaO/1 Root FWD 19 128.1 P2p
FaO/4 Desg FDD 38 128.1 P2p
FaO/U Altn BLK 57 128.1 P2p
Fa0/13 Desg FWD 38 128.1 P2p
Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1?
A. It has more than one internee that is connected to the root network segment.
B. It is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802. Id spanning tree.
C. It has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge.
D. It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge.
Answer: D
Explanation
As we can see from the output above, the priority of the root bridge is 20481 while that of the local
bridge is 32769.
Question 3
Which command enables RSTP on a switch?
A. spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst
B. spanning-tree uplinkfast
C. spanning-tree backbonefast
D. spanning-tree mode mst
Answer: A
VLAN0001
Spanning tree enabled protocol rstp
Root ID Priority
Address
Cost
Port
Hello Time 2 sec Max Age 20 sec Forward Delay 15 sec
20481
0008.217a.5800
38
1 (FastEthernetO/1)
Priority 32769 (priority 32768 sys-id-ext 1)
Address 0008.205c.6600
Hello Time 2 sec Max Age 20 sec Forward Delay 1 5 sec
Aging Time 300
Bridge ID
Interface Role Sts Cost Prio.Ntn Type
FaO/1 Root FWD 19 128.1 P2p
FaO/4 Desg FDD 38 128.1 P2p
FaO/U Altn BLK 57 128.1 P2p
Fa0/13 Desg FWD 38 128.1 P2p
Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1?
A. It has more than one internee that is connected to the root network segment.
B. It is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802. Id spanning tree.
C. It has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge.
D. It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge.
Answer: D
Explanation
As we can see from the output above, the priority of the root bridge is 20481 while that of the local
bridge is 32769.
Question 3
Which command enables RSTP on a switch?
A. spanning-tree mode rapid-pvst
B. spanning-tree uplinkfast
C. spanning-tree backbonefast
D. spanning-tree mode mst
Answer: A
Loading page 63...
Question 4
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?
S w i t c h A # show s p a n n i n g t r e c vlan 20
VLAN 0020
Spanning t r e e e n a b l e d p r o t o c o l r s
Root 1 D P r i o r i t y 2 556
A d d r e s s 0 0 1 7 . 5 9 6 d . 2 a 0 0
Cost 35
P o r t 1 1 ( F a s t E t h e r n e t O / l O )
H a l l o Time 2 sec Max Age 2 J s e a Forward D e l a y 15 sea
B r i d g e ID P r i o r i t y 2 0 6 5 2 [ p r i o r i t y 2 6 6 7 2 i d - e x t 1)
A d d r e s s 0 0 1 7 . 5 $ 6 d . l 5 B 0
H e l l o Tine 2 s e a Max Age 20 aec F o r w a r d D e l a y 15 s e c
A g i n g Time 300
I n t e r f a c e R o l e S t s C o a t P r i o . N b r Type
F a O / 1 1
F a O / 1 2
Root FWD 19 1 2 6 . 1 1 P2p
Al tn BMC 19 1 2 6 . 1 2 P2p
A. The FaO/11 role confirms that SwitchA is the root bridge for VLAN 20.
B. VLAN 20 is running the Per VLAN Spanning Tree Protocol.
C. The MAC address of the root bridge is 0017.596d.1580.
D. SwitchA is not the root bridge, because not all of the interface roles are designated.
Answer: D
Explanation
Only non-root bridge can have root port. Fa0/l 1 is the root port so we can confirm this switch is not
the root bridge -> A is not correct.
From the output we learn this switch is running Rapid STP, not PVST -> B is not correct.
0017.596d.1580 is the MAC address of this switch, not of the root bridge. The MAC address of the
root bridge is 0017.596d.2a00 -> C is not correct.
All of the interface roles of the root bridge are designated. SwitchA has one Root port and 1
Alternative port so it is not the root bridge -> D is correct.
Question 5
Refer to the exhibit. The output that is shown is generated at a switch. Which three of these
statements are true? (Choose three)
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true?
S w i t c h A # show s p a n n i n g t r e c vlan 20
VLAN 0020
Spanning t r e e e n a b l e d p r o t o c o l r s
Root 1 D P r i o r i t y 2 556
A d d r e s s 0 0 1 7 . 5 9 6 d . 2 a 0 0
Cost 35
P o r t 1 1 ( F a s t E t h e r n e t O / l O )
H a l l o Time 2 sec Max Age 2 J s e a Forward D e l a y 15 sea
B r i d g e ID P r i o r i t y 2 0 6 5 2 [ p r i o r i t y 2 6 6 7 2 i d - e x t 1)
A d d r e s s 0 0 1 7 . 5 $ 6 d . l 5 B 0
H e l l o Tine 2 s e a Max Age 20 aec F o r w a r d D e l a y 15 s e c
A g i n g Time 300
I n t e r f a c e R o l e S t s C o a t P r i o . N b r Type
F a O / 1 1
F a O / 1 2
Root FWD 19 1 2 6 . 1 1 P2p
Al tn BMC 19 1 2 6 . 1 2 P2p
A. The FaO/11 role confirms that SwitchA is the root bridge for VLAN 20.
B. VLAN 20 is running the Per VLAN Spanning Tree Protocol.
C. The MAC address of the root bridge is 0017.596d.1580.
D. SwitchA is not the root bridge, because not all of the interface roles are designated.
Answer: D
Explanation
Only non-root bridge can have root port. Fa0/l 1 is the root port so we can confirm this switch is not
the root bridge -> A is not correct.
From the output we learn this switch is running Rapid STP, not PVST -> B is not correct.
0017.596d.1580 is the MAC address of this switch, not of the root bridge. The MAC address of the
root bridge is 0017.596d.2a00 -> C is not correct.
All of the interface roles of the root bridge are designated. SwitchA has one Root port and 1
Alternative port so it is not the root bridge -> D is correct.
Question 5
Refer to the exhibit. The output that is shown is generated at a switch. Which three of these
statements are true? (Choose three)
Loading page 64...
S w i t c h shou spanning - ‘ t r e e v i s n 30
VLAN003Q
3 p a n n i n g t r e e enabled: p r o t o c o l r s t p
Pooc ID Pr l o t i c y 2 4 60S
Address OOdO . OATb. 2800
T h i s b r i d g e i s t h e r o o t
H e l l o Tune 2 s e c Han Age 20 s e c F o r w a r d D e l a y 15 s e c
B r i d g e ID P r i o r i t y 2 4 6 0 5 (pt . r l t y 3 4 5 7 6 s y s - 1 .:-■?* r. 50)
A d d r e s s -io ■-’0.047- .2 poo
H-L1C Tur-
Aging Tune
I n t e r f a c e
2 sec Hax
300
Age 2 Cl
C o s t
sec Forward Delay 15 sec
Role S t s P t lo . tfbr T y p e
FA1 / 1 Deag FWD 4 1 2 8 . 1 p2p
Fa 1/2 Desg FUD 4 1 2 8 . 2 p 2 p
F a s / 1 Descr FWD 4 1 2 8 , 2 5 7
A. All ports will be in a state of discarding, learning or forwarding.
B. Thirty VLANs have been configured on this switch.
C. The bridge priority is lower than the default value for spanning tree.
D. All interfaces that are shown are on shared media.
E. All designated ports are in a forwarding state.
F. The switch must be the root bridge for all VLANs on this switch.
Answer: ACE
Explanation
From the output, we see that all ports are in Designated role (forwarding state) -> A and E are
correct.
The command —show spanningree vlan 30" only shows us information about VLAN 30. We don't
know how many VLAN exists in this switch -> B is not correct.
The bridge priority of this switch is 24606 which is lower than the default value bridge priority
32768 -> C is correct.
All three interfaces on this switch have the connection type —p2pll, which means Pointto-point
environment - not a shared media -> D is not correct.
The only thing we can specify is this switch is the root bridge for VLAN 3o but we can not guarantee
it is also the root bridge for other VLANs -> F is not correct.
Question 6
Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (choose two)
VLAN003Q
3 p a n n i n g t r e e enabled: p r o t o c o l r s t p
Pooc ID Pr l o t i c y 2 4 60S
Address OOdO . OATb. 2800
T h i s b r i d g e i s t h e r o o t
H e l l o Tune 2 s e c Han Age 20 s e c F o r w a r d D e l a y 15 s e c
B r i d g e ID P r i o r i t y 2 4 6 0 5 (pt . r l t y 3 4 5 7 6 s y s - 1 .:-■?* r. 50)
A d d r e s s -io ■-’0.047- .2 poo
H-L1C Tur-
Aging Tune
I n t e r f a c e
2 sec Hax
300
Age 2 Cl
C o s t
sec Forward Delay 15 sec
Role S t s P t lo . tfbr T y p e
FA1 / 1 Deag FWD 4 1 2 8 . 1 p2p
Fa 1/2 Desg FUD 4 1 2 8 . 2 p 2 p
F a s / 1 Descr FWD 4 1 2 8 , 2 5 7
A. All ports will be in a state of discarding, learning or forwarding.
B. Thirty VLANs have been configured on this switch.
C. The bridge priority is lower than the default value for spanning tree.
D. All interfaces that are shown are on shared media.
E. All designated ports are in a forwarding state.
F. The switch must be the root bridge for all VLANs on this switch.
Answer: ACE
Explanation
From the output, we see that all ports are in Designated role (forwarding state) -> A and E are
correct.
The command —show spanningree vlan 30" only shows us information about VLAN 30. We don't
know how many VLAN exists in this switch -> B is not correct.
The bridge priority of this switch is 24606 which is lower than the default value bridge priority
32768 -> C is correct.
All three interfaces on this switch have the connection type —p2pll, which means Pointto-point
environment - not a shared media -> D is not correct.
The only thing we can specify is this switch is the root bridge for VLAN 3o but we can not guarantee
it is also the root bridge for other VLANs -> F is not correct.
Question 6
Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (choose two)
Loading page 65...
A. blocking
B. learning
C. disabled
D. forwarding
E. listening
Answer: A D
Explanation
RSTP only has 3 port states that are discarding, learning and forwarding. When RSTP has converged
there are only 2 port states left: discarding and forwarding but the answers don't mention about
discarding state so blocking state (answer A) may be considered the best alternative answer.
Question 7
Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two)
A. RSTP cannot operate with PVST+.
B. RSTP defines new port roles.
C. RSTP defines no new port states.
D. RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802. ID STP.
E. RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802. ID STP.
Answer: B E
Question 8
Refer to the exhibit. Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as
being configured to run RSTP. No other configuration changes have been made. Which three of
these show the correct RSTP port roles for the indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose three)
B. learning
C. disabled
D. forwarding
E. listening
Answer: A D
Explanation
RSTP only has 3 port states that are discarding, learning and forwarding. When RSTP has converged
there are only 2 port states left: discarding and forwarding but the answers don't mention about
discarding state so blocking state (answer A) may be considered the best alternative answer.
Question 7
Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two)
A. RSTP cannot operate with PVST+.
B. RSTP defines new port roles.
C. RSTP defines no new port states.
D. RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802. ID STP.
E. RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802. ID STP.
Answer: B E
Question 8
Refer to the exhibit. Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as
being configured to run RSTP. No other configuration changes have been made. Which three of
these show the correct RSTP port roles for the indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose three)
Loading page 66...
SwitchA SwitchB
MAC Address MAC Address
MAC Address MAC Address
0013.B030.5e80 0013.80t7.S700
A. SwitchA, FaO/2, designated
B. SwitchA, FaO/1, root
C. SwitchB, GiO/2, root
D. SwitchB, GiO/1, designated
E. SwitchC, FaO/2, root
F. SwitchD, GiO/2, root
Answer: ABF
Explanation
The question says —no other configuration changes have been madell so we can understand these
switches have the same bridge priority. Switch C has lowest MAC address so it will become root
bridge and 2 of its ports (FaO/1 & FaO/2) will be designated ports -> E is incorrect.
Because SwitchC is the root bridge so the 2 ports nearest SwitchC on SwitchA (FaO/1) and SwitchD
(GiO/2) will be root ports -> B and F are correct.
Now we come to the most difficult part of this question: SwitchB must have a root port so which port
will it choose? To answer this question we need to know about STP cost and port cost.
In general, —cost! is calculated based on bandwidth of the link. The higher the bandwidth on a link,
the lower the value of its cost. Below are the cost values you should memorize:
Link speed Cost
10Mbps 100
100Mbps 19
MAC Address MAC Address
MAC Address MAC Address
0013.B030.5e80 0013.80t7.S700
A. SwitchA, FaO/2, designated
B. SwitchA, FaO/1, root
C. SwitchB, GiO/2, root
D. SwitchB, GiO/1, designated
E. SwitchC, FaO/2, root
F. SwitchD, GiO/2, root
Answer: ABF
Explanation
The question says —no other configuration changes have been madell so we can understand these
switches have the same bridge priority. Switch C has lowest MAC address so it will become root
bridge and 2 of its ports (FaO/1 & FaO/2) will be designated ports -> E is incorrect.
Because SwitchC is the root bridge so the 2 ports nearest SwitchC on SwitchA (FaO/1) and SwitchD
(GiO/2) will be root ports -> B and F are correct.
Now we come to the most difficult part of this question: SwitchB must have a root port so which port
will it choose? To answer this question we need to know about STP cost and port cost.
In general, —cost! is calculated based on bandwidth of the link. The higher the bandwidth on a link,
the lower the value of its cost. Below are the cost values you should memorize:
Link speed Cost
10Mbps 100
100Mbps 19
Loading page 67...
1 Gbps 4
SwitchB will choose the interface with lower cost to the root bridge as the root port so we must
calculate the cost on interface GiO/1 & GiO/2 of SwitchB to the root bridge. This can be calculated
from the —cost to the root bridgell of each switch becausa switch always advertises its cost to the
root bridge in its BPDU. The receiving switch will add its local port cost value to the cost in the
BPDU.
In the exhibit you also we FastEthemet port is connecting to GigabitEthemet port. In this case
GigabitEthemet port will operate as a FastEthemet port so the link can be considered as FastEthemet
to FastEthemet connection.
One more thing to notice is that a root bridge always advertises the cost to the root bridge (itself)
with an initial value of 0.
Now let's have a look at the topology again
r I can reach Root via
+ GiO/1: cost 23
+ Gi(N2: costae
.■ SwitchB QiP/1 is better! .
MAC Address
0013.80d7.d580
i My cost to th#
SwitchA I root bridge is 19
MAC Addres
00 13.8039.9500
SwitchC
MAC Address
. 013.3030.5eB0
SwrtchD
MAC Address
00 13 80c 7 9700
SwitchC advertises its cost to the root bridge with a value of 0. Switch D adds 19 (the cost value of
100Mbps link although the port on Switch D is GigabitEthemet port) and advertises this value (19)
to SwitchB. SwitchB adds 4 (the cost value of IGbps link) and leams that it can reach SwitchC via
GiO/1 port with a total cost of 23. The same process happens for SwitchA and SwitchB leams that it
can reach SwitchC via GiO/2 with a total cost of 38 -> Switch B chooses GiO/1 as its root port -> D is
not correct.
Now our last task is to identify the port roles of the ports between SwitchA & SwitchB. It is rather
easy as the MAC address of SwitchA is lower than that of SwitchB so FaO/2 of SwitchA will be
designated port while GiO/2 of SwitchB will be alternative port -> A is correct but C is not correct.
Below summaries all the port roles of these switches:
SwitchB will choose the interface with lower cost to the root bridge as the root port so we must
calculate the cost on interface GiO/1 & GiO/2 of SwitchB to the root bridge. This can be calculated
from the —cost to the root bridgell of each switch becausa switch always advertises its cost to the
root bridge in its BPDU. The receiving switch will add its local port cost value to the cost in the
BPDU.
In the exhibit you also we FastEthemet port is connecting to GigabitEthemet port. In this case
GigabitEthemet port will operate as a FastEthemet port so the link can be considered as FastEthemet
to FastEthemet connection.
One more thing to notice is that a root bridge always advertises the cost to the root bridge (itself)
with an initial value of 0.
Now let's have a look at the topology again
r I can reach Root via
+ GiO/1: cost 23
+ Gi(N2: costae
.■ SwitchB QiP/1 is better! .
MAC Address
0013.80d7.d580
i My cost to th#
SwitchA I root bridge is 19
MAC Addres
00 13.8039.9500
SwitchC
MAC Address
. 013.3030.5eB0
SwrtchD
MAC Address
00 13 80c 7 9700
SwitchC advertises its cost to the root bridge with a value of 0. Switch D adds 19 (the cost value of
100Mbps link although the port on Switch D is GigabitEthemet port) and advertises this value (19)
to SwitchB. SwitchB adds 4 (the cost value of IGbps link) and leams that it can reach SwitchC via
GiO/1 port with a total cost of 23. The same process happens for SwitchA and SwitchB leams that it
can reach SwitchC via GiO/2 with a total cost of 38 -> Switch B chooses GiO/1 as its root port -> D is
not correct.
Now our last task is to identify the port roles of the ports between SwitchA & SwitchB. It is rather
easy as the MAC address of SwitchA is lower than that of SwitchB so FaO/2 of SwitchA will be
designated port while GiO/2 of SwitchB will be alternative port -> A is correct but C is not correct.
Below summaries all the port roles of these switches:
Loading page 68...
SwItchA
MAC A d d r e s s
0013 0039 9500
SwitchB
MAC Address
0013 80 d? d580
SwitchD
MAC Address
0 0 1 3 . 8 0 c 7. 9700
FaC/1
SwItchC
MAC A d d r e s s
001 3. BO 30. 5e BO
+ DP: Designated Port (forwarding state)
+ RP: Root Port (forwarding state)
+ AP: Alternative Port (blocking state)
Question 9
Refer to the exhibit. At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will
assume the discarding role?
Distribution Layer
Switchl
Priority 4096
MAC 00l0.7bcc.7320
SwitchZ
Priority 8192
.MAC 0010.7bcc.732d
CiO/i
Switch
Priority 32768
MAC 0010.7bcc.733a
Switch*!
’ J . Priority 32768
MAC O010.7bcc.7347
faO/12 0'11. --- ■ I
taO/1 faO/2
Access Layer
A. Switch3, port fa0/l
B. Switch3, port faO/12
C. Switch4, port fa0/ll
D. Switch4, port faO/2
E. Switch3, port Gi0/l
MAC A d d r e s s
0013 0039 9500
SwitchB
MAC Address
0013 80 d? d580
SwitchD
MAC Address
0 0 1 3 . 8 0 c 7. 9700
FaC/1
SwItchC
MAC A d d r e s s
001 3. BO 30. 5e BO
+ DP: Designated Port (forwarding state)
+ RP: Root Port (forwarding state)
+ AP: Alternative Port (blocking state)
Question 9
Refer to the exhibit. At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will
assume the discarding role?
Distribution Layer
Switchl
Priority 4096
MAC 00l0.7bcc.7320
SwitchZ
Priority 8192
.MAC 0010.7bcc.732d
CiO/i
Switch
Priority 32768
MAC 0010.7bcc.733a
Switch*!
’ J . Priority 32768
MAC O010.7bcc.7347
faO/12 0'11. --- ■ I
taO/1 faO/2
Access Layer
A. Switch3, port fa0/l
B. Switch3, port faO/12
C. Switch4, port fa0/ll
D. Switch4, port faO/2
E. Switch3, port Gi0/l
Loading page 69...
Answer: C
Explanation
In this question, we only care about the Access Layer switches (Switch3 & 4). Switch 3 has a lower
bridge ID than Switch 4 (because the MAC of Switch3 is smaller than that of Switch4) so both ports
of Switch3 will be in forwarding state. The alternative port will surely belong to Switch4.
Switch4 will need to block one of its ports to avoid a bridging loop between the two switches. But
how does Switch4 select its blocked port? Well, the answer is based on the BPDUs it receives from
Switch3. A BPDU is superior than another if it has:
1. A lower Root Bridge ID
2. A lower path cost to the Root
3. A lower Sending Bridge ID
4. A lower Sending Port ID
These four parameters are examined in order. In this specific case, all the BPDUs sent by Sswitch3
have the same Root Bridge ID, the same path cost to the Root and the same Sending Bridge ID. The
only parameter left to select the best one is the Sending Port ID (Port ID = port priority + port index).
Tn this case the port priorities are equal because they use the default value, so Switch4 will compare
port index values, which are unique to each port on the switch, and because FaO/12 is inferior to
FaO/1, Switch4 will select the port connected with FaO/1 (of Switch3) as its root port and block the
other port -> Port faO/11 of Switch4 will be blocked (discarding role).
If you are still not sure about this question, please read my RSTP tutorial .
CCNA - Access list Questions
Note: If you are not sure about Access list, please read our Access List Tutorial.
Question 1
Which item represents the standard IP ACL?
A. access-list 50 deny 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.255
B. access-list 110 permit ip any any
C. access-list 2500 deny tcp any host 192.168.1.1 eq 22
D. access-list 101 deny tcp any host 192.168.1.1
Answer: A
Explanation
The standard access lists are ranged from 1 to 99 and from 1300 to 1999 so only access list 50 is a
standard access list.
Explanation
In this question, we only care about the Access Layer switches (Switch3 & 4). Switch 3 has a lower
bridge ID than Switch 4 (because the MAC of Switch3 is smaller than that of Switch4) so both ports
of Switch3 will be in forwarding state. The alternative port will surely belong to Switch4.
Switch4 will need to block one of its ports to avoid a bridging loop between the two switches. But
how does Switch4 select its blocked port? Well, the answer is based on the BPDUs it receives from
Switch3. A BPDU is superior than another if it has:
1. A lower Root Bridge ID
2. A lower path cost to the Root
3. A lower Sending Bridge ID
4. A lower Sending Port ID
These four parameters are examined in order. In this specific case, all the BPDUs sent by Sswitch3
have the same Root Bridge ID, the same path cost to the Root and the same Sending Bridge ID. The
only parameter left to select the best one is the Sending Port ID (Port ID = port priority + port index).
Tn this case the port priorities are equal because they use the default value, so Switch4 will compare
port index values, which are unique to each port on the switch, and because FaO/12 is inferior to
FaO/1, Switch4 will select the port connected with FaO/1 (of Switch3) as its root port and block the
other port -> Port faO/11 of Switch4 will be blocked (discarding role).
If you are still not sure about this question, please read my RSTP tutorial .
CCNA - Access list Questions
Note: If you are not sure about Access list, please read our Access List Tutorial.
Question 1
Which item represents the standard IP ACL?
A. access-list 50 deny 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.255
B. access-list 110 permit ip any any
C. access-list 2500 deny tcp any host 192.168.1.1 eq 22
D. access-list 101 deny tcp any host 192.168.1.1
Answer: A
Explanation
The standard access lists are ranged from 1 to 99 and from 1300 to 1999 so only access list 50 is a
standard access list.
Loading page 70...
Question 2
A network administrator is configuring ACLs on a Cisco router, to allow traffic from hosts on
networks 192.168.146.0, 192.168.147.0, 192.168.148.0, and 192.168.149.0 only. Which two ACL
statements, when combined, would you use to accomplish this task? (Choose two)
A. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 0.0.1.255
B. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.147.0 0.0.255.255
C. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.148.0 0.0.1.255
D. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.149.0 0.0.255.255
E. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 0.0.0.255
F. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 255.255.255.0
Answer: A C
Question 3
Refer to the exhibit.
ACL 102
access-list 102 deny tcp 172.21.1.1 0.0.0.255 any eq 80
access-list 102 deny ip any any
RouterA#show ip int
FastEthemet0/0 is up, line protocol is up
Internet address is 192.168.1.144/20
Broadcast address is 255.255.255.255
Address determined by DHCP
MTU is 1500 bytes
Helper address is not set
Directed broadcast forwarding is enabled
Outgoing access list is 102
Inbound access list is not set
Proxy ARP is enabled
An attempt to deny web access to a subnet blocks all traffic from the subnet. Which interface
command immediately removes the effect of ACL 102?
A. no ip access-class 102 in
B. no ip access-class 102 out
C. no ip access-group 102 in
D. no ip access-group 102 out
E. no ip access-list 102 in
Answer: D
A network administrator is configuring ACLs on a Cisco router, to allow traffic from hosts on
networks 192.168.146.0, 192.168.147.0, 192.168.148.0, and 192.168.149.0 only. Which two ACL
statements, when combined, would you use to accomplish this task? (Choose two)
A. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 0.0.1.255
B. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.147.0 0.0.255.255
C. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.148.0 0.0.1.255
D. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.149.0 0.0.255.255
E. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 0.0.0.255
F. access-list 10 permit ip 192.168.146.0 255.255.255.0
Answer: A C
Question 3
Refer to the exhibit.
ACL 102
access-list 102 deny tcp 172.21.1.1 0.0.0.255 any eq 80
access-list 102 deny ip any any
RouterA#show ip int
FastEthemet0/0 is up, line protocol is up
Internet address is 192.168.1.144/20
Broadcast address is 255.255.255.255
Address determined by DHCP
MTU is 1500 bytes
Helper address is not set
Directed broadcast forwarding is enabled
Outgoing access list is 102
Inbound access list is not set
Proxy ARP is enabled
An attempt to deny web access to a subnet blocks all traffic from the subnet. Which interface
command immediately removes the effect of ACL 102?
A. no ip access-class 102 in
B. no ip access-class 102 out
C. no ip access-group 102 in
D. no ip access-group 102 out
E. no ip access-list 102 in
Answer: D
Loading page 71...
Question 4
On which options are standard access lists based?
A. destination address and wildcard mask
B. destination address and subnet mask
C. source address and subnet mask
D. source address and wildcard mask
Answer: D
Question 5
Refer to the exhibit.
ACL 10
Statements are written in this order:
A. permit any
B. deny 172.21.1.128 0.0.0.15
C. permit 172.21.1.129 0.0.0.0
D. permit 172.21.1.142 0.0.0.0
Statements A, B, C, and D of ACL 10 have been entered in the shown order and applied to interface
E0 inbound, to prevent all hosts (except those whose addresses are the first and last IP of subnet
172.21.1.128/28) from accessing the network. But as is, the ACL does not restrict anyone from the
network. How can the ACL statements be re-arranged so that the system works as intended?
A. ACDB
B. BADC
C. DBAC
D. CDBA
Answer: D
Question 6
Which statement about access lists that are applied to an interface is true?
A. you can apply only one access list on any interface
B. you can configure one access list, per direction, per layer 3 protocol
C. you can place as many access lists as you want on any interface
D. you can configure one access list, per direction, per layer 2 protocol
On which options are standard access lists based?
A. destination address and wildcard mask
B. destination address and subnet mask
C. source address and subnet mask
D. source address and wildcard mask
Answer: D
Question 5
Refer to the exhibit.
ACL 10
Statements are written in this order:
A. permit any
B. deny 172.21.1.128 0.0.0.15
C. permit 172.21.1.129 0.0.0.0
D. permit 172.21.1.142 0.0.0.0
Statements A, B, C, and D of ACL 10 have been entered in the shown order and applied to interface
E0 inbound, to prevent all hosts (except those whose addresses are the first and last IP of subnet
172.21.1.128/28) from accessing the network. But as is, the ACL does not restrict anyone from the
network. How can the ACL statements be re-arranged so that the system works as intended?
A. ACDB
B. BADC
C. DBAC
D. CDBA
Answer: D
Question 6
Which statement about access lists that are applied to an interface is true?
A. you can apply only one access list on any interface
B. you can configure one access list, per direction, per layer 3 protocol
C. you can place as many access lists as you want on any interface
D. you can configure one access list, per direction, per layer 2 protocol
Loading page 72...
Answer: B
Explanation
We can have only 1 access list per protocol, per direction and per interface. It means:
+ We can not have 2 inbound access lists on an interface
+ We can have 1 inbound and 1 outbound access list on an interface
Question 7
A network engineer wants to allow a temporary entry for a remote user with a specific username
and password so that the user can access the entire network over the internet. Which ACL can be
used?
A. reflexive
B. extended
C. standard
D. dynamic
Answer: D
Explanation
We can use a dynamic access list to authenticate a remote user with a specific username and
password. The authentication process is done by the router or a central access server such as a
TACACS+ or RADIUS server. The configuration of dynamic ACL can be read here:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk583/tk822/technologies_tech_note09186a0080Q94524.shtml
Explanation
We can have only 1 access list per protocol, per direction and per interface. It means:
+ We can not have 2 inbound access lists on an interface
+ We can have 1 inbound and 1 outbound access list on an interface
Question 7
A network engineer wants to allow a temporary entry for a remote user with a specific username
and password so that the user can access the entire network over the internet. Which ACL can be
used?
A. reflexive
B. extended
C. standard
D. dynamic
Answer: D
Explanation
We can use a dynamic access list to authenticate a remote user with a specific username and
password. The authentication process is done by the router or a central access server such as a
TACACS+ or RADIUS server. The configuration of dynamic ACL can be read here:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk583/tk822/technologies_tech_note09186a0080Q94524.shtml
Loading page 73...
CCNA- Subnetting
Note: If you are not sure about Subnetting, please read our Subnetting Tutorial - Subnetting Made
Easy.
Question 1
Refer to the exhibit. Which subnet mask will place all hosts on Network B in the same subnet with
the least amount of wasted addresses?
Network A
66 Hosts
Network B
310 Hosts
A. 255.255.255.0
B. 255.255.254.0
C. 255.255.252.0
D. 255.255.248.0
Answer: B
Explanation
310 hosts < 512 = 29 -> We need a subnet mask of 9 bits 0 -> 1111 1111.1111 1111.1111 1110.0000
0000 -> 255.255.254.0
Question 2
Refer to the exhibit. All of the routers in the network are configured with the ip subnet-zero
command. Which network addresses should be used for Link A and Network A? (Choose two)
Note: If you are not sure about Subnetting, please read our Subnetting Tutorial - Subnetting Made
Easy.
Question 1
Refer to the exhibit. Which subnet mask will place all hosts on Network B in the same subnet with
the least amount of wasted addresses?
Network A
66 Hosts
Network B
310 Hosts
A. 255.255.255.0
B. 255.255.254.0
C. 255.255.252.0
D. 255.255.248.0
Answer: B
Explanation
310 hosts < 512 = 29 -> We need a subnet mask of 9 bits 0 -> 1111 1111.1111 1111.1111 1110.0000
0000 -> 255.255.254.0
Question 2
Refer to the exhibit. All of the routers in the network are configured with the ip subnet-zero
command. Which network addresses should be used for Link A and Network A? (Choose two)
Loading page 74...
Link A
Network A
120 Hosts
172,16. 3.3 2127 172.16.3.96/27172,16,3.64/27
A. Network A - 172.16.3.48/26
B. Network A - 172.16.3.128/25
C. NetworkA - 172.16.3.192/26
D. LinkA - 172.16.3.0/30
E. Link A - 172.16.3.40/30
F. LinkA - 172.16.3.112/30
Answer: B D
Explanation
Network A needs 120 hosts < 128 = 2 7 -> Need a subnet mask of 7 bit 0s -> —125” .
Because the ip subnet-zero command is used, network 172.16.3.0/30 can be used.
Answer E —Link A -172.16.3.40/30" is not correct because this subnet belongs to MARKETING
subnet (172.16.3.32/27).
Answer F —Link A -172.16.3.112/30" is not correct because this subnet belongs to ADMIN subnet
(172.16.3.96/27).
Question 3
You have been asked to come up with a subnet mask that will allow all three web servers to be on
the same network while providing the maximum number of subnets. Which network address and
subnet mask meet this requirement?
A. 192.168.252.0 255.255.255.252
B. 192.168.252.8 255.255.255.248
C. 192.168.252.8 255.255.255.252
D. 192.168.252.16 255.255.255.240
E. 192.168.252.16 255.255.255.252
Network A
120 Hosts
172,16. 3.3 2127 172.16.3.96/27172,16,3.64/27
A. Network A - 172.16.3.48/26
B. Network A - 172.16.3.128/25
C. NetworkA - 172.16.3.192/26
D. LinkA - 172.16.3.0/30
E. Link A - 172.16.3.40/30
F. LinkA - 172.16.3.112/30
Answer: B D
Explanation
Network A needs 120 hosts < 128 = 2 7 -> Need a subnet mask of 7 bit 0s -> —125” .
Because the ip subnet-zero command is used, network 172.16.3.0/30 can be used.
Answer E —Link A -172.16.3.40/30" is not correct because this subnet belongs to MARKETING
subnet (172.16.3.32/27).
Answer F —Link A -172.16.3.112/30" is not correct because this subnet belongs to ADMIN subnet
(172.16.3.96/27).
Question 3
You have been asked to come up with a subnet mask that will allow all three web servers to be on
the same network while providing the maximum number of subnets. Which network address and
subnet mask meet this requirement?
A. 192.168.252.0 255.255.255.252
B. 192.168.252.8 255.255.255.248
C. 192.168.252.8 255.255.255.252
D. 192.168.252.16 255.255.255.240
E. 192.168.252.16 255.255.255.252
Loading page 75...
Answer: B
Question 4
Which subnet mask would be appropriate for a network address range to be subnetted for up to
eight LANs, with each LAN containing 5 to 26 hosts?
A. 0.0.0.240
B. 255.255.255.252
C. 255.255.255.0
D. 255.255.255.224
E. 255.255.255.240
Answer: D
Explanation
A is not correct because it is a wildcard mask (not subnet mask).
This question is a bit unclear but we can suppose we have to begin with default subnet mask and
—subnetll it. And the default subnet mask here should be class C: 255.255.255.0
For answer B: 252 = 1111 1100 -> with this subnet mask we can subnet up to 2 6 = 64 subnets but
only 22 - 2 = 2 hosts per subnet -> B is not correct.
C is not correct because it is the default subnet mask of class C and that means we don't —subnetll it.
For answer E: 240 = 1111 0000 -> There are 2 4 = 16 subnets but only 24 - 2 = 14 hosts per subnet <
26 hosts -> E does not satisfy the second requirement (of 26 hosts per subnet).
For answer D: 224 = 1110 0000 -> There are 2 3 = 8 subnets and 25 - 2 = 30 hosts > 26 hosts -> This
is the correct answer.
Note: The number —511 in II with each LAN containing 5 to 26 hosts! is just used to trick you and it
does not have any effect on our answer.
Question 5
An administrator must assign static IP addresses to the servers in a network. For network
192.168.20.24/29, the router is assigned the first usable host address while the sales server is given
the last usable host address. Which of the following should be entered into the IP properties box for
the sales server?
A. IPaddress: 192.168.20.14
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248
Default Gateway: 192.168.20.9
Question 4
Which subnet mask would be appropriate for a network address range to be subnetted for up to
eight LANs, with each LAN containing 5 to 26 hosts?
A. 0.0.0.240
B. 255.255.255.252
C. 255.255.255.0
D. 255.255.255.224
E. 255.255.255.240
Answer: D
Explanation
A is not correct because it is a wildcard mask (not subnet mask).
This question is a bit unclear but we can suppose we have to begin with default subnet mask and
—subnetll it. And the default subnet mask here should be class C: 255.255.255.0
For answer B: 252 = 1111 1100 -> with this subnet mask we can subnet up to 2 6 = 64 subnets but
only 22 - 2 = 2 hosts per subnet -> B is not correct.
C is not correct because it is the default subnet mask of class C and that means we don't —subnetll it.
For answer E: 240 = 1111 0000 -> There are 2 4 = 16 subnets but only 24 - 2 = 14 hosts per subnet <
26 hosts -> E does not satisfy the second requirement (of 26 hosts per subnet).
For answer D: 224 = 1110 0000 -> There are 2 3 = 8 subnets and 25 - 2 = 30 hosts > 26 hosts -> This
is the correct answer.
Note: The number —511 in II with each LAN containing 5 to 26 hosts! is just used to trick you and it
does not have any effect on our answer.
Question 5
An administrator must assign static IP addresses to the servers in a network. For network
192.168.20.24/29, the router is assigned the first usable host address while the sales server is given
the last usable host address. Which of the following should be entered into the IP properties box for
the sales server?
A. IPaddress: 192.168.20.14
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248
Default Gateway: 192.168.20.9
Loading page 76...
B. IPaddress: 192.168.20.254
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.0
Default Gateway: 192.168.20.1
C. IPaddress: 192.168.20.30
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248
Default Gateway: 192.168.20.25
D. IPaddress: 192.168.20.30
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240
Default Gateway: 192.168.20.17
E. IPaddress: 192.168.20.30
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240
Default Gateway: 192.168.20.25
Answer: C
Question 6
Refer to the exhibit. In this VLSM addressing scheme, what summary address would be sent from
router A?
A. 172.16.0.0/16
B. 172.16.0.0/20
C. 172.16.0.0/24
D. 172.32.0.0/16
E. 172.32.0.0/17
F. 172.64.0.0/16
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.0
Default Gateway: 192.168.20.1
C. IPaddress: 192.168.20.30
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248
Default Gateway: 192.168.20.25
D. IPaddress: 192.168.20.30
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240
Default Gateway: 192.168.20.17
E. IPaddress: 192.168.20.30
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240
Default Gateway: 192.168.20.25
Answer: C
Question 6
Refer to the exhibit. In this VLSM addressing scheme, what summary address would be sent from
router A?
A. 172.16.0.0/16
B. 172.16.0.0/20
C. 172.16.0.0/24
D. 172.32.0.0/16
E. 172.32.0.0/17
F. 172.64.0.0/16
Loading page 77...
Answer: A
Explanation
Router A receives 3 subnets: 172.16.64.0/18, 172.16.32.0/24 and 172.16.128.0/18.
All these 3 subnets have the same form of 172.16.x.x so our summarized subnet must be also in that
form -> Only A, B or C is correct.
The smallest subnet mask of these 3 subnets is /18 so our summarized subnet must also have its
subnet mask equal or smaller than /18.
-> Only answer A has these 2 conditions -> A is correct.
Question 7
You are working in a data center environment and are assigned the address range 10.188.31.0/23.
You are asked to develop an IP addressing plan to allow the maximum number of subnets with as
many as 30 hosts each.Which IP address range meets these requirements?
A. 10.188.31.0/27
B. 10.188.31.0/26
C. 10.188.31.0/29
D. 10.188.31.0/28
E. 10.188.31.0/25
Answer: A
Explanation
Each subnet has 30 hosts < 32 = 25 so we need a subnet mask which has at least 5 bit 0s -> /27. Also
the question requires the maximum number of subnets (which minimum the number of hosts-per-
subnet) so /27 is the best choice -> A is correct.
Question 8
Which two benefits are provided by using a hierarchical addressing network addressing scheme?
(Choose two)
A. reduces routing table entries
B. auto-negotiation of media rates
C. efficient utilization of MAC addresses
D. dedicated communications between devices
E. ease of management and troubleshooting
Answer: A E
Explanation
Router A receives 3 subnets: 172.16.64.0/18, 172.16.32.0/24 and 172.16.128.0/18.
All these 3 subnets have the same form of 172.16.x.x so our summarized subnet must be also in that
form -> Only A, B or C is correct.
The smallest subnet mask of these 3 subnets is /18 so our summarized subnet must also have its
subnet mask equal or smaller than /18.
-> Only answer A has these 2 conditions -> A is correct.
Question 7
You are working in a data center environment and are assigned the address range 10.188.31.0/23.
You are asked to develop an IP addressing plan to allow the maximum number of subnets with as
many as 30 hosts each.Which IP address range meets these requirements?
A. 10.188.31.0/27
B. 10.188.31.0/26
C. 10.188.31.0/29
D. 10.188.31.0/28
E. 10.188.31.0/25
Answer: A
Explanation
Each subnet has 30 hosts < 32 = 25 so we need a subnet mask which has at least 5 bit 0s -> /27. Also
the question requires the maximum number of subnets (which minimum the number of hosts-per-
subnet) so /27 is the best choice -> A is correct.
Question 8
Which two benefits are provided by using a hierarchical addressing network addressing scheme?
(Choose two)
A. reduces routing table entries
B. auto-negotiation of media rates
C. efficient utilization of MAC addresses
D. dedicated communications between devices
E. ease of management and troubleshooting
Answer: A E
Loading page 78...
75 more pages available. Scroll down to load them.
Preview Mode
Sign in to access the full document!
100%
Study Now!
XY-Copilot AI
Unlimited Access
Secure Payment
Instant Access
24/7 Support
Document Chat