Test Bank For Campbell Biology, 11th Edition

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1
Campbell Biology, 11e (Urry)
Chapter 1 Evolution, the Themes of Biology, and Scientific Inquiry
1.1 Multiple-Choice Questions
1) Cells are ________.
A) only found in pairs, because single cells cannot exist independently
B) limited in size to 200 and 500 micrometers in diameter
C) characteristic of eukaryotic but not prokaryotic organisms
D) characteristic of prokaryotic and eukaryotic organisms
Answer: D
Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 1.1
2) In comparison to eukaryotes, prokaryotes ________.
A) are more structurally complex
B) are larger
C) are smaller
D) do not have membranes
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 1.1
3) Which of the following types of cells utilize deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) as their genetic
material but do not have their DNA encased within a nuclear envelope?
A) animal
B) plant
C) archaean
D) fungi
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 1.1
4) To understand the chemical basis of inheritance, we must understand the molecular structure
of DNA. This is an example of the application of which concept to the study of biology?
A) evolution
B) emergent properties
C) reductionism
D) feedback regulation
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 1.1

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5) A localized group of organisms that belong to the same species is called a ________.
A) community
B) population
C) ecosystem
D) family
Answer: B
Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 1.1
6) Which of the following statements is true regarding the complexity of biological systems?
A) An understanding of the interactions between different components within a living system is
an approach towards understanding reductionism.
B) Knowing the function of a component of a living system can provide insights into the
structure and organization of the living system.
C) Understanding the chemical structure of DNA reveals how it directs the functioning of a
living cell.
D) An ecosystem displays complex properties of the biotic component only.
Answer: B
Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 1.1
7) Which of the following order is correct in terms of the hierarchy of the organization?
A) Ecosystem → Biosphere → Population → Community → Organism
B) Biosphere → Ecosystem → Population → Community → Organism
C) Ecosystem → Community → Biosphere → Population → Organism
D) Biosphere → Ecosystem →Community → Population → Organism
Answer: D
Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 1.1
8) When your body temperature rises on a hot day, the neural and hormonal mechanisms activate
sweating. Evaporation of sweat leads to cooling of the body surface. This is an example of
________.
A) positive feedback regulation
B) negative feedback regulation
C) chemical cycling
D) emergent properties
Answer: B
Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 1.1

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9) Characters are transmitted from parents to offspring. ________ are the units of inheritance.
A) Genes
B) Proteins
C) RNA
D) DNA
Answer: A
Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 1.1
10) As letters are to English language, ________ is/are to genetic information.
A) proteins
B) nucleotides
C) DNA double helix
D) A and B
Answer: B
Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 1.1
11) The process by which the information in a gene directs the synthesis of a protein is called
________.
A) gene expression
B) replication
C) post translation modification
D) cloning
Answer: A
Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 1.2
12) Which of the following statements is true?
A) mRNA is the only type of RNA found in the living system
B) All forms of life employ the same genetic code
C) A typical human liver cell has one set of chromosomes
D) Organisms interact but do not affect their environment
Answer: B
Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 1.2
13) Plants convert ________.
A) chemical energy to mechanical energy.
B) sunlight to mechanical energy.
C) sunlight to chemical energy.
D) mechanical energy to chemical energy.
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 1.2

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14) Which of these provides evidence of the common ancestry of all life?
A) near universality of the genetic code
B) structure of the nucleus
C) structure of cilia
D) structure of chloroplasts
Answer: A
Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 1.2
15) Which branch of biology is concerned with the naming and classifying of organisms?
A) informatics
B) taxonomy
C) genomics
D) evolution
Answer: B
Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 1.2
16) Use the following figure to answer the question.
The phylogenetic tree ________.
A) depicts that Archaea is closer to Bacteria than Eukarya
B) depicts that Eukarya is closer to Bacteria than Archaea
C) includes unicellular and some forms of multicellular life, but not complex animals and plants
D) includes every single life form on this earth
Answer: D
Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 1.2

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17) Use the following figure to answer the question.
"A" is ________; "B" is ________.
A) the most recent species to evolve on Earth; an ancestor of group "A"
B) the most recent species to evolve on Earth; the last common ancestor of Archaea and Eukarya
C) the common ancestor of all life; the common ancestor of Bacteria and Archaea
D) the common ancestor of all life; the last common ancestor of Archaea and Eukarya
Answer: D
Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 1.2
18) You are suffering from Streptococcus throat infection. You share the following with the
bacteria that is responsible for your condition.
A) You both belong to the same domain.
B) You both are made up of cells.
C) You both have genetic material in your nucleus.
D) You and Streptococcus have nothing in common.
Answer: B
Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 1.2
19) Which of the following is true of natural selection?
A) It requires genetic variation.
B) It results in descent with modification.
C) It involves differential reproductive success.
D) It requires genetic variation, results in descent with modification, and involves differential
reproductive success.
Answer: D
Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 1.2
20) Which of the following is not one of Charles Darwin's observations?
A) Individuals in a population vary in their traits.
B) Many of the traits in an individual are heritable.
C) A population avoids competition by producing only as many offspring as can successfully
reproduce on their own.
D) Species generally are adapted to their environments.
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 1.2

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21) The evolution of one species into two or more species as a result of different populations
becoming reproductively isolated from each other is best termed as ________.
A) adaptive radiation
B) creationism
C) natural selection
D) prototype
Answer: A
Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 1.2
22) Cotton-topped tamarins are small primates with tufts of long white hair on their heads. While
studying these creatures, you notice that males with longer hair get more opportunities to mate
and father more offspring. To test the hypothesis that having longer hair is adaptive in these
males, you should ________.
A) test whether other traits in these males are also adaptive
B) look for evidence of hair in ancestors of tamarins
C) determine if hair length is heritable
D) test whether males with shaved heads are still able to mate
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 1.2
23) Following a scientific method, which of the following is the correct order of steps?
A) Observation → Analysis → Hypothesis → Conclusion → Communicate results →
Experiment
B) Observation → Hypothesis → Experiment → Communicate results → Analysis →
Conclusion
C) Experiment → Hypothesis → Observation → Analysis → Conclusion → Communicate
results
D) Observation → Hypothesis → Experiment → Analysis → Conclusion → Communicate
results
Answer: D
Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 1.3
24) Which of the following questions is considered a thought-provoking scientific query?
A) How long ago did the Pterosaurs live on this planet?
B) Does the amount of solute in water affect the boiling point of the solution?
C) Who invented the telescope?
D) How many tigers are left in India?
Answer: D
Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 1.1

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25) The following experiment is used for the following question.
A researcher discovered a species of moth that lays its eggs on oak trees. Eggs are laid at two
distinct times of the year: early in spring when the oak trees are flowering and in midsummer
when flowering is past. Caterpillars from eggs that hatch in spring feed on oak flowers and look
like oak flowers, but caterpillars that hatch in summer feed on oak leaves and look like oak
twigs.
How does the same population of moths produce such different-looking caterpillars on the same
trees? To answer this question, the biologist caught many female moths from the same
population and collected their eggs. He put at least one egg from each female into eight identical
cups. The eggs hatched, and at least two larvae from each female were maintained in one of the
four temperature and light conditions listed below.
Temperature Day Length
Springlike Springlike
Springlike Summerlike
Summerlike springlike
Summerlike summerlike
In each of the four environments, one of the caterpillars was fed oak flowers, the other oak
leaves. Thus, there were a total of eight treatment groups (4 environments × 2 diets).
Which one of the following is not a plausible hypothesis that can be tested in this experiment?
A) The longer day lengths of summer trigger the development of twig-like caterpillars.
B) The cooler temperatures of spring trigger the development of flowerlike caterpillars.
C) Differences in air pressure, due to differences in elevation, trigger the development of
different types of caterpillars.
D) Differences in diet trigger the development of different types of caterpillars.
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 1.3

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26) The following experiment is used for the following question.
A researcher discovered a species of moth that lays its eggs on oak trees. Eggs are laid at two
distinct times of the year: early in spring when the oak trees are flowering and in midsummer
when flowering is past. Caterpillars from eggs that hatch in spring feed on oak flowers and look
like oak flowers, but caterpillars that hatch in summer feed on oak leaves and look like oak
twigs.
How does the same population of moths produce such different-looking caterpillars on the same
trees? To answer this question, the biologist caught many female moths from the same
population and collected their eggs. He put at least one egg from each female into eight identical
cups. The eggs hatched, and at least two larvae from each female were maintained in one of the
four temperature and light conditions listed below.
Temperature Day Length
Springlike Springlike
Springlike Summerlike
Summerlike springlike
Summerlike summerlike
In each of the four environments, one of the caterpillars was fed oak flowers, the other oak
leaves. Thus, there were a total of eight treatment groups (4 environments × 2 diets).
In every case, caterpillars that feed on oak flowers look like oak flowers. In every case,
caterpillars that were raised on oak leaves looked like twigs. These results support which of the
following hypotheses?
A) The longer day lengths of summer trigger the development of twig-like caterpillars.
B) Differences in air pressure, due to elevation, trigger the development of different types of
caterpillars.
C) Differences in diet trigger the development of different types of caterpillars.
D) The differences are genetic. A female will either produce all flowerlike caterpillars or all
twig-like caterpillars.
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 1.3

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27) The following experiment is used for the following question.
A researcher discovered a species of moth that lays its eggs on oak trees. Eggs are laid at two
distinct times of the year: early in spring when the oak trees are flowering and in midsummer
when flowering is past. Caterpillars from eggs that hatch in spring feed on oak flowers and look
like oak flowers, but caterpillars that hatch in summer feed on oak leaves and look like oak
twigs.
How does the same population of moths produce such different-looking caterpillars on the same
trees? To answer this question, the biologist caught many female moths from the same
population and collected their eggs. He put at least one egg from each female into eight identical
cups. The eggs hatched, and at least two larvae from each female were maintained in one of the
four temperature and light conditions listed below.
Temperature Day Length
Springlike Springlike
Springlike Summerlike
Summerlike springlike
Summerlike summerlike
In each of the four environments, one of the caterpillars was fed oak flowers, the other oak
leaves. Thus, there were a total of eight treatment groups (4 environments × 2 diets).
Recall that eggs from the same female were exposed to each of the eight treatments used. This
aspect of the experimental design tested which of the following hypotheses?
A) The longer day lengths of summer trigger the development of twig-like caterpillars.
B) Differences in air pressure, due to elevation, trigger the development of different types of
caterpillars.
C) Differences in diet trigger the development of different types of caterpillars.
D) The differences are genetic. A female will either produce all flowerlike caterpillars or all
twig-like caterpillars.
Answer: D
Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 1.3

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28) The following experiment is used for the following question.
A researcher discovered a species of moth that lays its eggs on oak trees. Eggs are laid at two
distinct times of the year: early in spring when the oak trees are flowering and in midsummer
when flowering is past. Caterpillars from eggs that hatch in spring feed on oak flowers and look
like oak flowers, but caterpillars that hatch in summer feed on oak leaves and look like oak
twigs.
How does the same population of moths produce such different-looking caterpillars on the same
trees? To answer this question, the biologist caught many female moths from the same
population and collected their eggs. He put at least one egg from each female into eight identical
cups. The eggs hatched, and at least two larvae from each female were maintained in one of the
four temperature and light conditions listed below.
Temperature Day Length
Springlike Springlike
Springlike Summerlike
Summerlike springlike
Summerlike summerlike
In each of the four environments, one of the caterpillars was fed oak flowers, the other oak
leaves. Thus, there were a total of eight treatment groups (4 environments × 2 diets).
Recall that in the experiment, caterpillars born in the spring looked like flowers, and caterpillars
born in the summer looked like twigs. What is the most likely selective advantage for this
difference in body shape?
A) Looking like their food sources allows the caterpillars to move through their environment
more efficiently.
B) Development into the adult moth form is faster for caterpillars shaped like twigs than like
flowers.
C) Looking like their food source lets the caterpillars blend into their surroundings, reducing
predation.
D) Looking like their food source will increase the caterpillars' feeding efficiency; this would
increase their growth rate and survival rate.
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 1.3

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29) How does a scientific theory differ from a scientific hypothesis?
A) Theories are proposed to test scientific hypotheses.
B) Theories are usually an explanation for a more general phenomenon; hypotheses typically
address more specific issues.
C) Hypotheses are usually an explanation for a more general phenomenon; theories typically
address more specific issues.
D) Confirmed theories become scientific laws; hypotheses become theories.
Answer: B
Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 1.3
30) A friend of yours calls to say that his car would not start this morning. He asks for your help.
You say that you think the battery must be dead. If so, then jump-starting the car from a good
battery will solve the problem. In doing so, you are ________.
A) testing a theory for why the car will not start
B) making observations to inspire a theory for why the car will not start
C) stating a hypothesis and using that hypothesis to make a testable prediction
D) comparing multiple hypotheses for why the car will not start
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 1.3
31) Agrobacterium infects plants and causes them to form tumors. You are asked to determine
how long a plant must be exposed to these bacteria to become infected. Which of the following
experiments will provide the best data to address that question?
A) Determine the survival rate of Agrobacterium when exposed to different concentrations of an
antibiotic.
B) Measure the number of tumors formed on a plant when exposed to various concentrations of
Agrobacterium.
C) Measure the concentration of Agrobacterium in different soil environments where the plants
grow.
D) Measure the number of tumors formed on plants, which are exposed to Agrobacterium for
different lengths of time.
Answer: D
Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 1.3

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32) Agrobacterium infects plants and causes them to form tumors. You determine that tumor
formation requires a large amount of the plant's energy for tissue formation. How might this
change the number of offspring a plant produces, and what is the most likely explanation for this
change?
A) The number of offspring should increase because in general, illness increases the reproductive
output of organisms.
B) The number of offspring should increase because the bacteria will provide energy for the
plant.
C) The number of offspring should decrease because the plant will divert energy from
reproduction to tumor formation.
D) There should be no effect of infection on offspring production because energy for
reproduction is independent of infection.
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 1.3
33) Use the following information when answering the following question.
In 1668, Francesco Redi performed a series of experiments on spontaneous generation. He began
by putting similar pieces of meat into eight identical jars. Four jars were left open to the air, and
four were sealed. He then did the same experiment with one variation: Instead of sealing four of
the jars completely, he covered them with gauze (the gauze excluded the flies while allowing the
meat to be exposed to air). In both experiments, he monitored the jars and recorded whether or
not maggots (young flies) appeared in the meat.
What hypothesis was being tested in the initial experiment with open versus sealed jars?
A) Spontaneous generation is more likely during the long days of summer.
B) The type of meat used affects the likelihood of spontaneous generation.
C) Maggots do not arise spontaneously, but from eggs laid by adult flies.
D) Spontaneous generation can occur only if meat is exposed to air.
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 1.3

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34) Use the following information when answering the following question.
In 1668, Francesco Redi performed a series of experiments on spontaneous generation. He began
by putting similar pieces of meat into eight identical jars. Four jars were left open to the air, and
four were sealed. He then did the same experiment with one variation: Instead of sealing four of
the jars completely, he covered them with gauze (the gauze excluded the flies while allowing the
meat to be exposed to air). In both experiments, he monitored the jars and recorded whether or
not maggots (young flies) appeared in the meat.
In both experiments, flies appeared in all of the open jars and only in the open jars. Which one of
the following statements is correct?
A) The experiment was inconclusive because Redi used only one kind of meat.
B) The experiment was inconclusive because it did not run long enough.
C) The experiment supports the hypothesis that spontaneous generation occurs in rotting meat.
D) The experiment supports the hypothesis that maggots arise only from eggs laid by adult flies.
Answer: D
Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 1.3
35) The best experimental design ________.
A) includes a large sample size for each condition
B) includes a control
C) alters only one condition between the controls and the experimental condition
D) includes a large sample size and a control, and alters only one condition between the controls
and the experimental condition
Answer: D
Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 1.3
36) A controlled experiment ________.
A) is repeated many times to ensure that the results are accurate
B) includes at least two groups, one of which does not receive the experimental treatment
C) includes at least two groups, one differing from the other by two or more variables
D) includes one group for which the scientist controls all variables
Answer: B
Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 1.3

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37) Which of the following are qualities of any good scientific hypothesis?
I. It is testable.
II. It is falsifiable.
III. It produces quantitative data.
IV. It produces results that can be replicated.
A) I only
B) III only
C) I and II
D) III and IV
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 1.3
38) The temperature at which an alligator's egg is incubated will determine the sex of the
offspring. The dependent and the independent variables in this experiment are ________.
A) sex of the baby alligator and temperature respectively
B) temperature and sex of the baby alligator respectively
C) size of the incubator and size of the baby alligator respectively
D) number of offspring and temperature in the incubator respectively
Answer: A
Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 1.3
39) In presenting data that result from an experiment, a group of students show that most of their
measurements fall on a straight diagonal line on their graph. However, two of their data points
are "outliers" and fall far to one side of the expected relationship. What should they do?
A) Do not show these points because clearly something went wrong in the experiment.
B) Average several trials, rule out the improbable results, and do not show them in the final
work.
C) Show all results obtained and then try to explore the reason(s) for these outliers.
D) Change the details of the experiment until they can obtain the expected results.
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis/Evaluation
Section: 1.3

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40) A scientist, who wants to study the effects of nitrogen on wheat plants, sets up an experiment
with 4 groups of wheat plants: group A gets 20 pounds per acre, group B gets 40 pounds per
acre, group C gets 60 pounds per acre, and group D gets 0 pounds per acre. Which of the
following is the control group?
A) group A
B) group B
C) group C
D) group D
Answer: D
Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 1.3
41) Which of these is an example of inductive reasoning?
A) Hundreds of individuals of a species have been observed and all are photosynthetic; therefore,
the species is photosynthetic.
B) These organisms live in sunny regions. Therefore, they are using photosynthesis.
C) If protists are all single-celled, then they are incapable of aggregating.
D) If two species are members of the same genus, they are more alike than each of them could be
to a different genus.
Answer: A
Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 1.3
42) The application of scientific knowledge for some specific purpose is known as ________.
A) technology
B) deductive science
C) inductive science
D) pure science
Answer: A
Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 1.4
43) Which of the following best describes a model organism?
A) It is often pictured in textbooks and is easy for students to imagine.
B) It is well studied, it is easy to grow, and results are widely applicable.
C) It is small, inexpensive to raise, and lives a long time.
D) It has been chosen for study by early biologists.
Answer: B
Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 1.4

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44) Why is a scientific topic best discussed by people of varying points of view, from different
subdisciplines, and representing diverse cultures?
A) Robust and critical discussion between diverse groups improves scientific thinking.
B) Scientists can coordinate with others to conduct experiments in similar ways.
C) This is a way of ensuring that everyone gets the same results.
D) People need to exchange their ideas with other disciplines and cultures because everyone has
a right to an opinion in science.
Answer: A
Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis/Evaluation
Section: 1.4
1.2 Student Edition End-of-Chapter Questions
1) All the organisms on your campus make up
A) an ecosystem.
B) a community.
C) a population.
D) a taxonomic domain.
Answer: B
Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
2) Systems biology is mainly an attempt to
A) analyze genomes from different species.
B) simplify complex problems by reducing the system into smaller, less complex units.
C) understand the behavior of entire biological systems by studying interactions among its
component parts.
D) build high-throughput machines for the rapid acquisition of biological data.
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
3) Which of the following best demonstrates the unity among all organisms?
A) emergent properties
B) descent with modification
C) the structure and function of DNA
D) natural selection
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
4) A controlled experiment is one that
A) proceeds slowly enough that a scientist can make careful records of the results.
B) tests experimental and control groups in parallel.
C) is repeated many times to make sure the results are accurate.
D) keeps all variables constant.
Answer: B
Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension

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5) Which of the following statements best distinguishes hypotheses from theories in science?
A) Theories are hypotheses that have been proved.
B) Hypotheses are guesses; theories are correct answers.
C) Hypotheses usually are relatively narrow in scope; theories have broad explanatory power.
D) Theories are proved true; hypotheses are often contradicted by experimental results.
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
6) Which of the following is an example of qualitative data?
A) The fish swam in a zigzag motion.
B) The contents of the stomach are mixed every 20 seconds.
C) The temperature decreased from 20°C to 15°C.
D) The six pairs of robins hatched an average of three chicks each.
Answer: A
Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
7) Which sentence best describes the logic of scientific inquiry?
A) If I generate a testable hypothesis, tests and observations will support it.
B) If my prediction is correct, it will lead to a testable hypothesis.
C) If my observations are accurate, they will support my hypothesis.
D) If my hypothesis is correct, I can expect certain test results.
Answer: D
Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis

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Campbell Biology, 11e (Urry)
Chapter 2 The Chemical Context of Life
2.1 Multiple-Choice Questions
1) About 25 of the 92 natural elements are known to be essential to life. Which 4 of these 25
elements make up approximately 96% of living matter?
A) carbon, sodium, hydrogen, nitrogen
B) carbon, oxygen, phosphorus, hydrogen
C) oxygen, hydrogen, calcium, nitrogen
D) carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen
Answer: D
Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 2.1
2) Trace elements are those required by an organism in only minute quantities. Which of the
following is a trace element that is required by humans and other vertebrates, but not by other
organisms such as bacteria or plants?
A) calcium
B) iodine
C) sodium
D) phosphorus
Answer: B
Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 2.1
3) Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A) Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and calcium are the most abundant elements of living matter.
B) Some naturally occurring elements are toxic to organisms.
C) All life requires the same essential elements.
D) A patient suffering from a goiter should not consume seafood.
Answer: B
Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 2.1
4) Which of the following are compounds?
A) H2O, O2, and CH4
B) H2O and O2
C) O2 and CH4
D) H2O and CH4, but not O2
Answer: D
Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 2.1

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5) Atoms have no electric charge because they have ________.
A) uncharged neutrons in their nuclei
B) an equal number of protons and neutrons
C) an equal number of protons and electrons
D) an equal number of charged and uncharged subatomic particles
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 2.2
6) An ion with six protons, seven neutrons, and a charge of 2+ has an atomic number of
________.
A) four
B) five
C) six
D) seven
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 2.2
7) Molybdenum has an atomic number of 42. Several common isotopes exist, with mass numbers
from 92-100. Which of the following can be true?
A) Molybdenum atoms can have between 50 and 58 neutrons.
B) Molybdenum atoms can have between 50 and 58 protons.
C) Molybdenum atoms can have between 50 and 58 electrons.
D) Isotopes of molybdenum have different numbers of electrons.
Answer: A
Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 2.2
8) Carbon-14 has the same ________.
A) atomic number and atomic mass as carbon-12
B) atomic number and thus number of neutrons as carbon-13
C) atomic mass as both carbon-12 and carbon-13
D) number of protons but more neutrons than carbon-12
Answer: D
Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 2.2
9) A(n) ________ has charge but negligible mass, whereas a(n) ________ has mass but no
charge.
A) proton; neutron
B) neutron; proton
C) neutron; electron
D) electron; neutron
Answer: D
Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 2.2

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10) The atomic number of nitrogen is 7. Nitrogen-15 has a greater mass number than nitrogen-14
because the atomic nucleus of nitrogen-15 contains ________.
A) 7 neutrons
B) 8 neutrons
C) 8 protons
D) 15 protons
Answer: B
Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 2.2
11) The left to right order of elements in the periodic table is based on their ________.
A) atomic mass
B) atomic number
C) electric charge of the atom
D) the number of neutrons
Answer: B
Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 2.2
12) A neutral atom has two, eight, eight electrons in its first, second, and third energy levels.
This information ________.
A) does not tell us about the atomic number of the element
B) does not tell us about the chemical properties of the element
C) does not tell us about the atomic mass of the element
D) does not tell us about the size of the element
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 2.2
13) In a chemical reaction, the element 13Al will most preferably ________.
A) lose three electrons and become positively charged
B) gain five electrons and become negatively charged
C) lose five electrons and become positively charged
D) gain three electrons and become positively charged
Answer: A
Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 2.2

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4
Refer to the following figure (first three rows of the periodic table) to answer the questions
below.
14) What element does not prefer to react with other elements?
A) hydrogen
B) helium
C) beryllium
D) both hydrogen and beryllium
Answer: B
Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis/Evaluation
Section: 2.2
15) Which pair of elements would likely have similar valency and thus similar chemical
behavior?
A) nitrogen and phosphorus
B) carbon and nitrogen
C) sodium and chlorine
D) hydrogen and helium
Answer: A
Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 2.2

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5
Refer to the following figure to answer the questions below.
16) How many electrons are present in a Phosphorus 3+ atom?
A) 16
B) 12
C) 19
D) 34
Answer: B
Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 2.2
17) How many electrons will a single atom of sulfur with no charge and no bonds have in its
valence shell?
A) 6
B) 8
C) 16
D) 32
Answer: A
Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 2.2
18) Oxygen has an atomic number of 8 and, most commonly, a mass number of 16. Thus, what is
the atomic mass of an oxygen atom?
A) approximately 8 grams
B) approximately 8 daltons
C) approximately 16 grams
D) approximately 16 daltons
Answer: D
Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 2.2
19) Elements 72Zn, 75As, and 74Ge have the ________.
A) same number of protons
B) same number of protons and electrons
C) same number of neutrons
D) same number of neutrons and electrons
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis/Evaluation
Section: 2.2

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20) Can the atomic mass of an element vary?
A) No, it is fixed; otherwise a new element will be formed.
B) Yes. Adding or losing electrons will substantially change the atomic mass.
C) Yes. Adding or losing protons will change the atomic mass without forming a different
element.
D) Yes. Adding or losing neutrons will change the atomic mass without forming a different
element.
Answer: D
Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 2.2
21) Which of the following is the best description of an atom's physical structure?
A) An atom is a solid mass of material.
B) The particles that form an atom are equidistant from each other.
C) Atoms are little bubbles of space with mass concentrated at the center of the bubble.
D) Atoms are little bubbles of space with mass concentrated on the outside surface of the bubble.
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 2.2
22) When are atoms most stable?
A) when they have the fewest possible valence electrons
B) when they have the maximum number of unpaired electrons
C) when all of the electron orbitals in the valence shell are filled
D) when all electrons are paired
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 2.2
23) A salamander relies on hydrogen bonding to stick to various surfaces. Therefore, a
salamander would have the greatest difficulty clinging to a ________.
A) slightly damp surface
B) surface of hydrocarbons
C) surface of mostly carbon-oxygen bonds
D) surface of mostly carbon-nitrogen bonds
Answer: B
Bloom's Taxonomy: Synthesis/Evaluation
Section: 2.3

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8
25) Which one of the atoms shown would be most likely to form an anion with a charge of -1?
A)
B)
C)
D)
Answer: D
Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 2.3
26) A covalent chemical bond is one in which ________.
A) electrons are removed from one atom and transferred to another atom so that the two atoms
become oppositely charged
B) protons and neutrons are shared by two atoms so as to satisfy the requirements of both atoms
C) outer-shell electrons of two atoms are shared so as to satisfactorily fill their respective orbitals
D) outer-shell electrons of one atom are transferred to fill the inner electron shell of another atom
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 2.3
27) What is the maximum number of covalent bonds that an oxygen atom with atomic number 8
can make with hydrogen?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) 6
Answer: B
Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 2.3

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28) Nitrogen (N) is more electronegative than hydrogen (H). Which of the following is a correct
statement about the atoms in ammonia (NH3)?
A) Each hydrogen atom has a partial positive charge; the nitrogen atom has a partial negative
charge.
B) Ammonia has an overall positive charge.
C) Ammonia has an overall negative charge.
D) The nitrogen atom has a partial positive charge; each hydrogen atom has a partial negative
charge.
Answer: A
Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 2.3
29) Bonds between two atoms that are equally electronegative are ________.
A) hydrogen bonds
B) polar covalent bonds
C) nonpolar covalent bonds
D) ionic bonds
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 2.3
30) In the following structure where A and B represent two different elements, the valency of A
is ________ and B is ________.
A) one; three
B) one; five
C) three; five
D) eight; eight
Answer: A
Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 2.3
31) A covalent bond is likely to be polar when ________.
A) one of the atoms sharing electrons is more electronegative than the other atom
B) the two atoms sharing electrons are equally electronegative
C) carbon is one of the two atoms sharing electrons
D) the two atoms sharing electrons are of the same elements
Answer: A
Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 2.3

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32) What is the difference between covalent bonds and ionic bonds?
A) Covalent bonds involve the sharing of pairs of electrons between atoms; ionic bonds involve
the sharing of single electrons between atoms.
B) Covalent bonds involve the sharing of electrons between atoms; ionic bonds involve the
electrical attraction between charged atoms.
C) Covalent bonds involve the sharing of electrons between atoms; ionic bonds involve the
sharing of protons between charged atoms.
D) Covalent bonds involve the transfer of electrons between charged atoms; ionic bonds involve
the sharing of electrons between atoms.
Answer: B
Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 2.3
33) The atomic number of chlorine is 17. The atomic number of magnesium is 12. What is the
formula for magnesium chloride?
A) MgCl
B) MgCl2
C) Mg2Cl
D) MgCl3
Answer: B
Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 2.3
34) How many electron pairs are shared between carbon atoms in a molecule that has the
formula C2H4?
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
Answer: B
Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 2.3
35) Which bond or interaction would be difficult to disrupt when compounds are put into water?
A) covalent bonds between carbon atoms
B) hydrogen bonds
C) ionic bonds
D) ionic and hydrogen bonds
Answer: A
Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 2.3

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11
36) Which of the following is broken when water evaporates?
A) nonpolar covalent bonds
B) ionic bonds
C) hydrogen bonds
D) polar covalent bonds
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 2.3
37) Van der Waals interactions may result when ________.
A) electrons are not symmetrically distributed in a molecule
B) molecules held by ionic bonds react with water
C) two polar covalent bonds react
D) a hydrogen atom loses an electron
Answer: A
Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 2.3
38) What is the maximum number of hydrogen atoms that can be covalently bonded in a
molecule containing two carbon atoms?
A) two
B) four
C) six
D) eight
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 2.3
Refer to the following figure to answer the questions below.
39) What results from the chemical reaction in the illustration? The reactants have no charge.
A) a cation with a net charge of +1 and an anion with a net charge of +1
B) a cation with a net charge of -1 and an anion with a net charge of -1
C) a cation with a net charge of -1 and an anion with a net charge of +1
D) a cation with a net charge of +1 and an anion with a net charge of -1
Answer: D
Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 2.3

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12
40) What is the atomic number of the cation formed in the reaction in the illustration?
A) 8
B) 10
C) 11
D) 16
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 2.3
Refer to the following figure to answer the questions below.
41) What causes the shape of the molecule shown?
A) the shape of the two p orbitals in the carbon atom
B) the shape of the one s orbital in the carbon atom
C) the shape of the sp3 hybrid orbitals of the electrons shared between the carbon and hydrogen
atoms
D) hydrogen bonding configurations between the carbon and hydrogen atoms
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 2.3
42) How many electrons are involved in a triple covalent bond?
A) 3
B) 6
C) 9
D) 12
Answer: B
Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 2.3
43) Based on electron configuration, which of the elements in the figure would exhibit a
chemical behavior most like that of oxygen?
A) carbon
B) nitrogen
C) sulfur
D) phosphorus
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 2.2

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13
44) If an atom has a charge of +1, which of the following must be true?
A) It has two more protons than neutrons.
B) It has the same number of protons as electrons.
C) It has one more electron than it does protons.
D) It has one more proton than it does electrons.
Answer: D
Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 2.3
45) Elements found on the left side of the periodic table contain outer shells that are ________;
these elements tend to form ________ in solution.
A) almost empty; cations
B) almost empty; anions
C) almost full; cations
D) almost full; anions
Answer: A
Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 2.3
46) An atom has four electrons in its valence shell. What types of covalent bonds is it capable of
forming?
A) single, double, or triple
B) single and double only
C) single bonds only
D) double bonds only
Answer: A
Bloom's Taxonomy: Application/Analysis
Section: 2.3
47) When the atoms involved in a covalent bond have the same electronegativity, what type of
bond results?
A) an ionic bond
B) a hydrogen bond
C) a nonpolar covalent bond
D) a polar covalent bond
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Knowledge/Comprehension
Section: 2.3

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