Test Bank For Forensic Science, 4th Edition

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INSTRUCTORS MANUAL FOR
FORENSIC SCIENCE
An Introduction to Scientific
and Investigative Techniques
FOURTH EDITION
Stuart James
Jon J. Nordby
Suzanne Bell
by

An Important Message for Instructors
We at Taylor & Francis/CRC Press hope you are as excited about the ancillary
package provided for Forensic Science: An Introduction to Scientific and
Investigative Techniques, 4th Edition.
Most of what is contained in these folders is self‐explanatory and easily explored.
I do want to point out that we drew from some other books. For example, you
will find six exercises on topics from crime scene mapping to use of a compound
microscope. The books we used are listed below. If you would like to consider
using the whole of any book as part of your course, please contact your sales
representative.
Exercises 1 and 2: Crime Scene Processing and Investigation Workbook by Ramirez
and Fisher, catalog number K12253
Exercises 3‐6: Forensic Science Laboratory Manual and Workbook by Kubic and
Petraco, catalog number 87193
Supplemental readings which may be assigned or used as a special lecture topic:
“A Flash in the Pan,” and “See No Evil,” from Scientific Foundations of Crime Scene
Reconstruction: Introducing Method to Mayhem by Jon J. Nordby, catalog number
51687.
“Taphonomic Processes: Animal Scavenging,” by Pokines and Tersigni‐Tarrant
from Forensic Anthropology: An Introduction, edited by Tersigni‐Tarrant and
Shirley, catalog number K10846.
“Cases of Neglect Involving Entomological Evidence,” by Benecke, from Forensic
Entomology, 2nd edition, catalog number 9215.
You will also find supplemental chapters from the prior 3rd edition of the
textbook. These are provided to supplement content which may have been
omitted (such as Forensic Nursing) or scaled back at the suggestion of our
reviewers (Digital Photography). Similarly, we have included any photo images

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Section 1 Setting the Stage
Chapter 1 Justice and Science
(Total Questions: 25)
Multiple Choice (20-30)
1. What were the scientists responsible for the early discoveries in
forensic science considered due to the fact that they worked in many
forensic disciplines?
a. Specialists
b. Generalists*
c. Chemists
d. Examiners
2. Who is the author of the first comprehensive book on hair analysis,
The Hair of Man and Animals, published in 1910?
a. Alphonse Bertillon and Victor Balthazard
b. Calvin Goddard and Edmund Locard
c. Hans Gross and Alphonse Bertillon
d. Victor Balthazard and Marcelle Lambert*
3. Who is responsible for developing probability models, showing that
fingerprints were unique?
a. Alphonse Bertillon
b. Calvin Goddard
c. Victor Balthazard*
d. Edmund Locard
4. Who is credited with developing the first classification system for
fingerprints?
a. Charles Darwin
b. Sir Francis Galton*
c. Edmund Locard
d. Mathieu Orfila
5. Who is credited with establishing scientific examination of firearms in
the United States?
a. Calvin Goddard*
b. Edmund Locard
c. Mathieu Orfila
d. Victor Balthazard
6. Who coined the term Criminalistics?
a. Hans Gross*
b. Sir Francis Galton
c. Edmund Locard
d. Mathieu Orfila
7. What is the English translation of the first forensic science textbook,
published in 1893?
a. Forensic Science the Beginning

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b. Criminal Investigation*
c. Kriminologie
d. Forensic Science
8. What was Edmund Locard’s main interest in forensic science?
a. Chemistry
b. Biology
c. Trace Evidence*
d. Toxicology
9. Who is considered the father of forensic toxicology?
a. Hans Gross
b. Sir Francis Galton
c. Edmund Locard
d. Mathieu Orfila*
10. What term describes when a laboratory has agreed to operate
according to a professional or industry standard and has proven that it
can and does operate this way?
a. Accreditation*
b. Certification
c. Attestation
d. Quality Assurance
11. How is an experts qualification to testify established?
a. Direct Examination
b. Cross Examination
c. Voir Dire*
d. Re-cross Examination
True False (10-)
1. Forensic science has moved more towards a generalists model in which
forensic scientists work in various disciplines.
a. True
b. False* (Forensic science has moved towards a specialist model in
which a forensic scientist specializes)
2. Anthropometry remained widely used into the early 1900’s when
fingerprints began to replace it.
a. True*
b. False
3. A space for fingerprints was not included on the data cards used in the
early systematic method for identification of suspects and criminals?
a. True
b. False*
4. Sherlock Holmes stories were not influential or inspirational to
pioneers of forensic science due to their lack of realism to the actual
field of forensic science.
a. True

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b. False*
5. Locard’s Exchange Principle, “every contact leaves a trace”, is not an
exact phrase used by Locard; it has been evolved from his writings and
studies.
a. True*
b. False
6. Forensic scientists can only testify in criminal action suits and for the
prosecution.
a. True
b. False* (Forensic scientists can testify in either type of legal
action)
7. The difference of opinion between two experts indicates that one of the
experts is unethical.
a. True
b. False*
Multiple Response (5-10)
1. What is the systematic method for identification of suspects and
criminals; not based on fingerprints?
a. Anthropometry*
b. Angiopometry
c. Bertillonage*
d. Bertonage
2. Who is considered the trier-of-fact?
a. Judge*
b. Jury*
c. Lawyer
d. Forensic Scientist
3. What are the types of examination involved in a court hearing?
a. Direct*
b. Indirect
c. Cross*
d. Re-cross*
Matching (3-5)
1. a. Sir Francis Galton =
Finger Prints, 1892
b. Victor Balthazard =
The Hair of Man and Animals, 1910
c. Hans Gross = Criminal Investigation/Kriminologie
d. Sir Arthur Doyle = Sherlock Holmes
2. a. Laboratories funded by governments such as states, counties, and
cities = Public Laboratories
b. Businesses that are designed to make a profit = Private Laboratories
3. a. A laboratory has agreed to operate according to a professional or

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industry standard and has proven that it can and does operate this
way = Accreditation
b. A forensic scientist has completed a written test covering his or her
discipline and that the analyst participates in yearly proficiency
testing to insure that their laboratory methods and techniques are
sound = Certification
4. a. Between individuals or parties = Civil Law
b. Violation of criminal laws and involve the government as the
charging individual = Criminal
c. The party that files the criminal charges = Prosecution
d. The party that files the civil action charges = Plaintiff
e. The party that is under the accusations = Defendant

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Section 1 Setting the Stage
Chapter 2 Evidence: Origins, Types, and Admissibility
(Total Questions:26)
Multiple Choice (20-30)
1. What is considered court approved information that is used to
determine a defendant’s guilt or innocence?
a. Expert Testimony
b. Eye-Witness Testimony
c. Evidence*
d. Rules of Evidence
2. Admissibility or inadmissibility of trial information is determined by
the application of what?
a. Expert Testimony
b. Eye-Witness Testimony
c. Evidence
d. Rules of Evidence*
3. What is the goal of generating forensic evidence from the gathered
information?
a. Establishing material facts before or at trial*
b. Admissibility of evidence
c. Demonstrate technological advances within the field
d. Incarcerate defendants
4. What must admissible evidence be?
a. Reliable and relevant*
b. Testimonial evidence
c. Expert approved
d. Jury approved
5. What jurisdiction do the FRE apply to?
A. All
b. Federal*
c. State
d. Local
6. What name did the Daubert decision refer to the judge as?
a. Gatekeeper*
b. Trier of the fact
c. Plaintiff
d. King/Queen
7. What kind of evidence is forensic evidence considered?
a. Direct
b. Circumstantial*
c. Both
d. None of the above

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8. What type of evidence comes into court and does not reference a
particular suspect?
a. Class characteristic*
b. Individual characteristic
c. Inculpatory
d. Exculpatory
9. What is considered a common examination for questioned documents?
a. Handwriting comparisons
b. Alterations
c. Obliterations
d. All of the above*
10. What does the method in which a latent print it developed depend on?
a. The latent print
b. The surface
c. Visibility of the print
d. Both a and b*
True False (10-)
1. The federal rules of evidence serve as a screening function for all pieces
of evidence.
a. True*
b. False
2. Testimony does not serve as a type of evidence.
a. True
b. False*
3. The federal rules of evidence are inclusionary in nature, meaning they
serve to include all information presented by either side.
a. True
b. False*
4. The forensic part of forensic evidence refers to the scientific process
through which facts are generated and the evidence part refers to a
distinct set of procedures that are unique to the litigation process.
a. True*
b. False
5. A foundation consists of sufficiently supportive information presented
to a judge to convince him/her that the proposed information has the
potential to be true, and hence a jury could determine if it is or is not
in fact true.
a. True*
b. False
6. Admissibility hearings do not allow new scientific test methods to be
introduced as viable tools in forensic science.
a. True

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b. False*
7. The Daubert decision was one of two in the late 1990’s that
significantly impacted the way in which many jurisdictions addressed
the admissibility of evidence.
a. True
b. False*
8. The criminalist is responsible to report conclusions in a timely and
consistent manner and determine guilt.
a. True
b. False*
Multiple Responses (5-10)
1. Forensic science is the combination of the application of what?
a. Scientific Theory*
b. Laboratory Techniques*
c. Federal Rules of Evidence
d. Admissibility of Evidence
2. What science(s) are included in the field of forensic science?
a. DNA Analysis*
b. Anthropology*
c. Entomology*
d. Geology*
3. What disciplines associated with forensics are nontraditional in
nature?
a. Footwear impression techniques*
b. DNA analysis
c. Fingerprint analysis*
d. Chemical testing
4. What must the court be assured about the methods in scientific
analysis?
a. Scientifically acceptable*
b. Reliable*
c. Most recent methodologies
d. Implement the latest technological advances
5. What do the federal rule of evidence not address?
a. How to qualify*
b. Weight of qualifications*
c. Validity of the science or technology*
d. Who is considered a witness
6. What are possible conclusions based on class characteristic evidence?
a. Questioned sample is indistinguishable from the known standard*
b. Questioned sample came from the same source as the known

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standard and thus excludes all other possible sources
c. Questioned sample does not match the known standard*
d. Comparison is inconclusive*
Matching (3-5)
1. Match the court decisions with their criteria.
a. Frye v. United States = General Acceptance
b. Daubert v. Merrell Dow Pharmaceuticals = Judge is the gatekeeper
c. G.E. v. Joiner = Relevance
d. Kumho Tire v. Carmichael = All experts
2. Match the scientific group with the type of evidence.
a. Biological evidence = human tissues or fluids
b. Chemical evidence = drugs, explosives, toxicological samples
c. Trace evidence = microscopic physical evidence
d. Impression evidence = footwear or tire impressions
e. Firearm evidence = fired bullets, cartridge casings, and shot shells
d. Tool mark evidence = striation-type markings

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Section 2 The Crime Scene
Chapter 3 Crime Scene Investigation
(Total Questions: 30)
Multiple Choice (20-30)
1. Linkage of persons, scenes or objects is based on what?
a. Edmond Locard’s exchange principle*
b. Hans Gross’ principle on the value of physical evidence
c. Sir Francis Galton’s classification system
d. Alphonse Bertillon’s measurement system
2. The classification of the crime scene labels the site of the original or
first criminal activity as what?
a. Secondary crime scene
b. Primary crime scene*
c. Initial crime scene
d. Minor crime scene
3. Duties of the First Responder consist of which of the following?
a. Detain any witnesses
b. Protect the crime scene
c. Document any changes or alterations to the crime scene
d. All of the above*
4. Videography of the crime scene should NOT include which of the following
a. Crime scene team members
b. Narration
c. Crime scene member’s equipment
d. All of the above*
5. There are two basic types of sketches as part of crime scene investigation: Rough
and what other?
a. Final*
b. Initial
c. Perfect
d. None of the above
6. A good example of a fixed point for sketching a crime scene would be?
a. Recorded utility pole*
b. Orange road cone
c. Parked vehicle
d. Piece of furniture
7. What do digital imaging tools do to the traditional video and still photography
used in crime scene documentation?
a. Replace
b. Restore
c. Complement*
d. Compete with
8. What kind of documentation must be followed if any new items of evidence are
found?
a. Consistent with the other documentation*

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b. Document in a different manner to distinguish
c. Does not matter
d. None of the above
9. When must documentation on found items be done?
a. After everything is collected
b. Before it is collected*
c. Once it is in the laboratory
d. After it is collected
10. What is the process of determining or eliminating the events that could have
occurred at the crime scene by the analysis of the crime scene appearance,
location and position of physical evidence, and the forensic laboratory
examination of the physical evidence?
a. Sketching the crime scene
b. Photographing the crime scene
c. Reconstructing the crime scene*
d. Video recording the crime scene
True False (10-)
1. A crime scenes boundaries are permanent and cannot change once
defined.
a. True
b. False*
2. The “who” of a crime scene is more important than the “how”.
a. True
b. False*
3. The classification of a crime scene interferes with the priority or importance
of that crime scene?
a. True
b. False*
4. All physical evidence at a crime scene will be directly linked to a suspect?
a. True
b. False*
5. A contamination or security log is kept as written record of all entry/exit into
the secure areas of the crime scene?
a. True*
b. False
6. Documentation notes are taken as the activities are done so as to not be
subjected to memory loss?
a. True*
b. False
7. When videoing a crime scene you should jump from one location to another?
a. True
b. False*
8. A crime scene investigator should limit the number of photos taken at a
crime scene?
a. True

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b. False*
9. The six patterns of searching a crime scene are: link, line or strip, grid, zone,
wheel or ray, and spiral methods?
a. True*
b. False
Multiple Response (5-10)
1. What are the objectives of crime scene investigation?
a. Collect*
b. Preserve*
c. Interpret*
d. Recognize*
2. Forensic examination is a process of recognition, reconstruction, and what
other two steps?
a. Identification*
b. Association
c. Correlation
d. Individualization*
3. When taking notes for documentation of scene description information
consists of which of the following?
a. Date/Time
b. Weather*
c. Major Structures*
d. Team Members
4. What proof of documentation of a photograph should be recorded in a photo
log?
a. Time taken*
b. Roll and exposure number*
c. Camera settings*
d. Description of photo*
5. The advantages of digital imaging include which of the following?
a. Instant access*
b. Manipulation
c. Integration into electronic technologies*
d. Expensive processing equipment
6. What are the three techniques for obtaining measurements for the crime
scene sketch?
a. Triangulation*
b. Base line*
c. Polar coordinates*
d. Fixed points
7. What are the stages of crime scene reconstruction?
a. Data collection*
b. Conjecture*
c. Hypothesis formulation*

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d. Testing*
e. Theory formulation*
Matching (3‐5)
1. Match the type of crime scene with the corresponding characteristics.
a. Location according to criminal behavior = primary and secondary
b. Size = macroscopic and microscopic
c. Type = homicide, robbery, sexual assault
d. Condition = organized, disorganized
e. Physical location = indoor, outdoor, vehicle
f. Associated criminal behavior = passive or active
2. Documentation of a crime scene should be done in what order?
a. Notes = 1
b. Sketching = 4
c. Video Recording = 2
d. Photographing/Digital Imaging = 3
e. Crime Scene Searches = 5
3. What type of information is contained within the specific documentation
note?
a. Notification information = date/time, method of notification, and
information received
b. Arrival information = means of transportation, date/time, personnel
present at the scene, and any notifications to be made
c. Scene description = weather, location type and condition, major
structures, and identification of transient and conditional evidence
d. Crime scene team = assignments to team members, walk‐thru
information, beginning and ending times, and evidence handling
results
4. What is done in the different stages of crime scene reconstruction?
a. Data collection = Data including the condition of the physical
evidence, patterns and impressions, condition of the victim, etc., are
reviewed, organized, and studied.
b. Conjecture = Before any detailed analysis of the evidence is
accomplished, a possible explanation of the actions involved in the
crime scene may be done.
c. Hypothesis formulation = Scene examination and inspection of the
physical evidence must be done. Interpretation of bloodstain and
impression patterns, gunshot residue patterns, fingerprint evidence,
and analysis of trace evidence will lead to the formulation of a
reconstruction hypothesis.
d. Testing = Additional experimentation after the hypothesis has been
developed to confirm or disprove the overall interpretation or specific
aspects of the hypothesis.
e. Theory formulation = Formed once the hypothesis has been
thoroughly tested and verified by analysis

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Section 2: The Crime Scene
Chapter 4: Recognition of Bloodstain Patterns
(Total Questions:37)
Multiple Choice (20-30)
1. Who submitted an affidavit of his examination of bloodstain evidence and
findings in the case of State of Ohio v. Samuel Sheppard in 1955 which became a
significant milestone in the recognition of bloodstain evidence by the American
legal system?
a. Dr. Eduard Piotrowski
b. Herbert Leon MacDonell
c. Dr. Paul Kirk*
d. Dr. Victor Balthazard
2. Herbert Leon MacDonell conducted his first bloodstain institute in Jackson,
Mississippi in what year?
a. 1973*
b. 1985
c. 1993
d. 2003
3. Defined as the force that pulls the surface molecules of a liquid toward its interior,
decreasing the surface area and causing the liquid to resist penetration?
a. Viscosity
b. Surface Tension*
c. Molecular Forces
d. Molecular Tension
4. What is the normal clotting time of blood that has exited the body from healthy
individuals?
a. 1-2 hours
b. 30-40 minutes
c. 3-15 minutes*
d. 10-15 seconds
5. What are areas or patterns that result from the absence of bloodstains in otherwise
continuous patters of staining?
a. expirated patterns
b. transfer patterns
c. cast off patterns
d. void patterns*
6. Luminol is best used in what kind of environment?
a. Darkened*
b. Extremely bright
c. Over exposed
d. Does not matter
7. In normal individuals what percentage of blood is comprised of cellular
components?
a. 10%
b. 45%*

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c. 50%
d. 95%
8. What is the range of the total volume of blood in healthy individuals?
a. 1.0 – 3.0 liters
b. 4.0 – 5.5 liters
c. 4.5 – 6.0 liters*
d. 8.0 – 9.0 liters
9. What is defined as the resistance to change of form or flow?
a. Specific gravity
b. Terminal velocity
c. Viscosity*
d. Surface tension
10. Blood with not break into smaller droplets or spatters unless what is disrupted?
a. Specific gravity
b. Terminal velocity
c. Viscosity
d. Surface tension*
11. What is determined by examining the edge characteristics of individual stains?
a. Direction of flight*
b. Area of origin
c. Angle of impact
d. Area of convergence
12. What degree of impact is associated with a circular shape?
a. 30%
b. 50%
c. 80%
d. 90%*
13. The misting effect is a pattern associated with what?
a. Gunshot*
b. Beatings
c. Stabbings
d. Blood dripping
14. What patterns have a linear directionality associated with them?
a. Castoff*
b. Satellite
c. Drip
d. Splashed
15. What is the correct series of color changes for a bloodstain as it ages?
a. Blue→Red→Brown→Black
b. Red→Reddish Brown→Black*
c. Reddish Brown →Red→Black
d. Brown →Black→Red
16. What bloodstain alteration results in bloodstains being diluted?
a. Moisture*
b. Voids
c. Clotting

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d. Drying
17. What bloodstaining includes transfer, flow patterns, saturation stains, and stains
from dripping blood?
a. Active
b. Passive*
c. Castoff
d. Satellite
18. What is always better when documenting bloodstain evidence?
a. More*
b. Less
c. Photographs
d. Video
True False (10-)
1. The interpretation of bloodstain patterns will only be as valid as the information
available and the ability of the examiner performing the analysis.
a. True*
b. False
2. The nuclei of the red blood cells are the sources of DNA in the blood.
a. True
b. False*
3. Calculated area of impact is always lower that the actual origin of the bloodstains
because of the gravitational attraction affecting the spatters while in flight.
a. True
b. False*
4. Spattered blood is defined as a random distribution of bloodstains that vary in size
and may be produced by a variety of mechanisms.
a. True*
b. False
5. To create spatters of blood, the surface tension of the blood must not be overcome
by an external force.
a. True
b. False*
6. Passive bloodstaining includes transfer, flow patterns, saturation stains and stains
resulting from dripping blood.
a. True*
b. False
7. The degree of significance that may be attached to a given bloodstain pattern is
compromised due to insufficient documentation.
a. True*
b. False
8. The surface tension of blood is slightly more than that of water.
a. True
b. False*

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Multiple Response (5-10)
1. What forces affect a single drop of blood falling through the air but do not
overcome the surface tension of the blood?
a. gravity*
b. molecular forces
c. air resistance*
d. intermolecular forces
2. What type of target surface a drop of blood strikes will create little if any spatter?
a. smooth tile*
b. glass*
c. wood
d. concrete
3. The size, quantity, and distribution of blood spatters vary depending on what?
a. quantity of blood subjected to impact*
b. quality of blood subjected to impact
c. force of the impact*
d. texture of the surface impacted by the blood*
4. Bloodstains should be categorized relative to what?
a. the events that produced them*
b. the person who caused them
c. the reverse order in which they were produced
d. the possible sources and movement of these sources*
5. What does active blood staining consist of?
a. transfer
b. impact spatter*
c. arterial spurts*
d. expirated blood*
6. What governments does the Scientific Working Group on Bloodstain Pattern
Analysis (SWGSTAIN) serves as a professional forum in which bloodstain
pattern analysis (BPA) practitioners can share, discuss, and evaluate methods,
techniques, protocols, quality assurance, education, and research relating to BPA?
a. Federal*
b. State*
c. Local*
d. None of the above
7. What are some biological properties of blood?
a. Red blood cells*
b. White blood cells*
c. Platelets*
d. Hormones*
Matching (3-5)
1. Match the terms with the correct definitions.
a. Blood = transports oxygen, electrolytes, nourishment, hormones, vitamins
and antibodies to tissues and transports waste products from tissues

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b. Plasma = a fluid protein that contains cellular components consisting of
red blood cell, white blood cell, and platelets
c. Serum = fluid or liquid portion of clotted blood
2. Match the terms with the correct definitions.
a. direction of travel/directionality = determined by the narrow end of an
elongated bloodstain
b. area of convergence = relative location of the blood source in a two-
dimensional perspective
c. area of origin = location of the blood source in a three- dimensional
perspective
d. angle of impact = can be calculated by using a mathematical relationship
that exists between the width and length of an elliptical bloodstain
3. Match the different bloodstain spatters with the correct statement.
a. satellite spatter = created by blood dripping into blood
b. back spatter = impact spatter associated with the entrance wound from a
gun shot
c. forward spatter = impact spatter associated with the exit wound from a gun
shot
4. Match the different bloodstain patterns with the correct statement.
a. drip pattern = results from blood drops falling into previously deposited
wet bloodstains or small pools of blood
b. expirated pattern = results from blood being forcefully expelled from the
nose or mouth in order to free the airways
c. transfer pattern = results when an object wet from blood comes into
contact or wiping with an unstained object of secondary surface
d. castoff pattern = results when the centrifugal force generated by swinging
the weapon is great enough to overcome the adhesive force that holds the
blood to the object and the blood is flung from the object

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Section 3 Death Investigation
Chapter 5 Death Investigation
(Total Questions: 50)
Multiple Choice (20-30)
1. In what year did the federal government enact a death investigation
operation?
a. 1990s*
b. 1980s
c. 1970s
d. 1960s
2. Who was the coroner replaced by in 1977 in Massachusetts?
a. Pathologist
b. Medical Examiner*
c. Pathologist assistant
d. Judge
3. How do coroner’s obtain their positions?
a. Appointed by judge
b. Appointed by board of educators
c. Elected*
d. None of the above
4. Around what war did cities such as Baltimore, Richmond, and New
York adopt the medical examiners system of death investigation?
a. World War I*
b. World War II
c. Cold War
d. Korean War
5. Who is a physician that specializes in pathology and the diagnosis of
disease and sub specializes in the area between law and medicine?
a. Coroner
b. Medical Examiner
c. Pathologist*
d. Pathologist Assistant
6. What Greek meanings describe the roots to the term pathologists?
a. Suffering and word*
b. Disease and writing
c. Discoverer and death
d. Doctor and disease
7. What is defined as the disease or injury that initiated the lethal chain
of events that led to death?
a. Mechanism of death
b. Manner of death
c. Cause of death*
d. All of the above

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8. The acronym NASH is a breakdown of the four what?
a. Mechanism of death
b. Manner of death*
c. Cause of death
d. All of the above
9. What change(s) are used to estimate time of death?
a. Rigor mortis
b. Livor mortis
c. Algor mortis
d. All of the above*
10. ___________ is a death that occurs within a few hours of the onset of
symptoms or death without any symptoms.
a. Sudden death*
b. Instant death
c. Onset death
d. Delayed death
11. What term means “to look at oneself”?
a. Autopsy*
b. Necropsy
c. Mirrored
d. Pathology
12. What term means “looking at the dead”?
a. Autopsy
b. Necropsy*
c. Mirrored
d. Pathology
13. What technique is customary in the United States for autopsy
examination?
a. Transverse incision
b. Neck incision
c. Inframammary incision*
d. X-shaped incision
14. What is the term that refers to a chemical process that causes proteins
to harden; preserving tissues and prevents decomposition?
a. Fixation*
b. Setting
c. Formaldehyding
d. None of the above
15. What specimens are usually collected to determine the presence of
common drugs of abuse?
a. Blood and urine*
b. Blood and bile
c. Bile and urine
d. Spinal fluid and bile

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16. Traumatic deaths can be which of the following?
a. Natural
b. Accidental
c. Suicidal
d. Homicidal
e. All of the above*
17. What are traumatic deaths classified as?
a. Mechanical
b. Thermal
c. Chemical
d. Electrical
e. All of the above*
18. What trauma occurs when applied physical force exceeds the tensile
strength of the tissue to which the force is applied?
a. Mechanical*
b. Thermal
c. Chemical
d. Electrical
19. What type of object produces lacerations rather than incised wounds?
a. Blunt objects*
b. Sharp objects
c. Electrical objects
d. All of the above
20. What is the cutoff point between high velocity and low velocity
injuries?
a. 100 meters per second
b. 300 meters per second*
c. 700 meters per second
d. 1000 meters per second
21. What color do carboxymyoglibin and carboxyhemoglobin appear as?
a. Bright Red*
b. Dull Green
c. Bright Pink
d. Bright Blue
22. What term is used to describe the pattern of unburned powder that
penetrates the skin?
a. Stippling*
b. Close contact pattern
c. Distant wound pattern
d. Powder pattern
23. What causes entrance wounds to be round and/or elliptical?
a. Bullet trajectory
b. Rotation from riffling*
c. Proximity

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d. Angle of impact
24. What are the most common blunt force injuries in society caused
from?
a. Baseball bats
b. Gunshot wounds
c. Transportation collision*
d. Knife wounds
25. What term is defined as an accumulation of blood in the tissues outside
the blood vessels?
a. Contusion*
b. Blood blister
c. Outer vessel wound
d. Hepatoma
26. What drug is most commonly seen in forensic practice but rarely kills
directly and is a contributory factor in approximately 50% of traumatic
death?
a. Ethanol*
b. Marijuana
c. Cocaine
d. None of the above
27. At what level does carbon monoxide bind to hemoglobin?
a. 50 times more strongly than oxygen
b. 150 times more strongly than oxygen
c. 300 times more strongly than oxygen*
d. 1000 times more strongly than oxygen
28. What chemical gained some notoriety as a means of administering the
death penalty in California?
a. Carbon monoxide
b. Carbon dioxide
c. Potassium cyanide*
d. All of the above
29. What is the mechanism of death generally associated with thermal
burns?
a. Multiple organ failure*
b. Hemorrhaging
c. Contusions
d. Infectious spreading
30. What combination of current and voltage produces ventricular
fibrillation?
a. Alternating current (AC) and high voltage
b. Alternating current (AC) and low voltage*
c. Resistor–capacitor (RC) and high voltage
d. Resistor–capacitor (RC) and low voltage
31. What is a more common finding in manual strangulation?

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a. Fracture of the cornu*
b. Fracture or the hyoid bone
c. Fracture of the sternum
d. Fracture of the spine
True False (10-)
1. The Armed Forces Medical Examiner’s Office in the Armed Forces
Institute of Pathology was the first federal government death
investigation operation.
a. True*
b. False
2. Rigor, livor, and algor mortis are all changes that help accurately
estimate the time of death.
a. True
b. False*
3. Witness statements are not important to forensic pathologists and are
generally disregarded.
a. True
b. False*
4. In cases where death occurs in police custody, non-extensive
dissections are generally performed.
a. True
b. False*
5. A common method for coroners to preserve DNA for future DNA
analysis is to pull head hairs and place them in an envelope.
a. True*
b. False
6. DNA embedded in paraffin blocks or cut into sections and made into
slides will not further decompose.
a. True*
b. False
7. Photographs taken by a forensic photographer are often preferable to
those taken by a pathologist because the years of training and
experience required for a forensic photographer ensure the taking of
relevant and ultimately admissible photographs.
a. True
b. False*
8. The size of a sharp object can be precisely determined from
examination of the characteristics of the wound.
a. True
b. False*
9. Deaths from cocaine are more unusual than deaths from depressant
drugs.
a. True*

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b. False
Multiple Response (5-10)
1. What are considered manners of death?
a. Natural*
b. Accidental*
c. Homicidal*
d. Suicidal*
2. What questions can generally be answered by scene examination by a
pathologist?
a. Post-injury movement*
b. Time between injury and death*
c. Time of injury*
d. Time of death*
e. Time of unconsciousness*
3. What religions generally restrict or forbid dissection of deceased
persons?
a. Judaism*
b. Islam*
c. Atheism
d. None of the above
4. What diseases can be transmitted by exposure to the virus contained
in hair or blood?
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B*
c. Hepatitis C*
d. HIV*
5. What are causes of asphyxias?
a. Chemical*
b. Thermal*
c. Drowning*
d. Hemorrhage
6. What is a more common findings in manual strangulation?
a. Fracture of the cornu*
b. Fracture or the hyoid bone
c. Hemorrhage of the chest muscles
d. Hemorrhage of the strap muscles*
Matching (3-5)
1. Match the type of mortis with the correct definition.
a. Rigor mortis = stiffening of the muscles that occurs following
death
b. Livor mortis = discoloration of the body which occurs from the
settling of red blood cells after the blood stops circulating

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c. Algor mortis = cooling of the body that occurs after death
2. Match the type of wound with its general characteristic.
a. Penetrating gunshot wound = entrance wound and no exit
wound
b. Perforating gunshot wound = entrance wound and an exit
wound
c. Contact wounds = blackening of the skin
d. Distant gunshot wounds = circular skin defect
3. Match the levels of alcohol with the effects?
a. > 0.03 gram percent = slight improvement in reaction time
b. < 0.03 gram percent = slowing of brain function and reaction
time
c. ~0.25 gram percent = a person who has not been exposed
previously to ethyl alcohol will go into coma if not stimulated
d. ~0.30 gram percent = a person who has not been exposed
previously to ethyl alcohol will go into a deep coma; cannot be
roused and will breathe slowly enough to eventually die
e. ~0.10 gram percent = a person who has not been exposed
previously to ethyl alcohol will start vomiting and further
absorption will soon stop
4. Match the type of thermal trauma to the appropriate definition and
characteristic.
a. Hypothermia = excessive cold
b. Hyperthermia = excessive heat
c. Hypothermia = common in individuals who are intoxicated with
alcohol and exposed to cold temperatures
d. Hyperthermia = common in elderly people in northern cities and
infants left in parked automobiles during heat waves

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Section 3 Death Investigation
Chapter 6 Forensic Anthropology
(Total Questions: 43)
Multiple Choice (20-30)
1. Where was the pivotal article on examining skeletal remains written
by W.M. Krogman in 1939 published?
a. Journal of Forensic Science
b. FBI Bulletin*
c. Journal of Forensic Anthropology
d. Anthropological News
2. What organization examines and certifies forensic physical
anthropologists at the postdoctoral level and provides oversight in
professional conduct?
a. American Academy of Forensic Science
b. American Board of Professional Anthropologists
c. American Board of Forensic Anthropology*
d. American Academy of Physical Anthropologists
3. What credential is increasingly utilized nationally and internationally
to qualify expert witnesses in court?
a. Diplomate of the American Board of Forensic Anthropology*
b. Diplomate of the American Academy of Forensic Science
c. Certification from the American Board of Professional
Anthropologists
d. Certification of completion of a American Board of Professional
Anthropologists course
4. Approximately how many bones does the adult human skeleton have?
a. 408
b. 307
c. 206*
d. 105
5. What is the area where material from the grave and surrounding area
is sifted through to reveal human remains, artifacts, fibers, and
associated insect?
a. Sifting area
b. Screening area*
c. Revealing area
d. Grave recovery area
6. What animal’s paws are notoriously similar to human hands and feet?
a. Bear*
b. Lion
c. Dog
d. Sloth

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7. What is the term defined as the immediate environment and
surroundings where the body is found?
a. Taphonomic context*
b. Postmortem context
c. Postmortem environment
d. Taphonomic environment
8. Using a broader range of estimated stature and age helps avoid what?
a. Erroneous exclusion*
b. Erroneous inclusion
c. Narrowing the range of possible identities
d. All of the above
9. The skeleton is formed by the development and growth of what?
a. Diaphysis centers
b. Epiphysis centers
c. Ossification centers*
d. All of the above
10. What does the timing of the formation, growth, and fusion of
ossification centers depend on?
a. Age and sex
b. Bone element
c. Nutritional and hormonal status
d. All of the above*
11. Who generally develops earlier?
a. Males
b. Females*
c. Both develop at the same rate
d. None of the above
12. How many teeth do most human adults have?
a. 23
b. 32*
c. 42
d. 45
13. What is the dental formula for a human child?
a. 2.1.2.*
b. 3.2.3.
c. 2.3.2
d. 1.2.1
14. When does tooth development begin?
a. Fetal life*
b. Newborn
c. Infant
d. Toddler
15. What is the most reliable indicator of adult age?
a. Femur

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Test Bank For Forensic Science, 4th Edition

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