Test Bank for The Human Body in Health and Illness, 7th Edition (Chapters 1-27)

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Complete Test Bank
The Human Body in Health and Illness 7th Edition
by Barbara Herlihy

Chapter 01: Introduction to the Human Body
Herlihy: The Human Body in Health and Illness, 7th Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. What is the branch of science that studies how the body functions?
a. Anatomy
b. Histology
c. Pathology
d. Physiology
ANS: D
2. Which word comes from the Greek word meaning “to dissect”?
a. Anatomy
b. Histology
c. Pathology
d. Physiology
ANS: A
3. Which of the following is a higher order of organization?
a. Molecule
b. Cell
c. Organ
d. Tissue
ANS: C
4. The head is located to the chest.
a. anterior
b. inferior
c. deep
d. superior
ANS: D
5. The foot is located to the leg.
a. proximal
b. superior
c. superficial
d. distal
ANS: D
6. The leg is to the thigh.
a. distal
b. proximal
c. superior
d. deep
ANS: A

7. The thigh is to the foot.
a. distal
b. proximal
c. inferior
d. deep
ANS: B
8. The thoracic cavity is to the abdominopelvic cavity.
a. deep
b. distal
c. anterior
d. superior
ANS: D
9. The kneecap is located distal to the
a. leg.
b. thigh.
c. foot.
d. toes.
ANS: B
10. Which organ is located in both the ventral and thoracic cavities?
a. Stomach
b. Liver
c. Lung
d. Spinal cord
ANS: C
11. Which organ is located in the ventral cavity but not in the thoracic cavity?
a. Lung
b. Heart
c. Liver
d. Brain
ANS: C
12. Which organ is located in the dorsal cavity?
a. Liver
b. Brain
c. Heart
d. Urinary bladder
ANS: B
13. Which of the following is descriptive of the location of the reproductive organs?
a. Dorsal cavity and vertebral cavity
b. Mediastinum and the thoracic cavity
c. Ventral cavity and pelvic cavity

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d. Pleural cavity and mediastinum
ANS: C
14. Which cavity is divided into quadrants?
a. Thoracic
b. Abdominopelvic
c. Dorsal
d. Cranial
ANS: B
15. Which region is included within the right upper quadrant (RUQ)?
a. Umbilical
b. Hypogastric
c. Right iliac
d. Right hypochondriac
ANS: D
16. Which region is included within the left lower quadrant (LLQ)?
a. Umbilical
b. Left hypochondriac
c. Epigastric
d. Left iliac
ANS: D
17. Which of the following refers to the umbilicus?
a. Groin
b. Armpit
c. Navel
d. Patellar
ANS: C
18. Which of the following refers to the lower back region?
a. Groin
b. Axillary
c. Umbilical
d. Lumbar
ANS: D
19. Which of the following refers to the groin region?
a. Axillary
b. Lumbar
c. Cranial
d. Inguinal
ANS: D
20. Which of the following refers to the area in front of the elbow?

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a. Axillary
b. Brachial
c. Antecubital
d. Popliteal
ANS: C
21. Which area appears only on the anterior part of the body?
a. Popliteal
b. Umbilical
c. Lumbar
d. Occipital
ANS: B
22. Which area appears only on the posterior part of the body?
a. Gluteal
b. Patellar
c. Umbilical
d. Sternal
ANS: A
23. Which area is inferior to the diaphragm?
a. Axillary
b. Inguinal
c. Occipital
d. Cervical
ANS: B
24. What is another name for the frontal plane?
a. Sagittal plane
b. Cross section
c. Transverse plane
d. Coronal plane
ANS: D
25. Which plane divides the body into right and left halves?
a. Sagittal
b. Coronal
c. Transverse
d. Frontal
ANS: A
26. In which cavity is the mediastinum located?
a. Pelvic
b. Dorsal
c. Thoracic
d. Abdominal

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ANS: C
27. Which organ is located within the mediastinum?
a. Lungs
b. Stomach
c. Liver
d. Heart
ANS: D
28. In which cavity is the heart not located?
a. Mediastinum
b. Thoracic cavity
c. Ventral cavity
d. Dorsal cavity
ANS: D
29. Which organ is located in the ventral cavity and thoracic cavity but not in the mediastinum?
a. Lung
b. Liver
c. Stomach
d. Heart
ANS: A
30. Which group is incorrect?
a. Planes: transverse, sagittal, frontal
b. Cavities: dorsal, ventral
c. Ventral cavities: thoracic, vertebral
d. Organs: heart, stomach, lungs, brain
ANS: C
31. Which group is incorrect?
a. Cavities: dorsal, ventral
b. Ventral cavities: thoracic, abdominopelvic
c. Organ systems: circulatory, digestive, respiratory, brain
d. Organs: heart, stomach, lungs, liver
ANS: C
32. Which group is incorrect?
a. Planes: sagittal, frontal, transverse
b. Ventral cavities: thoracic, abdominopelvic, cranial
c. Dorsal cavities: cranial, vertebral
d. Organ systems: circulatory, digestive, respiratory
ANS: B
33. The distal humerus (arm bone) is
a. closer to the axillary area than to the elbow.
b. closer to the wrist than to the antecubital area.

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c. distal to the wrist.
d. closer to the elbow than to the axillary area.
ANS: D
34. The proximal end of the thigh bone (femur) is
a. distal to the knee.
b. closer to the knee than to the inguinal area.
c. distal to the pedal area.
d. closer to the inguinal area than to the umbilical area.
ANS: D
35. The lung is located in the thoracic cavity. What is the relationship of the lung to the head?
a. Inferior
b. Deep
c. Anterior
d. Superior
ANS: A
36. Which of the following is superior to the umbilicus?
a. Groin
b. Popliteal area
c. Sternal area
d. Pelvic cavity
ANS: C
37. The heart is located in all the following except the
a. mediastinum.
b. ventral cavity.
c. cranial cavity.
d. thoracic cavity.
ANS: C
38. The lungs are located in all the following except the
a. thoracic cavity.
b. mediastinum.
c. ventral cavity.
d. pleural cavity.
ANS: B
39. Which of the following is true of the dorsal cavity?
a. It contains the mediastinum.
b. It contains the brain and spinal cord.
c. It contains the thoracic cavity.
d. It is smaller than the cranial cavity.
ANS: B

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40. The sternal area is
a. superior to the cervical region.
b. the breastbone area.
c. deep to the mediastinum.
d. inferior to the thoracic cavity.
ANS: B
41. Which of the following is descriptive of the mediastinum?
a. Thoracic cavity
b. Dorsal cavity
c. Abdominopelvic cavity
d. RUQ
ANS: A
42. The sagittal plane
a. is also called the coronal plane.
b. splits the body into a top and bottom.
c. splits the body into front and back.
d. splits the body into right and left.
ANS: D
43. Which of the following is least descriptive of the occipital area?
a. Cranial
b. Midepigastric
c. Posterior head
d. Superior to the cervical area
ANS: B
44. A patient has been in a car wreck and is admitted to the emergency department with a chief
complaint of severe cervical pain accompanied by loss of sensation in all extremities. Which
of the following indicates the site of pain?
a. Lower back
b. Both knees
c. Neck
d. RUQ
ANS: C
45. The LUQ is
a. inferior to the sternal area.
b. inferior to the epigastric region.
c. inferior to the umbilical region.
d. located in the groin.
ANS: A
46. Which of the following describes pain that is located immediately below the shoulder blade?
a. Cervical
b. Lumbar

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c. Flank pain
d. Subscapular
ANS: D
47. Which of the following is superior to the lumbar region?
a. Scapular
b. Inguinal
c. Popliteal
d. Gluteal
ANS: A
48. A 26-year-old man is scheduled for the surgical repair of a right inguinal hernia. Which of the
following areas is involved surgically?
a. RUQ
b. Umbilical region
c. Right iliac region
d. Right hypochondriac region
ANS: C
49. Refer to the previous question. On the first postoperative day, the patient is most likely to
experience pain when he
a. brushes his teeth.
b. eats breakfast.
c. walks.
d. speaks on the phone.
ANS: C
50. A physician has diagnosed a patient as having an enlarged liver. According to the patient’s
chart, his liver is measured as being two fingers below the costal margin of the rib cage.
Where was the physician palpating (feeling) to get this measurement?
a. Umbilical region
b. LUQ
c. Hypogastric region
d. RUQ
ANS: D
51. A patient was admitted to the emergency department and the physician recorded the patient’s
pain as being substernal, radiating to the left axillary region. Which of the following is a
restatement of this description?
a. The pain is sharp and is associated with nausea and vomiting.
b. The pain is indicative of an inguinal hernia.
c. The pain begins in the chest and radiates to the left flank and medial thigh.
d. The pain originates behind the breastbone and radiates to the left armpit area.
ANS: D
52. A patient with a history of gallbladder disease complains of midepigastric pain that radiates to
the right subscapular region. Which of the following best describes the pain?

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a. High abdominal pain that radiates to the groin
b. Crushing chest pain
c. Aching pain behind the breastbone, radiating to the left shoulder
d. High abdominal pain, radiating to below the right shoulder blade area
ANS: D
53. Which plane preserves an upper and lower half of the body?
a. Transverse plane
b. Coronal plane
c. Frontal plane
d. Midsagittal
ANS: A
54. Which of the following is contained in the ventral cavity?
a. Thoracic cavity
b. Pleural cavities
c. Abdominopelvic cavity
d. All of the above
ANS: D
55. Which of the following is true?
a. The wrist is proximal to the elbow.
b. The distal humerus (arm bone) is closer to the axilla than to the elbow.
c. The proximal thigh bone is closer to the hip than to the knee.
d. The distal tibia (shin bone) is closed to the knee than to the ankle
ANS: C
56. Which of the following is true?
a. The distal thigh bone (femur) is closer to the hip than to the knee.
b. The distal humerus (arm bone) is closer to the axilla than to the elbow.
c. The distal shin bone (tibia) is closer to the ankle than to the knee.
d. The lateral thigh is closer to the midline of the body than is the medial thigh.
ANS: C
57. The medial thigh is located
a. along the plantar surface of the foot.
b. along the inner surface of the upper extremity.
c. on the inner thigh region.
d. distal to the popliteal region.
ANS: C
58. Which term refers to “beneath the ribs”?
a. Iliac
b. Inguinal
c. Hypochondriac
d. RLQ

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ANS: C
59. The term viscera refers to
a. the organs of the body.
b. the cavities contained within the ventral cavity.
c. the cavities contained within the thoracic cavity.
d. the divisions of the abdominopelvic cavity.
ANS: A
60. The ventral cavity is the anterior cavity; the is the posterior cavity.
a. thoracic cavity
b. dorsal cavity
c. pleural cavity
d. mediastinum
ANS: B
61. The caudal part of the spinal cord is
a. superior to the thoracic part of the spinal cord.
b. located near the tailbone.
c. interior to the cervical spinal cord.
d. located near the brain.
ANS: B
62. Which of the following includes the right iliac region?
a. RUQ
b. Epigastric region
c. Umbilical region
d. RLQ
ANS: D
63. The medial canthus (corner) of the eye is
a. located near the nose.
b. located near the ear.
c. superior to the eyebrow.
d. inferior to the eyelid.
ANS: A
64. The plantar region is
a. located in the upper extremities.
b. the bottom of the foot.
c. proximal to the knee.
d. the groin.
ANS: B
65. Which two words are directional “opposites”?
a. Proximal, femoral
b. Caudal, cephalic

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c. Distal, peripheral
d. Anterior, superficial
ANS: B
66. Pedal, patellar, popliteal, and plantar are terms that refer to
a. lower extremities areas.
b. arm.
c. toes.
d. structures that are proximal to the kneecap.
ANS: A
67. Which of the following terms refers to the area along the lateral trunk between the ribs and the
hip bones?
a. Inguinal
b. Visceral
c. Flank
d. Gluteal
ANS: C
68. Buccal, oral, and orbital are terms that refer to the structures in the
a. neck.
b. head.
c. flank.
d. inguinal area.
ANS: B
69. With which word is lower back pain associated?
a. Flank
b. Inguinal
c. Lumbar
d. Popliteal
ANS: C

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Chapter 02: Basic Chemistry
Herlihy: The Human Body in Health and Illness, 7th Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which of the following are located in the orbits surrounding the nucleus?
a. Isotopes
b. Protons
c. Electrons
d. Neutrons
ANS: C
2. Which of the following is a measurement of hydrogen ion concentration [H+]?
a. Atomic number
b. Atomic mass
c. Isotope
d. pH
ANS: D
3. The sharing of electrons is referred to as
a. covalent bonding.
b. ionic bonding.
c. radioactive decay.
d. isotope formation.
ANS: A
4. Which element must be present for a substance to be classified as organic?
a. Iodine
b. Iron
c. Carbon
d. Calcium
ANS: C
5. A cation is a(n)
a. positively charged ion.
b. electrolyte.
c. isotope.
d. ion that has an atomic mass of 2.
ANS: A
6. Which of the following is an anion?
a. Sodium ion
b. Potassium ion
c. Chloride ion
d. Calcium ion
ANS: C

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7. What kind of ion would have 8 protons in its nucleus and 9 electrons in its orbits?
a. Cation
b. Electrolyte
c. Acid
d. Anion
ANS: D
8. Which of the following is true of an anion?
a. An anion always ionizes to form electrolytes.
b. An anion always has an atomic mass of 15.
c. An anion carries a negative charge.
d. A hydrogen ion is an anion.
ANS: C
9. NaCl, table salt, is called a(n)
a. anion.
b. electrolyte.
c. cation.
d. ion.
ANS: B
10. Which process refers to the dissociation of NaCl into Na+ and Cl–?
a. Radioactivity
b. Ionization
c. Covalent bonding
d. Hydrogen bonding
ANS: B
11. Which of the following is descriptive of the chemical reaction in the previous question?
a. Cation + anion  electrolyte
b. Electrolyte  cation + anion
c. Electrolyte + anion  cation
d. Neutralization of an acid by a base
ANS: B
12. Which of the following is an anion?
a. NaCl
b. KCl
c. H2SO4
d. HCO3–
ANS: D
13. Which of the following represents bicarbonate, an anion that is important in acid–base
regulation?
a. HCl

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b. Ca(OH)2
c. HCO3–
d. KCl
ANS: C
14. Which compound is the universal solvent?
a. Carbon dioxide
b. Oxygen
c. ATP
d. Water
ANS: D
15. [H+] refers to
a. an isotope of hydrogen.
b. heavy hydrogen.
c. hydrogen bonding.
d. hydrogen ion concentration.
ANS: D
16. Which compound is a waste product of cellular metabolism?
a. Oxygen
b. Carbon dioxide
c. Catalyst
d. ATP
ANS: B
17. Which of the following increases the speed of a chemical reaction but is itself not used up in
the chemical reaction?
a. An isotope
b. A cation
c. A catalyst
d. ATP
ANS: C
18. What is the energy-transferring molecule?
a. H+
b. ATP
c. Ca2+
d. NaCl
ANS: B
19. Which of the following acts as a catalyst?
a. An acid
b. An enzyme
c. A buffer
d. ATP

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ANS: B
20. Fe2+ is formed when iron
a. gains 2 protons.
b. gains 2 electrons.
c. loses 2 protons.
d. loses 2 electrons.
ANS: D
21. Which of the following is true of Na+?
a. It is an anion.
b. It is an electrolyte.
c. It bonds ionically with Ca2+.
d. It is a cation.
ANS: D
22. Which of the following carries no net electrical charge?
a. An anion
b. A cation
c. A polar molecule
d. An ion
ANS: C
23. Which of the following illustrates antacid activity?
a. NaCl  Na+ + Cl–
b. HCl  H+ + Cl–
c. Mg(OH)2 + HCl  MgCl2 + H2O
d. KCl  K+ + Cl–
ANS: C
24. Zinc, selenium, cobalt, and iodine are all
a. trace elements.
b. compounds.
c. radioactive.
d. isotopes of hydrogen.
ANS: A
25. Iron can be a(n)
a. anion.
b. electrolyte.
c. acid.
d. cation.
ANS: D
26. Which of the following is described by this statement? One atom of oxygen bonds covalently
with two atoms of hydrogen.

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a. Carbon dioxide
b. A tincture
c. Water
d. Neutralization of an acid with a base
ANS: C
27. A solution that has a pH of 6.8
a. has a neutral pH.
b. is alkaline.
c. is basic.
d. is acidic.
ANS: D
28. What happens when HCl is added to a solution with a pH of 7.45?
a. The pH will be higher than 7.45.
b. The solution will become more alkaline.
c. The [H+] of the solution will increase.
d. The pH will be higher than 8.0.
ANS: C
29. Which pH is considered neutral?
a. 7.35
b. 7.45
c. 7.00
d. 14.0
ANS: C
30. Blood has a pH range of 7.35 to 7.45 and therefore
a. is acidic.
b. is three to four times more viscous (thicker) than water.
c. has a pH that is similar to urine and stomach contents.
d. is alkaline.
ANS: D
31. In which of the following is the number of hydrogen ions greater?
a. An alkaline solution
b. A basic solution
c. Blood
d. A solution with a pH of 6.2
ANS: D
32. An atom has 2 protons, 2 neutrons, and 2 electrons; it has an atomic
a. number of 6.
b. mass of 2.
c. mass of 4.
d. number of 4.

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ANS: C
33. An atom has 1 proton, 0 neutrons, and 1 electron; its isotope has
a. 2 electrons and 0 neutrons.
b. 2 protons and 2 neutrons.
c. 1 proton and 1 neutron.
d. 2 protons and 0 neutrons.
ANS: C
34. An atom has 1 proton, 0 neutrons, and 1 electron. What will convert this atom to a cation?
a. Add 1 neutron.
b. Add 1 proton.
c. Lose 1 electron.
d. Add 1 proton, 2 neutrons, and 1 electron.
ANS: C
35. The heart pushes blood into the blood vessels as chemical energy is converted to which form
of energy?
a. Thermal
b. Radiant
c. Mechanical
d. Nuclear
ANS: C
36. Which of the following best describes a solution in which water is the solvent?
a. Colloidal suspension
b. Aqueous solution
c. Tincture
d. Isotope
ANS: B
37. Which of the following best describes a solution in which alcohol is the solvent?
a. Tincture
b. Alkaline
c. Acid
d. Aqueous
ANS: A
38. A combination of sugar granules and iron filings is best described as a(n)
a. mixture.
b. colloidal suspension.
c. tincture.
d. isotope.
ANS: A
39. Which of the following can neutralize H+?
a. Ca2+

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3
b. Na+
c. OH–
d. H2O
ANS: C
40. Which of the following is incorrect?
a. Mixtures: suspension, colloidal suspension, solution
b. Ions: Na+, Cl–, Ca2+, K+
c. Electrolytes: NaCl, KCl, CaCl2, HCO –
d. Cations: Na+, Ca2+, K+, H+
ANS: C
41. The ionization of salt (NaCl)
a. produces an acid and a base.
b. produces an electrolyte.
c. lowers pH.
d. produces a cation and an anion.
ANS: D
42. Which of the following is true of iodine and radioactive iodine?
a. Both have the same atomic numbers.
b. Both have the same atomic masses.
c. Neither has electrons in its orbit.
d. Both create radiation hazards.
ANS: A
43. Which of the following is true of Na+?
a. Called the sodium ion
b. Has fewer protons than electrons
c. Called an anion
d. Lowers pH
ANS: A
44. Which of the following is true of Cl–?
a. Is an electrolyte
b. Is an anion
c. Increases pH
d. Decreases pH
ANS: B
45. Which of the following is most descriptive of HCl?
a. Is called bicarbonate
b. Is an acid
c. Raises pH
d. Dissociates into Na+ and Cl–
ANS: B

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46. Water is a(n)
a. molecule.
b. aqueous solvent.
c. compound.
d. All of the above.
ANS: D
47. An atom that has 3 protons, 4 neutrons, and 3 electrons
a. has an atomic mass of 7.
b. is a cation.
c. has an atomic number of 4.
d. has an atomic number of 10.
ANS: A
48. An atom has 3 protons, 4 neutrons, and 3 electrons; another atom has 3 protons, 3 neutrons,
and 3 electrons. Which of the following is most descriptive of this pair of atoms?
a. Mixture
b. Cation
c. Electrolyte
d. Isotope
ANS: D
49. An atom has 4 protons, 4 neutrons, and 4 electrons. It
a. has an atomic number of 8.
b. is a cation.
c. has an atomic mass of 12.
d. has an atomic mass of 8.
ANS: D
50. ATP
a. is a buffer, removing H+ from solution.
b. is an energy transfer molecule.
c. is a radioactive isotope of phosphate.
d. ionizes to H+, thereby lowering pH.
ANS: B
51. Which of the following is most descriptive of the nucleus of the atom?
a. Contents determine the atomic number
b. Contents determine the atomic mass
c. “Home” of the protons
d. All of the above
ANS: D
52. Which of the following is most descriptive of ionic and covalent?
a. Types of bonding in which the electrons are shared
b. Types of bonding in which the electrons are swapped

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c. Types of bonding
d. Types of bonding found only in reactions in which H+ is produced
ANS: C
53. An electrolyte
a. dissociates into ions.
b. yields only cations.
c. always yields H+ and lowers pH.
d. always removes H+ and increases pH.
ANS: A
54. A catalyst
a. is an H+-yielding molecule.
b. is an acid.
c. is an alkali.
d. increases the speed of a chemical reaction.
ANS: D
55. Which of the following is most descriptive of the function of an enzyme?
a. Neutralization
b. Ionization
c. Catalyst
d. pH
ANS: C
56. A patient with a blood pH of 7.28
a. has an excess of H+.
b. has a blood pH that is within normal limits.
c. is alkalotic.
d. has a blood pH that indicates a deficiency of acid.
ANS: A
57. A solution with a pH of 8
a. is more acidic than blood.
b. is more acidic than stomach contents.
c. has more H+ than urine.
d. is more alkaline than blood.
ANS: D
58. The pH of urine
a. is always more alkaline than blood.
b. is always acidic.
c. can be acidic or alkaline.
d. is more acidic than stomach contents.
ANS: C

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59. The addition of H+ to blood
a. increases blood pH.
b. makes the blood more acidic.
c. makes the blood more alkaline.
d. changes the blood pH from 7.4 to 7.8.
ANS: B
60. Blood is called a colloidal suspension because
a. it has a pH of 7.4.
b. it is alkaline.
c. it consists of the suspended plasma proteins.
d. it consists of the sodium and chloride ions.
ANS: C
61. Which of the following is correct about the following reaction: NaCl  Na+ + Cl–?
a. Neutralization
b. Ionization
c. Anabolic
d. Irreversible
ANS: B
62. An atom of oxygen has an atomic number of 8. Therefore
a. it can share electrons with another identical atom.
b. it can share electrons with another oxygen atom.
c. it can form O2.
d. All of the above are true.
ANS: D
63. An atom of oxygen shares its outer shell electrons with two hydrogen atoms thereby
a. forming an acid.
b. ionizing.
c. forming a molecule of water.
d. forming an anion and cation.
ANS: C
64. A molecule of water has a (+) charge at one and a (–) charge at the other end of the molecule.
What is the best description?
a. Radioactive
b. Tincture
c. Polar molecule
d. Ionization
ANS: C
65. Intestinal secretions are alkaline. What can decrease its pH?
a. The addition of H+ in the form of HCl
b. Drinking baking soda (NaHCO3)

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c. Neutralization of gastric (stomach) HCl
d. Drinking lots of water
ANS: A
66. What do the following have in common: Pb, plumbism, and plumber? All terms refer to
a. persons who work with pipes.
b. toxic effects of a trace element.
c. toxic cations.
d. lead.
ANS: D
67. Which group is correct?
a. Subatomic particles lo+cate+d within– the n+ucleus: protons, neutrons, electrons
b. Common cations: Na , K , HCO , NH
3 4
c. Common molecules: O2, N2, H2O
d. Bases: NaOH, Na HCO3–, HCl
ANS: C
68. Which of the following is most descriptive of a precipitate that forms during a chemical
reaction?
a. Acid
b. Base
c. Solid
d. Solution
ANS: C
69. In the reaction HCl  H+ + Cl–
a. HCl ionizes, thereby yielding the cation (H+) and anion (Cl–).
b. hydrochloric acid dissociates into an anion and cation.
c. HCl dissociates into a hydrogen ion and chloride ion.
d. All of the above are true.
ANS: D
70. Which group is correct?
a. Blood pH 7.50, alkaline, turns litmus paper pink
b. Blood pH 7.2, acidosis, turns litmus paper pink
c. Blood pH 7.35, normal blood pH, turns litmus paper blue
d. More than one of the above are true.
ANS: C

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Chapter 03: Cells
Herlihy: The Human Body in Health and Illness, 7th Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which of the following is considered the control center of the cell?
a. Mitochondrion
b. Nucleus
c. Lysosome
d. Centriole
ANS: B
2. The mitochondrion is called the power plant of the cell because within the
mitochondrion.
a. most of the ATP is produced
b. all protein synthesis occurs
c. all DNA is located
d. all ribosomes are located
ANS: A
3. Which of the following is (are) found on the rough endoplasmic reticulum?
a. Ribosomes
b. Cilia
c. Lysosomes
d. DNA
ANS: A
4. The rough ER is the site of
a. fatty acid and steroid synthesis.
b. Krebs cycle activity.
c. protein synthesis.
d. intracellular water storage.
ANS: C
5. Which of the following is most associated with the ribosome?
a. ATP production
b. Intracellular housecleaning
c. Glycogen storage
d. Protein synthesis
ANS: D
6. What is the transport mechanism in this description: A passive process that “pulls” water from
an area where there is more water to an area where there is less water?
a. Filtration
b. Endocytosis
c. An ATP-driven pump

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d. Osmosis
ANS: D
7. What is the transport mechanism in this description: A passive process that uses a pressure
difference as its driving force?
a. Facilitated diffusion
b. An ATP-driven pump
c. Diffusion
d. Filtration
ANS: D
8. A beaker is divided into two compartments by a semipermeable membrane. Compartment A
contains a 20% NaCl solution and compartment B contains a 50% NaCl solution. The
membrane is permeable to water but not to Na+ or Cl–. Initially,
a. water diffuses from compartment B to compartment A.
b. Na+ diffuses from compartment B to compartment A.
c. Na+ diffuses from compartment A to compartment B.
d. water diffuses from compartment A to compartment B.
ANS: D
9. A beaker is divided into two compartments by a semipermeable membrane. Compartment A
contains a 20% NaCl solution and compartment B contains a 50% NaCl solution. The
membrane is permeable to water but not to Na+ or Cl–. At equilibrium, the
a. volume of water in compartment A will be greater than the volume in compartment
B.
b. volume in both compartments A and B will be equal.
c. concentration of compartment A will decrease.
d. volume in compartment B will be greater than the volume in compartment A.
ANS: D
10. A beaker is divided into two compartments by a semipermeable membrane. Compartment A
contains a 20% NaCl solution while compartment B contains a 50% NaCl solution. The
membrane is permeable to both water and Na+ and Cl–. Initially,
a. Na+ and Cl– diffuse from compartment B to compartment A.
b. water diffuses from compartment B to compartment A.
c. Na+ and Cl– diffuse from compartment A to compartment B.
d. Na+ diffuses from compartment A to compartment B and Cl– diffuses from
compartment B to compartment A.
ANS: A
11. A beaker is divided into two compartments by a semipermeable membrane. Compartment A
contains a 20% NaCl solution and compartment B contains a 50% NaCl solution. The
membrane is permeable to both water and Na+ and Cl–. At equilibrium, the
a. volume in compartment A will be greater than the volume in compartment B.
b. volume in compartment B will be greater than the volume in compartment A.
c. concentrations and volumes will be the same in both compartments.
d. concentration of salt is greater in compartment A than in compartment B.

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ANS: C
12. What are the hairlike structures located on the outer surface of the cell membrane?
a. Mitochondria
b. Ribosomes
c. Cilia
d. Centrioles
ANS: C
13. What is the extensive internal membrane system that forms channels and is concerned with
the synthesis of protein and steroids?
a. Mitochondria
b. Lysosomes
c. Endoplasmic reticulum
d. DNA
ANS: C
14. Lysosomes are filled with
a. powerful enzymes that destroy cellular debris and pathogens.
b. cilia.
c. DNA.
d. blood.
ANS: A
15. Which of the following best describes the power or driving force for active transport?
a. ATP
b. Pressure
c. DNA
d. H+
ANS: A
16. What is the transport mechanism in this description: A passive process that uses a carrier
molecule to move a solute from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration?
a. Osmosis
b. An ATP-driven pump
c. Filtration
d. Facilitated diffusion
ANS: D
17. What is the name of the process in which an intracellular protein–containing vesicle fuses
with the cell membrane and expels the protein to the outside of the cell?
a. Endocytosis
b. Pinocytosis
c. Exocytosis
d. Phagocytosis
ANS: C

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18. Which process describes phagocytosis and pinocytosis?
a. Facilitated diffusion
b. Endocytosis
c. Filtration
d. Exocytosis
ANS: B
19. Which word means “the bursting of red blood cells”?
a. Endocytosis
b. Hemolysis
c. Crenation
d. Catalyst
ANS: B
20. If a cell is placed in a hypotonic solution such as water, the cell will
a. crenate.
b. shrink.
c. swell and burst.
d. differentiate.
ANS: C
21. Which type of solution causes crenation or shrinkage of submerged red blood cells?
a. Hypotonic
b. Isotonic
c. Hypertonic
d. Water
ANS: C
22. Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase are phases of
a. active transport.
b. mitosis.
c. differentiation.
d. pinocytosis.
ANS: B
23. G1, G2, the S phase, and the M phase are phases of
a. the cell cycle.
b. mitosis.
c. protein synthesis.
d. the cell cycle that is specific to cancer cells.
ANS: A
24. Pinocytosis
a. is a passive process.
b. requires a pressure gradient as its driving force.
c. refers to cellular drinking.

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d. is a form of exocytosis.
ANS: C
25. Which of the following best describes normal saline?
a. Radioactive
b. Hemolytic to red blood cells
c. Isotonic
d. Crenating to red blood cells
ANS: C
26. Which of the following best describes the eating of a bacterium by a lysosome?
a. Differentiation
b. Phagocytosis
c. Meiosis
d. Hemolysis
ANS: B
27. In which structure is most DNA found?
a. Nucleus
b. Mitochondrion
c. Lysosome
d. Golgi apparatus
ANS: A
28. Which structure is is described as rough or smooth?
a. Ribosome
b. Mitochondrion
c. Cilia
d. Endoplasmic reticulum
ANS: D
29. Which of the following is a gel-like substance located inside the cell but outside the nucleus?
a. Nucleoplasm
b. Isotonic saline
c. Cytoplasm
d. Lysosomal enzymes
ANS: C
30. Which of the following most accurately describes diffusion?
a. ATP-driven
b. Passive transport
c. Requires a pressure or pushing force
d. Causes solute to move uphill
ANS: B
31. The skunk makes his presence known by

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a. filtration.
b. osmosis.
c. active transport.
d. diffusion.
ANS: D
32. Oxygen moves from the lungs (high concentration) into the blood (low concentration) in
response to
a. filtration.
b. osmosis.
c. diffusion.
d. endocytosis.
ANS: C
33. Which process describes the pushing of water across the capillary (blood vessel) membrane?
a. Facilitated diffusion
b. Osmosis
c. Filtration
d. Pinocytosis
ANS: C
34. Which structure puts the finishing touches on and packages the protein for export from the
cell?
a. Mitochondrion
b. Golgi apparatus
c. Lysosome
d. Nucleolus
ANS: B
35. Which of the following structures make the rough endoplasmic reticulum look like
sandpaper?
a. Ribosomes
b. Globs of cytoplasm
c. ATP
d. Fragments of DNA
ANS: A
36. Which structure is described as a semipermeable lipid bilayer?
a. Lysosome
b. Mitochondrion
c. Ribosome
d. Cell membrane
ANS: D
37. The selectively permeable membrane
a. is a result of its composition; it is tough connective tissue, much like a ligament.
b. determines which substances enter and leave the cell.

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c. allows for the unrestricted movement of water and electrolytes across the cell
membrane.
d. permits diffusion but not osmosis.
ANS: B
38. Which of the following is least true of mitochondria?
a. Found only within liver cells
b. Make most of the body’s ATP
c. Contain enzymes that function aerobically
d. Located within the cytoplasm
ANS: A
39. Which of the following is a correct statement?
a. Most ATP is produced in the mitochondria.
b. Mitochondria contain potent enzymes that digest cellular waste and debris.
c. Most DNA is located within the mitochondria.
d. The RER is concerned with phagocytosis.
ANS: A
40. A beaker contains two compartments. Compartment A (CA) contains a 10% salt solution and
Compartment B (CB) contains a 20% salt solution. The membrane is permeable to the salt and
water. At equilibrium,
a. the volume in CA is greater than the volume in CB.
b. the volume in CA is less than the volume in CB.
c. the volume is the same in both compartments.
d. all water accumulates in CB.
ANS: C
41. A beaker contains two compartments. Compartment A (CA) contains a 10% salt solution and
Compartment B (CB) contains a 20% salt solution. The membrane is permeable only to water.
At equilibrium, the volume in
a. CA is greater than the volume in CB.
b. CA is less than the volume in CB.
c. CB is less than the volume in CA.
d. CA is the same as the volume in CB.
ANS: B
42. Most K+ is located in the cells, with little K+ in the tissue spaces. What accounts for the
movement of additional K+ into the cells?
a. K+ in the tissue fluid diffuses into the cell.
b. K+ enters the cell in response to facilitated diffusion.
c. K+ is actively pumped into the cell.
d. K+ enters the cell because of pinocytosis.
ANS: C
43. A child has experienced a blow to the head causing a slow bleed. Although the bleeding has
stopped, the blood clot continues to expand because

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