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1. Central to the study of geography are the questions _____ and _____.
A) who; when
B) why; how
C) where; why
D) how many; when
2. Which factor is NOT an aspect of geographical analysis?
A) spatial analysis
B) multiple scales of analysis
C) cartography
D) lithography
3. Geography as a discipline links the _____ with the _____.
A) city; state
B) physical sciences; social sciences
C) study of biology; study of sociology
D) people; government
4. Which statement is NOT an example of a geographic inquiry?
A) How did a group of people come to occupy a particular place?
B) How have people modified the physical aspects of a place to suit their needs?
C) How have people contributed to a particular environmental problem?
D) All of the above are examples of geographical inquiry.
5. Which term refers to the relationship between the distances shown on the map and the
actual distances on Earth's surface?
A) scale
B) spatial analysis
C) cartography
D) regional geography
6. The prime meridian runs from the North Pole to the South Pole through:
A) New York City, USA.
B) Berlin, Germany.
C) London, England.
D) Greenwich, England.

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7. Through which ocean does the longitude line at 180° run?
A) Atlantic
B) Pacific
C) Indian
D) Arctic
8. The globe is divided into the Northern and Southern Hemispheres at the:
A) International Date Line.
B) equator.
C) Tropic of Cancer.
D) Tropic of Capricorn.
9. Cartographers solve the problem of showing the spherical Earth on a flat piece of paper
by using:
A) lines of latitude.
B) projections.
C) globes instead of flat maps.
D) degrees, minutes, and seconds.
10. To fit the spherical Earth onto a flat map, a Mercator projection:
A) flattens the Earth like an orange peel.
B) shows lines of longitude curving up toward the poles.
C) stretches out the poles, depicting them with lines equal to the length of the equator.
D) perfectly represents the shapes of landmasses.
11. Which statement does NOT accurately describe GISc?
A) GISc is so highly specialized it's often criticized for having limited applicability to
other disciplines.
B) GISc has been adopted as a tool by both corporations and government entities.
C) GISc refers to the body of science that supports spatial analysis technologies and
tools such as GIS (geographic information systems).
D) GISc raise serious ethical questions about the rights, storage, analysis, and
distribution of data.
12. The study of how people, objects, or ideas are related to one another across space is
called _____.
13. The making of maps is called _____.

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14. Lines of longitude are also known as _____.
15. Lines of longitude are also known as _____.
16. The calendar day officially begins when midnight falls at the _____.
17. The different ways of modeling the spherical shape of the Earth on flat paper are called
_____.
18. Spatial analysis is the art and science of making maps.
A) True
B) False
19. A map is by definition an unbiased view of the world.
A) True
B) False
20. When using the phrase “scale of analysis,” geographers are always referring to the
relative size of an area.
A) True
B) False
21. Lines of longitude on a map run from pole to pole.
A) True
B) False
22. Lines of longitude (also called meridians) run from pole to pole; lines of latitude (also
called parallels) run parallel to the equator.
A) True
B) False
23. All projections entail some distortion.
A) True
B) False

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24. In a Robinson projection, the shapes of landmasses are slightly distorted.
A) True
B) False
25. Draw a map of your most familiar childhood landscape. Recall the objects and
experiences that were most important to you there. After completing the map, write an
essay that discusses how your map reveals the ways in which your life was structured by
space. Include in your discussion: (1) the scale of analysis of your map and what this
indicates about your life in this place, and (2) how you conducted spatial analysis in
making this map.
26. Explain the difference between the terms map scale and scale of analysis.
27. In defining a region, geographers might do NOT into account:
A) political boundaries.
B) physical characteristics.
C) cultural characteristics.
D) literary history.
28. What concept is used to identify an area of Earth's surface that contains distinct patterns
of human or physical activity or features?
29. In the textbook, the argument is made that the boundaries between regions are rarely, if
ever, distinct and certain.
A) True
B) False
30. Most world regions are defined by the same set of indicators.
A) True
B) False
31. Most regions, as defined by geographers, have well-defined boundaries.
A) True
B) False

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32. Geographers like to use “region” as a conceptual model because it offers a reasonable
way to divide the world into manageable parts.
A) True
B) False
33. Briefly define region and discuss one problem posed by the use of the concept.
34. The Pangaea hypothesis proposes that:
A) the early indigenous Pangaea people of the North American continent once ruled
the world.
B) life originated on the moon (then called Pangaea) and was brought to Earth on
particles during a meteor shower.
C) all continents were once joined in a single content called Pangaea.
D) Earth was originally covered with the Pangaea Ocean before the continents rose out
of the water.
35. Most scientists believe that Earth's continents have been assembled into
supercontinents:
A) once.
B) twice.
C) a number of times.
D) never.
36. Which premise BEST supports the theory of plate tectonics?
A) Earth's surface is made up of large plates that float on molten rock.
B) Large plates formed when meteors struck Earth 65 million years ago.
C) Present-day plates resulted from the erosion of the supercontinent Pangaea.
D) The land surface of Earth is rooted on large oceanic plates.
37. According to the theory of plate tectonics, continental drift is caused by:
A) climate change in the upper atmosphere.
B) molten rock flowing from hot regions deep inside Earth to cooler surface regions
and back.
C) the smashing together of oceanic plates.
D) the collision of an oceanic plate with a continental plate.

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38. The center of Pangaea is thought to have been modern-day:
A) Africa.
B) North America.
C) South America.
D) Australia.
39. Mountain ranges are formed when:
A) volcanoes erupt.
B) an oceanic plate collides with a continental plate.
C) two continental plates collide.
D) limestone deposits gradually build up over millennia.
40. When plates slip past each other, the result is a(n):
A) volcano eruption.
B) earthquake.
C) mountain.
D) lake.
41. What feature on the physical landscape CANNOT be explained by the theory of plate
tectonics?
A) the Pacific Ring of Fire
B) Mount Pinatubo (volcano)
C) Pangaea
D) the Mississippi River delta
42. Through which landscape process is rock broken down into smaller pieces?
A) mass wasting
B) deposition
C) weathering
D) erosion
43. The term deposition can refer to which process?
A) the settling out of soil particles as wind or water action slows
B) the breakup of rocks into smaller pieces
C) the movement of loose rock and soil by the force of wind and moving water
D) the movement of loose rock and soil down a slope due to gravity

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44. As climate is defined in the textbook, which factor reflects a climatic change?
A) the rise of the sun each morning
B) the formation of a warm front
C) the movement of a hurricane
D) the melting of glaciers during the Ice Age
45. _____ refers to short-term changes in temperature and other factors, while _____ is a
long-term balance of temperature and precipitation.
A) Climate; weather
B) Weather; climate
C) Meteorology; weather
D) Global warming; climate change
46. The highest average temperatures on Earth fall within a band 30° north and south of the:
A) prime meridian.
B) Tropic of Capricorn.
C) Tropic of Cancer.
D) equator.
47. As one moves away from the equator, average temperatures drop because:
A) the sunlight strikes Earth's surface at an angle and is therefore less intense.
B) greenhouse gases are concentrated at the equator and become less prevalent the
farther one moves away from it.
C) the jet stream provides cooler air currents farther away from the equator.
D) the El Niño effect does not affect equatorial regions.
48. The Koppen classification system divides the world into climate regions labeled:
A) A, B, C, D, E.
B) I, II, III, IV, V.
C) i, ii, iii, iv, v.
D) q, v, x, y, z.
49. Wind is created by:
A) continental plates brushing alongside oceanic plates.
B) the changeover from high ocean tides to low ocean tides.
C) air moving from areas of higher pressure to areas of lower pressure.
D) the evaporation of water from trees and plants.

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50. Suppose you are on the beach at night, and you experience a breeze blowing from the
land out to the ocean. This breeze is caused by:
A) carbon dioxide being pushed out of human dwellings at night.
B) excess nitrogen in the air.
C) evaporated water seeking a place to condense back into liquid water.
D) air flowing from the cooling land onto the relatively warmer water.
51. Warm, moist air rises and becomes less able to hold its moisture as it reaches higher
altitudes. The result is:
A) global warming.
B) precipitation.
C) evaporation.
D) a cooler temperature on Earth.
52. Given the differential heating and cooling rates of land and water, which land area is
more likely to experience the MOST extreme change in temperature and air pressure
over a year?
A) the interior of a vast landmass
B) a small island
C) a long, narrow peninsula
D) a wide river delta
53. What term describes rainfall caused by the interaction of large air masses of different
temperatures and densities?
A) orographic precipitation
B) shadow precipitation
C) convergence precipitation
D) frontal precipitation
54. In what subdiscipline of geography do researchers study landforms?
55. According to Alfred Wegener's hypothesis, all the continents were once joined in a
single landmass called _____.
56. What theory posits that Earth's surface is composed of large plates that float on a layer
of molten rock?
57. When plates collide and one slips under the other, the process is known as _____.

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58. Another name for molten rock is _____.
59. Through what landscape process do forces of wind and water move pieces of rock and
soil?
60. What landform is created where rivers meet the sea?
61. What are the two variables by which climates are usually classified?
62. How does air density change when the air temperature cools?
63. What does a breeze blowing from the sea onto land indicate about the air temperature
over the water compared with that over the land?
64. What type of rainfall results when air is forced to rise over mountains?
65. The drier side of a mountain range is said to be in the _____.
66. Massive, sometimes catastrophic, rainfalls are called _____.
67. Physical geography is the study of various aspects of human life that create the
distinctive landscapes and regions of the world.
A) True
B) False
68. The work of geographers is similar to other scientists except that they tend to look at
problems spatially.
A) True
B) False

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69. Changes that occur on Earth's surface happen more rapidly than changes occurring
beneath Earth's surface.
A) True
B) False
70. Oceanic plates are thicker and less dense than continental plates.
A) True
B) False
71. The processes of plate tectonics are external processes that form landscapes, whereas
the processes of weathering and erosion are internal processes that further shape
landforms and landscapes.
A) True
B) False
72. Human activity such as agriculture, forestry, and damming rivers can contribute to
external landscape processes.
A) True
B) False
73. The last major global climate change took place about 15,000 years ago, when the
glaciers of the last ice age began to melt.
A) True
B) False
74. The sharp boundaries shown on climate maps point to the sharp differences in climate as
one moves gradually from west to east, or north to south.
A) True
B) False
75. In warm air, the gas molecules are relatively dense and are associated with high air
pressure.
A) True
B) False
76. Low air pressure is associated with warm air temperatures.
A) True
B) False

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77. Continents heat up and cool off much more rapidly than the oceans that surround them.
A) True
B) False
78. Cool air holds much more moisture than warm air.
A) True
B) False
79. The climate of an area in a rain shadow is dry.
A) True
B) False
80. The monsoon is an example of dry arctic air being blown by currents into otherwise
moist regions.
A) True
B) False
81. With reference to the processes by which they were built, explain why many of the
world's mountain ranges are linear in form.
82. Discuss the differences between external processes and internal processes by providing
one detailed example of each in terms of the formation of a particular landscape feature.
83. The rising levels of greenhouse gases (e.g., carbon dioxide) in the atmosphere are
attributable to:
A) subsistence agricultural practices.
B) increasing rate of seawater evaporation.
C) large-scale burning of fossil fuels.
D) global reforestation efforts.

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84. Which statement accords with the theory of global warming?
A) Deforestation reduces the release of carbon dioxide, causing more atmospheric
combustion.
B) The burning of fossil fuels decreases levels of carbon dioxide, preventing natural
ionic cooling.
C) The sun is burning hotter and has increased rates of evaporation, and thus has a
reduced rate of global daily cooling.
D) Levels of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere are increasing and trapping the sun's
heat.
85. Greenhouse gases do NOT include:
A) sodium chloride.
B) carbon dioxide.
C) water vapor.
D) methane.
86. The loss of trees and forest organisms to deforestation accounts for as much as _____
percent of the world's CO2.
A) 10
B) 30
C) 50
D) 75
87. Which activity does NOT contribute to increased levels of greenhouse gas emissions?
A) electricity generation
B) photosynthesis
C) large-scale raising of pasture animals
D) automotive vehicles
88. A likely result of polar ice caps melting is:
A) increased wildlife at the North and South Poles.
B) increased lake and stream size on the continents.
C) increased marine life closer to the equator.
D) a higher sea level.
89. Possible results of global warming do NOT include:
A) multinational corporations abruptly pulling out of developing nations.
B) the disappearance of animal and plant species.
C) more chaotic and severe weather.
D) human populations displaced from coastal areas and low-lying islands.

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90. Which factor does NOT impact a place's vulnerability to climate change?
A) size
B) resilience
C) sensitivity
D) exposure
91. The only developed country that did NOT sign the Kyoto Protocol was:
A) Japan.
B) China.
C) Russia.
D) the United States.
92. Water scarcity is NOT the result of:
A) population growth.
B) increased per capita demand for water due to modernization.
C) inequitable allocation of water.
D) sustainable farming initiatives.
93. How much water does the average human require daily to meet basic domestic needs?
A) 10–15 liters
B) 20–50 liters
C) 50–75 liters
D) 75–100 liters
94. Which factor is NOT a direct or indirect component of the calculation of virtual water?
A) evaporation in growing fields
B) agricultural and industrial technology
C) water pollution that occurs in the production process
D) water used in cooking and other domestic activities
95. In which of the countries listed below is the amount highest of virtual water required to
produce one ton of corn?
A) United States
B) India
C) Mexico
D) the Netherlands

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96. Water is now the third most valuable commodity in the world, after:
A) oil and electricity.
B) diamonds and gold.
C) corn and wheat.
D) exchange rates and crop yields.
97. What fraction of the world's population does NOT have access to clean water?
A) 1/8
B) 1/6
C) 1/4
D) 1/3
98. The MOST common way for shantytown dwellers across the globe to get water is
through:
A) a household faucet.
B) streams running on the outskirts of the city.
C) a communal spigot.
D) purified water sent in by global relief agencies.
99. The development of food production has undergone a series of changes, starting with
hunting and gathering; moving through labor-intensive, small-scale agriculture; and
moving on to _____ and organic farming in the present day.
A) large-scale commercial agriculture
B) family farms
C) a stronger emphasis on meat and animal husbandry
D) crop rotation
100. The 2007 spike in world corn prices was brought about by:
A) a switch from corn production to wheat production.
B) the increase in global prices of oil.
C) speculation in alternative energy sources.
D) decreased demand for corn as a food staple.
101. Food security would NOT be diminished by:
A) the price of other resources, such as oil.
B) improved methods of sustainable agriculture.
C) economic disruptions.
D) overproduction in rich countries.

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102. Which factor is NOT a characteristic of the green revolution?
A) genetically engineered seeds
B) large, sophisticated farming machinery
C) an emphasis on organic farming
D) large tracts of land
103. Reasons for concern regarding the use of GM crops do NOT include that:
A) GM crops could cause catastrophic crop failure.
B) GM seeds are much more expensive than traditional seed.
C) GM crops could cause unintended environmental degradation.
D) GM seeds are widely used in Europe.
104. The current geologic epoch in which humans have significantly altered the biosphere is
called the _____.
105. The shifting of climate patterns due to the warming or cooling of Earth's atmosphere is
known as _____.
106. What theory holds that increasing levels of carbon dioxide and other gases in the
atmosphere are gradually trapping more heat from the sun?
107. Name two widespread human practices cited in the textbook that are major contributors
to the rising levels of so-called greenhouse gases in the atmosphere.
108. Those most responsible for climate change are the least _____ to the impacts of climate
change.
109. The largest producers of greenhouse gases tend to be _____ countries.
110. The 1992 agreement that called for scheduled reductions in CO2 by the highly
industrialized nations of North America, Europe, East Asia, and Oceania was the _____.
111. The total amount of water that a person uses in a year, directly or indirectly, is called the
_____.

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World Regional Geography Without Subregions: Global Patterns, Local Lives Seventh Edition Test Bank

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