CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Jason Dion NET+ 008 Practice Exam #1
This flashcard set from the CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Jason Dion Practice Exam covers subnetting and CIDR notation. It shows that a /25 subnet provides 128 IP addresses, enough to support 105 VDI clients plus network and broadcast addresses.
** Dion Training is adding a new screen Subnet that will host a large number of VDIs and wants to assign them a small portion of their public Class C IPv4 address space. Dion Training has been assigned a Class C scope of 187.15.3.0/24. There will be a total of 105 VDI clients that will each need an IP address assigned. What is the correct CIDR notation for the new Subnet in order to accommodate the 105 VDI clients while allocating the minimum number of addresses?
/27
/28
/25
/26
/25
Explanation:
To answer this question you must perform basic Subnetting Calculation (Or, remember your /CIDR to Hosts numbers.
105 Clients are needed in this Scenario, but you’ll also need an address for the Network and the Broadcast too.
This means you need 107 IP Addresses Total.
IP Addresses are assigned in multiples of 2.
1, 2, 4, 8, 16, 32, 64, 128, 256.
To symbolize a CIDR block with 128 IP Addresses, we would use 2 to the 7th which equals 128 or /25.
Key Terms
** Dion Training is adding a new screen Subnet that will host a large number of VDIs and wants to assign them a small portion of their public Class C IPv4 address space. Dion Training has been assigned a Class C scope of 187.15.3.0/24. There will be a total of 105 VDI clients that will each need an IP address assigned. What is the correct CIDR notation for the new Subnet in order to accommodate the 105 VDI clients while allocating the minimum number of addresses?
/27
/28
/25
/26
/25
Explanation:
To answer this question you must perform basic Subnetting Calculati...
** Which of the following is a Security concern with using a Cloud Service Provider and could result in a data breach casued by data remnants?
On-Demand
Rapid Elasticity
Resouce Pooling
Metered Services
Rapid Elasticity
Explanation:
Rapid Elasticity can be a security threat to your org’...
** Which of the following describes the ID of a specific native VLAN when traffic passes over a Trunk?
It becomes the priority ID for all the VLAN traffic accross the device.
It becomes the gateway of the last resort for the Switch or Router.
It becomes the default gateway for the port or ports.
It becomes the default VLAN for untagged frames.
It becomes the default VLAN for untagged frames.
Explanation:
Trunk ports carry all ...
** A network technician wants to centrally manage the switches and segment the switches into separate broadcast domains. The Dion Training network is currently using VLAN 1 for all of its devices and uses a single private IP address range with a 24-bit mask. Their supervisor wants VLAN 100 to be the management subnet and all of the switches must share VLAN information. Which of the following should the technician configure to meet these requirements? (Choose Two)
Configure VTP and 802.1x on all inter-Swtich connections with Native VLAN 100
Configure VTP and 802.1q on the inter-Switch connections with Native VLAN 100
Configure STP and 802.1q on the inter-Switch connections with Native VLAN 100
Configure STP and 802.1w on the inter-Switch connections with Native VLAN 100
Configure VLSM for the IP Address range.
Configure VTP and 802.1q on the inter-Switch connections with Native VLAN 100
Configure VLSM for the IP Address range...
** A company has just installed a VoIP system on its Network. Before the installation, all of the Switches were placed with Layer 3 Multilayer Switches to allow for the VoIP devices to be placed on separate VLANs and have the packets routed accurately between them. What type of Network segmentation technique is this an example of?
Separate Public/Private Networking
Compliance Enforcement
Honeynet Implementation
Performance Optimization
Performance Optimization
Explanation:
Performance Optimization can help a business i...
** What is the Network ID associated with the Host located at 205.12.35.26/27?
805. 12.35.48
806. 12.35.16
807. 12.35.0
808. 12.35.32
205.12.35.0
Explanation:
In Classless Subnets, using v...
Related Flashcard Decks
Study Tips
- Press F to enter focus mode for distraction-free studying
- Review cards regularly to improve retention
- Try to recall the answer before flipping the card
- Share this deck with friends to study together
| Term | Definition |
|---|---|
** Dion Training is adding a new screen Subnet that will host a large number of VDIs and wants to assign them a small portion of their public Class C IPv4 address space. Dion Training has been assigned a Class C scope of 187.15.3.0/24. There will be a total of 105 VDI clients that will each need an IP address assigned. What is the correct CIDR notation for the new Subnet in order to accommodate the 105 VDI clients while allocating the minimum number of addresses? /27 | /25 Explanation: IP Addresses are assigned in multiples of 2. To symbolize a CIDR block with 128 IP Addresses, we would use 2 to the 7th which equals 128 or /25. |
** Which of the following is a Security concern with using a Cloud Service Provider and could result in a data breach casued by data remnants? On-Demand | Rapid Elasticity Explanation: Metered Services are Pre-Paid, A-La-Carte, Pay-Per-Use, or committed offerings. Resource Pooling refers to the concept that allows a virtual environment to allocate memory and processing capacity for a VMs use. On-Demand refers to the fact that a consume can unilaterally provision computing capabilities, such as server time and network storage, as needed automatically without requiring human interaction with each service provider. |
** Which of the following describes the ID of a specific native VLAN when traffic passes over a Trunk? It becomes the priority ID for all the VLAN traffic accross the device. | It becomes the default VLAN for untagged frames. Explanation: |
** A network technician wants to centrally manage the switches and segment the switches into separate broadcast domains. The Dion Training network is currently using VLAN 1 for all of its devices and uses a single private IP address range with a 24-bit mask. Their supervisor wants VLAN 100 to be the management subnet and all of the switches must share VLAN information. Which of the following should the technician configure to meet these requirements? (Choose Two) Configure VTP and 802.1x on all inter-Swtich connections with Native VLAN 100 | Configure VTP and 802.1q on the inter-Switch connections with Native VLAN 100 Explanation: VLSM stands for Variable Length Subnet Mask where the subnet design uses more than one mask in the same network which means more than one mask is used for different subnets of a single class A, B, or C network. Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) is a network protocol that builds a loop-free logical topology for Ethernet networks to prevent bridge loops and the broadcast storms that result from them. STP is defined in the IEEE 802.1d standard and Rapid Reconfiguration of Spanning Tree is defined in the IEEE 802.1w standard. The IEEE 802.1x standard is a network authentication protocol that opens ports for network access when an organization authenticates a user’s identity and authorizes them for access to the network. This defines port security. The user’s identity is determined based on their credentials or certificate, which is confirmed by the RADIUS server. |
** A company has just installed a VoIP system on its Network. Before the installation, all of the Switches were placed with Layer 3 Multilayer Switches to allow for the VoIP devices to be placed on separate VLANs and have the packets routed accurately between them. What type of Network segmentation technique is this an example of? Separate Public/Private Networking | Performance Optimization Explanation: Compliance Enforcement involves dividing up one Network into smaller sections to better control the flow of traffic across the Network and to restrict confidential data to a specific Network segment based on a specific regulation or contractual requirement, such as PCI DSS segmentation requirements. Honeynet is an intentionally vulnerable Network segment that is used to observe and investigate the attack techniques of a hacker or adversary. Separate Public/Private Networking involves segmenting the Network into two portions, public and private. This is often used in cloud architectures to protect private data. |
** What is the Network ID associated with the Host located at 205.12.35.26/27? 805. 12.35.48 806. 12.35.16 807. 12.35.0 808. 12.35.32 | 205.12.35.0 Explanation: In Classless Subnets, using variable length Subnet Mask (VLSM), the Network ID is the first IP address associated within an assigned range. In this example, the CIDR Notation is /27, so each Subnet will contain 32 IP Addresses. This means that there are eight Networks in this Class C Range - 805. 12.35.0 806. 12.35.32 807. 12.35.64 808. 12.35.96 809. 12.35.128 810. 12.35.160 811. 12.35.192 812. 12.35.224 Since the IP address provided is 205.12.35.26, it will be in the 205.12.35.0/27 Network. |
** A Network admin has determined that the ingress an egress traffic of a Router’s interface are not corectly reported to the monitoring Server. Which of the following can be used to determine if the Router interface uses 64 bit VS 32 bit counters? Port Scanner | SNMP Walk Explanation: |
** You have recently been hired as a security analyst at Dion Training. On your First Day, your supervisor begins to explain the way their Network is configured, showing you the phyiscal and logical placement of each Firewall, IDS sensor, Host-Based IPS installations, the Networked Spam Filter, and the DMZ. What best describes how these various devices are placed into the Network for the highest level of security? UTM | Defense in Depth Explanation: |
** Jason wants to use his personal cell phone for Work-Related Purposes. Because of his position, Jason has access to sensitive company data, which might be stored on his cell phone during its usage. The company is concerned about this but believes that it might be acceptable with the proper security controls in place. Which of the following should be done to protect both the company and Jason if they allow him to use his personal cell phone for work-related purposes? Establish consent to monitoring policy so that the company can audit Jason’s cell phone usage. | Conduct Real-Time monitoring of the phone’s activity and usage. Explanation: |
** Which of the following provides a standard nomenclature for describing Security related software flaws? VPC | CVE Explanation: SIEM is a solution that provides a Real-Time or near-real-time analysis of Security alerts generated by Network hardware and applications. VPC is a private Network segment made available to a single cloud consume on a public cloud. Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX) dictates requirements for storing and retaining documents relating to an organizations financial and business operations, including the type of ducments stored and their retention periods. |
** What is considered a Classless Routing Protocol? STP | OSPF Explanation: Other Classless Routing Protocols include:
RIPv1 & IGRP (Interior Gateway Routing Protocol) are NOT Classless. STP (Spanning Tree Protocol) is NOT a Routing Protocol, this is used to prevent Swtiching Loops in Bridges and Switches. |
** Which encryption type MOST likely is used for securing the key exchange during a Client-to-Server VPN connection? Kerberos | ISAKMP Explanation: TKIP (Temporal Key Integrity Protocol) is an encryption protocol included as part of the IEEE 802.11i standard for Wireless LANs (WLAN). Kerberos is a computer Network Authentication protocol that works based on Tickets to allow Nodes communicating over a non-secure Network to prove their identiy to one another in a secure manner. AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) is a symmetric Key Encryption and is not used for Key Exchanges. |
Dial-Up | T-1 Explanation: Dial-Up, DSL, and Cable Broadband do NOT provide a guaranteed throughput rate. Instead, these services provide a variable throughput rate based on Network conditions and demand in the area of your business. |
RG-6 | Rollover Explanation: RG-6 cable is a Coaxial Cable used to connect to a cable Modem or Television. Ethernet Crossover Cable is a Network Cable used to connect two Ethernet Network devices directly. Straight-Through is a type of twisted pair cable that is used in LAN to connect a computer to a Network Switch. |
ARP inspection | Spanning Tree Explanation: STP (Spanning Tree Protocol) is a Network Protocol that builds a logical loop-free Topology for Ethernet Networks. The basic function of STP is to prevent bridge loops and the broadcast radiation that results from them. If you have REDUNDANT links set up, it is important to utilize STP to prevent loops within the Network. If a loop occurs, the performance of the entire Network can be degraded due to Broadcast Storms. Port Mirroing is used on a Network Switch to send a copy of Network packets seen on one Switch port to a Networking monitoring connection on another Switch port. ARP Inspection or Dynamic ARP Inspection (DAI) is a security feature that validates Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) packets in a Network. DAI allows a Network admin to intercept, log, and discard ARP packets with invalid MAC address to IP Address bindings. VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) is any Broadcast Domain that is partitioned and isolated in a computer Network at the Data Link Layer (OSI Layer 2). Port Mirroring, ARP Inspection, and VLANs do NOT add any REDUNDANCY to the Network. |
Conduct a Baseline Review | Conduct a Baseline Review Explanation: John should conduct a Baseline Review to compare the statistics he collected against the previous baseline. He can then use this information further to investigate the drop in the Server’s performance. A Baseline is a process for styding the Network at regular intervals to ensure that the Network is working as designed. |
Install a Hub in the second-floor Networking closet to increase the Signal. | Install a Switch in the second-floor Networking closet to increase the Signal. Explanation: A Hub would similarly work but would introduce a signal collision domain for all 24 computers. This would drastically decrease the perfomance of the Network. We wouldn’t want to introduce a Switch in each office, as this is a bad security practice and an inefficient use of resources. Easier to manage and administer a single, centralized Switch in the Network Closet. |
MPLS | VTP Explanation: STP (Spanning Tree Protocol) is a Layer 2 protocol that runs on Bridges and Switches to ensure that you do not create loops when you have redundant paths in your Network. MPLS (MultiProtocol Label Switching) is a routing technique in telecommunications Networks that directs data from one node to the next based on short path labels rather than long Network Addresses, thus avoiding complex lookups in a Routing Table and speeding traffic flows. PPTP (Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol) is an obsolete method for implenting Virtual Private Networks (VPN). MPLS, STP, PPTP are NOT used to share VLAN information like VTP and the 802.1q standards do. |
Use NSLOOKUP to resolve the URLs manually. | Ensure PORT 53 is enabled on the Firewall. Explanation: NSLOOKUP command is used to query the domain name system (DNS) to obtain information about host addresses, mail exchanges, nameservers, and related information. The nslookup command has an interactive and non-interactive mode. The nslookup command will still need to communicate with a DNS server over port 53, though, to perform these lookups. The ping command is used to test whether a given target is reachable across an IP network by sending an ICMP Echo Request packet and receiving an ICMP Echo Reply. Since the technician successfully used ping to communicate with the server using their IP addresses, this indicates that ICMP is not blocked by the firewall. The HOST file is a text file containing domain names and IP addresses. The HOST file works like a local DNS lookup, but the technician would have to enter the domain name and IP for every website a user might want to access, making this an unacceptable option to solve this issue for the long term. |
Mesh | Bus Explanation: Ring topology connects every device to exactly two other neighboring devices to form a “circle”. Messages in a Ring topology travel in one direction and usually rely on a token to control the flow of information. Star topology connects all of the other nodes to a central node, usually a Switch or a Hub. Star topology is the most popular Network topology in use on LANs. Mesh topology connects every node directly to every other node. This creates a highly efficient and redundant Network, but it is expensive to build and maintain. |
Auto-sensing Ports | Switching Loop Explanation: CAT 6 and CAT5e are compatible with each other and can both operate at speeds up to 1000 Mbps (1 Gbps), so it is not an improper cable type issue. Auto-Sensing Ports refers to a feature found in Network Adapters that allows them to automatically recognize the current local Network’s speed and adjust its own setting accordingly. This would not be an issue since the Switch can detect the appropriate speed to use with the CAT 6 and CAT5e cables. Routes are used at Layer 3, but Switches are Layer 2 Devices. Therefore, Swtiches do not need to use a Route to pass traffic between each other. |
RFID | WIFI Explanation: RFID (Radio Frequency Identification) uses electromagnetic fields to automatically identify and track tags attached to objects. The warehouse might want to also use RFID to allow for the accurate scanning of items using RFID Tags, RFID can’t upload large images of the items to a centralized server since it is limited to 2 KB of data per RFID tag. Bluetooth is a short-range wireless technology standard that is used for exchanging data between fixed and mobile devices over short distances using UHF radio waves. NFC (Near Field Communication) is a set of communication protocols for communication between two electric devices over a distance of 4 cm or less. |
Business Continuity Plan | Business Continuity Plan Explanation: Disaster Recovery plan is a document, structured approach that documents how an organization can quickly resume work after an unplanned incident. These unplanned incidents include things like Natural Disasters, Power Outages, Cyber Attacks, and other disruptive events. Incident Response Plan contains a set of instructions to help our Network and System admins detect, respond to, and recover from Network Security incidents. These types of plans address issues like Cybercrime, data loss, and Service Outtages that threaten daily work. |
Services for Authentication | Tickets used to identify Authenticated Users Explanation: RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) is used to manage remote and wireless Authentication Infrstructure. Users supply Authentication information to RADIUS Client devices, such as a Wireless Access Point. The Client device then passes the Authentication data to an AAA (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting) server that processes the Request. – DOES NOT USE TICKETS. |
Latency | Jitter Explanation: Latency = is the measure of time that it takes for data to reach its destination across a Network. Usually, we measure Network Latency as the round-trip time from a workstation to the distant end and back. Throughput = is an actual measure of how much data is successfully transferred across a given Network. Bandwidth = is the max rate of data transfer across a given Network. |
Release Notes from the Server Software | Change Management Documentation Explanation: |
Use different SSIDs on the same channels with VLANs. | Use the same SSIDs on different channels with AP isolation. Explanation: |
2 | 1 Explanation: Level 0 is used for an Emergency and is considered the most sever condition because the system has become unstable. |
Biometric Access | Video Surveillance Explanation: A Biometric Lock is any lock that can be activated by biometric features, such as fingerprint, voiceprint, or retina scan. Biometric locks make it more difficult for someone to counterfeit the key used to open the lock or a user's account. Smart Card, Chip Card, PIV Card, or Integrated Circuit Card is a physical, electronic authorization device used to control access to a resource. It is typically a plastic credit card sized card with an embedded integrated circuit chip. |
dig | dig Explanation: ARP = command is used to view and modify the local Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) cache of a device, which contains recently resolved MAC addresses of IP hosts on the Network. TCPDUMP = is a text-based packet capture and analysis tool that can capture packets and display the contents of a packet capture (PCAP) file. IPCONFIG = is used on Windows Devices to display the current TCP/IP Network configuration and refresh the DHCP and DNS settings on a given host. |
Which of the following types of telecommunication links is used to provide high-speed internet service over a traditional phone line? DSL | DSL |
A client reports that half of the office is unable to access a shared printer on the Network. Which of the following should the Network tech use to troubleshoot the issue? Network Diagrams | Network Diagrams |
Which of the following remote acces sprotocols should you use to connect to a Windows 2019 Server and control it with your mouse and keyboard from your workstation? RDP | RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) Explanation: Secure Shell (SSH) uses port 22 to securely create communication sessions over the Internet for remote access to a server or system. Telnet uses port 23 to provide a bidirectional interactive text-oriented communication facility using a virtual terminal connection but sends its data in plaintext making it an insecure protocol. Virtual Network Computing (VNC) is a cross-platform screen sharing system that was created to remotely control another computer from a distance by a remote user from a secondary device as though they were sitting right in front of it. |
Which of the following weaknesses exist in WPS-enabled wireless Networks? Brute Force occurs within 11,000 combinations. | Brute Force occurs within 11,000 combinations. Explanation: |
What describes an IPv6 address of ::1? Public | Loopback |
Which of the following IEEE Specifications describes the use of Power over Ethernet (PoE)?
| 802.3af Explanation: STP (Spanning Tree Protocol) = 802.1d LACP (Link Aggregation Control Protocol) = 802.3ad Network Authentication Protocol = 802.1x (RADIUS/Enterprise/Port-Based Network Access Control (PNAC)) |
A network technician has just installed a new point-to-point 200-meter single-mode fiber link between two local routers within the Dion Training offices. The fiber has been connected to each router, but the interface fails to come up. The network technician has double-checked the interface configuration on both routers, both SFPs have been hard looped to confirm they are functioning, connectors on both ends of the links have been cleaned, and there is sufficient power. What is the MOST likely cause of the problem? Distance Limitations | Wavelength Mismatch Explanation: Duplex Mismatch is a condition where two connected devices operate in different duplex modes, that is, one operates in half-duplex while the other one operates in full-duplex. The effect of a duplex mismatch is a link that operates inefficiently. All networking cables have a limited supported distance. For example, copper cables must be less than 100 meters. Single-mode fiber cables can be up to 40 kilometers, therefore the issue is not a distance limitation in this scenario. The link is established before an IP address is assigned by DHCP. In this scenario, the link is not being established, therefore it cannot be a wrong IP address being assigned to the interfaces. |
Which of the following is a logical host on the Network that is configured with known vulnerabilities so that an attacker's techniques can be studied in order to improve your Network defenses? Honeypot | Honeypot Acronym: |
You have just moved into a new apartment in a large building. Your wireless network is acting strangely, so you are worried that it may be due to interference from the numerous other wireless networks in each of the other apartments in this building. You want to determine what wireless signals are within the walls of your apartment and their relative strength. What technique should you utilize to determine whether the nearby wireless networks are causing interference with your own Wi-Fi network? Perform a Site Survey | Perform a Site Survey |
Which type of threat actor can accidently or inadvertently cause a security incident in your organization? APT | Insider Threat Acronym: |
What device is used to configure various hypervisor guests to use different VLANs in the same virtualization environment? Virtual Router | Virtual Switch |
Which of the following should be implemented to allow Wireless Networks access for clients in the lobby using a shared password as the Key? Geofencing | WPA2 (WIFI Protected Access v2) |
What would be used in an IP-based video conferencing deployment? RS-232 | CODEC Explanation: A 56k modem is a legacy device, also called a dial-up modem. These devices are too slow to allow an IP-based video conferencing system deployment. RS-232 is a standard protocol used for serial communication, and is too slow to support IP-based video conferencing systems. Near Field Communication (NFC) is a set of short-range wireless technologies, typically requiring a distance of 4cm or less to initiate a connection. NFC is not used with IP-based video conferencing systems. |
Which of the following policies or plans would dictate which type of Virtual Private Network (VPN) connections will be authorized for use by an organization's employees? Acceptable Use Policy | Remote Access Policy Explanation: Password Policy is a set of rules created to improve computer security by motivating users to create dependable, secure passwords and then store and utilize them properly. This document promotes strong passwords by specifying a minimum password length, complexity requirements, requiring periodic password changes, and placing limits on the reuse of passwords. Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) is a set of rules applied by the owner, creator, or administrator of a network, website, or service, that restrict the ways in which the network, website, or system may be used and sets guidelines as to how it should be used. Data Loss Prevention Policy is a document that defines how organizations can share and protect data. It guides how data can be used in decision-making without it being exposed to anyone who should not have access to it. The goal of a data loss prevention policy is to minimize accidental or malicious data loss. |
In which type of non-technical attack does an attacker attempt to trick a user into providing sensitive information? Evil Twin | Social Engineering |
You are troubleshooting a network connectivity issue for clients on the Dion Training corporate network. You have identified a rogue DHCP server connected to the network by one of the employees. Which of the following symptoms would most likely be observed due to this rogue DHCP server operating on the network? Duplicate MAC Addresses | Duplicate IP Addresses |
An analyst reviews a triple-homed firewall configuration that connects to the internet, a private network, and one other network. Which of the following would best describe the third network connected to this firewall? Staging Environment | Screened Subnet |
Your company has decided to begin moving some of its data into the cloud. Currently, your company's network consists of both on-premise storage and some cloud-based storage. Which of the following types of clouds is your company currently using? Hybrid | Hybrid |
Which of the following needs to be configured to allow Jumbo Frames on a Network? IPS | MTU (Maximum Transmission Unit) Explanation: A media access control address is a unique identifier assigned to a network interface controller for use as a network address in communications within a network segment. Management information base (MIB) is a collection of definitions which define the properties of the managed object within the device to be managed (such as a router, switch, etc.). An intrusion prevention system (IPS) is a form of network security that works to detect and prevent identified threats. |
Which of the following policies or plans would dictate the complexity requirements for a Wireless Network's shared secret Key? Acceptable Use Policy | Password Policy |
The corporate Network uses a centralized server to manage credentials for all of its Network devices. What type of server is MOST Likely being used in this configuration? DNS | RADIUS Explanation: TACACS+ is an older username and login system that uses authentication to determine access, while RADIUS combines authorization AND authentication. For this question, either RADIUS or TACACS would be an acceptable answer. Kerberos is a computer network authentication protocol that works based on tickets to allow nodes communicating over a non-secure network to prove their identity to one another in a secure manner. Kerberos is used in Windows Active Directory domains for authentication. The domain name system (DNS) protocol is the protocol used to provide names for an IP address based on their mappings in a database using TCP/UDP port 53. The file transfer protocol (FTP) is the protocol used to transfer files across the internet over ports 20 and 21. |
Dion Training wants to purchase an email marketing solution to better communicate with their students. A promising new startup has a new offering to provide access to their product from a central location rather than requiring Dion Training to host the product on their internal network. Dion Training wants to ensure that their sensitive corporate information is not accessible by any startup's other clients. Which type of cloud server should Dion Training look to purchase to meet these needs? Public SaaS | Private SaaS Explanation: Because of the concerns with sensitive corporate information being processed by the SaaS, Dion Training should ensure a Private SaaS is chosen. A private cloud is a particular model of cloud computing that involves a distinct and secure cloud-based environment in which only the specified client (Dion Training in this case) can operate. A public cloud contains services offered by third-party providers over the public Internet and is available to anyone who wants to use or purchase them. They may be free or sold on-demand, allowing customers to pay only per usage for the CPU cycles, storage, or bandwidth they consume. A community cloud is a collaborative effort in which infrastructure is shared between several organizations from a specific community with common concerns (security, compliance, jurisdiction, etc.), whether managed internally or by a third-party and hosted internally or externally. A hybrid cloud uses a mix of on-premises, private cloud, and third-party, public cloud services with orchestration between these platforms. This typically involves a connection from an on-premises data center to a public cloud. |
Timothy, a network technician, receives a phone call from an end-user who states their laptop cannot connect to the corporate wireless network. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST according to the troubleshooting methodology? Implement the Solution | Identify the Problem Explanation: At this point, the technician does not have enough information to clearly identify the problem. The technician should continue to identify the problem by gathering information, questioning the user, identifying the symptoms, determining if anything has changed, and attempting to duplicate the problem to verify the issue. Once the problem is clearly identified, the technician will establish a theory of probable cause and continue their troubleshooting efforts. |
You are a network administrator troubleshooting an issue with a newly installed web server. The web server is available to internal network users, but users outside the internal network (Internet users) cannot reach the server. You run an IPCONFIG and receive the configuration below: (** Dion suggests knowing this because it involves a Simulated PBQ on the NET+ 008 Exam**) IP: 192.168.0.10 NAT has not been configured on the border Firewall | NAT has not been configured on the border Firewall Explanation: The subnet mask provided of 255.255.254.0 represents a /23 CIDR network, therefore the IP and the gateway are on the same subnet and the gateway is not the issue. The layer 3 switch cannot be the issue either, because if it blocked port 80 then the internal users would have been blocked, too. The web server does not need to access the DNS server, since the webserver is the target being accessed and not the system initiating the connection. |
Which of the following protocols are designed to avoid loops on a Layer 2 Network? RIPv2 | 802.1d Explanation:
RIPv2 is a distance-vector Routing Protocol for local and WAN, and does not prevent or avoid loops by default. |
Which media access control technology will listen to a cable to ensure there is no traffic being transmitted before sending its traffic but will implement a back-off timer if a collision does occur? Demand Priority | CSMA/CD (Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection) |
What ports do SMTP and SNMP utilize? (** Dion suggests that this is a simulated PBQ drag and drop where you will be required to MATCH Ports with the Protocols. Know your Ports/Protocols for the NET+ 008 Exam!!**) 161, 443 | 25, 161 Explanation: |
Your boss is looking for a recommendation for a cloud solution that will only allow your company’s employees to use the service while preventing anyone else from accessing it. What type of cloud model would you recommend to ensure the contents are best secured from those outside your company? Community Cloud | Private Cloud |
Today, your company's network started to experience network connectivity issues for various workstations around the company. As you begin troubleshooting, you identify that all the workstations receive their connectivity from a single switch on the 3rd floor of the office building. You start searching the 3rd floor for the cause of this issue and find a small wired router plugged into a network jack in the sales manager's office. From this small wired router, he has connected his workstation and a small Smart TV to watch Netflix while working. You question the sales manager about when he brought in the new router. He states that he just hooked it up this morning. What type of issue did the sales manager accidentally introduced into the network by installing the router? Switching Loop | Rogue DHCP Server |
Tim, a network administrator, is configuring a test lab that consists of three routers using RIP for dynamic routing. He connects the routers in a full mesh topology. When he attempts to ping Router 1 from Router 3 using its IP address, he receives a "Destination Unreachable" error message. Which of the following is the most likely reason for the connectivity error? Denial of Service Attack | Split-Horizon is Misconfigured Explanation: The other options would not cause a communication error between the three internal routers when testing the connectivity using their IP addresses. A Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack is an attack meant to shut down a machine or network, making it inaccessible to its intended users. The Domain Name System (DNS) uses port 53 and is a hierarchical and decentralized naming system for computers, services, or other resources connected to the Internet or a private network and maps a domain name to an IP address. Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS) is a networking protocol that provides centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) management for users who connect and use a network service. |
Dion Training has a single switch that services every room within its offices. The switch contains 48 ports, but Jason wants to divide the ports based on functional areas, such as web development, instruction support, and administration. Which technology should Jason utilize to divide the physical switch into three logically divided areas? VPN | VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) |
You are working as a service desk analyst. This morning, you have received multiple calls from users reporting that they cannot access websites from their work computers. You decide to troubleshoot the issue by opening up your command prompt on your Windows machine and running a program to determine where the network connectivity outage is occurring. This tool tests the end-to-end connection and reports on each hop found in the connection. Which tool should you use to determine if the issue is on the intranet portion of your corporate network or if it is occurring due to a problem with your ISP? nslookup | tracert Explanation: The nslookup tool is used to troubleshoot DNS issues. The netstat tool is used to display network statistics and active connections. The ping tool is used to test an end-to-end connection, but it will not provide any data on the hops found in the connection. |
Dion Training has configured a new web server and connected it to their screened subnet. A network technician wants to ensure the server is properly hardened and that it only allows inbound HTTPS requests while blocking any HTTP requests. Which of the following tools should the technician utilize? nslookup | Port Scanner Explanation: A NetFlow analyzer is used to perform monitoring, troubleshooting, inspection, interpretation, and synthesis of network traffic flow data. An IP scanner is used to monitor a network's IP address space in real-time and identify any devices connected to the network. The nslookup command is used to query the domain name system (DNS) to obtain information about host addresses, mail exchanges, nameservers, and related information. The nslookup command has an interactive and non-interactive mode. |
A company owns four kiosks that are near a shopping center. The owner is concerned about someone accessing the Internet via the kiosk's wireless network. What should be implemented to provide wireless access only to the employees working at the kiosk? Firewall | MAC Filtering |
Which of the following would be the BEST addition to a Business Continuity Plan to protect the business from catastrophic disaster such as a Fire, Tornado, or Earthquakte? UPS and Battery Backups | Hot Sites or Cold Sites Explanation: Generators, Fire Supression and UPS/Battery Backups do nothing against catastrophic diasters such as Tornado/Earthquakes. |
You have been asked to install a media converter that connects a newly installed RG-6 cable to the existing single-mode cable plant. Which type of media converter should you use? Coaxial to Ethernet | Coaxial to Fiber Explanation: |
You run the command ipconfig on your laptop and see that you have been assigned an IP address of 169.254.0.56. Which category of IPv4 address is this? Private | APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing) |
Which of the following is a DNS Record type? DHCP | PTR Explanation:
|
You have just installed a new switch in your company's network closet. The switch connects to your router using an SFP port on both the router and switch. Unfortunately, you only had a long cable available to make the connection, so after running the cable from the rack containing the switch to the other rack containing the router, you decide to coil up the excessive cable and use a zip tie to hold the coil to the side of the rack. You head back to your office, log into the switch over SSH, and check the log file. You notice that several messages indicate that the signal strength on the transmit portion of the SFP is registering as too weak. What is the BEST explanation for the cause of this error? You used an MMF cable instead of an SMF cable. | The bend radius of the cable has been exceeded. Explanation: It is unlikely that the SFP failed since only the transmit portion is registering as weak. If you used the wrong type of cable (MTRJ vs. ST), you would not have been able to connect it to the SFP module as it wouldn't fit. Similarly, if you used an MMF instead of an SMF cable, you would not receive a weak connection but would instead get no connection. |
You are about to perform a major configuration upgrade to a Network device. What should you have prepared in case the upgrade fails? Baseline Report | Rollback Plan |
You are assisting a member of Dion Training's security team during an incident response. The team member asks you to determine if any strange TCP connections are occurring on a given workstation. You open the command prompt on the workstation. Which of the following tools would provide you with information on any TCP connections currently established on the workstation? tracert | netstat Explanation: The tracert command is used on Windows devices to show details about the path that a packet takes from a host to a target and displays information about each hop in the path. The arp command is used to view and modify the local address resolution protocol (ARP) cache of a device, which contains recently resolved MAC addresses of IP hosts on the network. The route command is used to create, view, or modify manual entries in the network routing tables of a computer or server. |
Your company’s corporate headquarters provided your branch office a portion of their Class C subnet to use at a new office location. You must allocate the minimum number of addresses using CIDR notation in order to accommodate each department’s needs. What is the correct CIDR notation for the Sales department's subnet which requires 55 devices? /28 /25 /27 /26 /30 /29 | /26 Explanation: |
Which of the following types of traffic flows describes Network traffic that is entering your datacenter through the Firewall or Router? South | South Explanation: North Traffic is traffic exiting the datacenter. East-West traffic or communication refers to data flow within the datacenter. |
After installing some new switches in your network, you notice that a switching loop has begun to occur. You contact the manufacturer's technical support for your switches and they recommended that you enable 802.1d. Which of the following BEST represents why the manufacturer suggested this? The Link Aggregation Control Protocol uses BPDU to detect loops in Network topologies. | The Spanning Tree Protocol uses PBDU to detect loops in Network topologies. Explanation: The Link Aggregation Control Protocol (LACP) enables you to assign multiple physical links to a logical interface that will appear as a single link to a route processor. LACP is used to combine multiple network connections in parallel to increase throughput beyond what a single connection could sustain and to provide redundancy in case one of the links should fail. LACP is defined in the IEEE 802.3ad standard. Split Horizon is used by Routing Protocols at Layer 3 to prevent Routing loops, and it does not affect Switching loops. |
Which Network device operates at Layer 1 of the OSI Model? Firewall | Hub Explanation: A Bridge is a Layer 2 device. |
Dion Training has just purchased a new domain name and needs to indicate which DNS server is the definitive information source for the domain. Which type of DNS record should be created? A | SOA (Start of Authority) Explanation: AAAA record associates your domain name with an IPv6 address. A record associates your domain name with an IPv4 address. MX record is used for outgoing (SMTP) and incoming (POP3/IMAP) traffic. |
You are working as a penetration tester and have discovered a new method of exploiting a vulnerability within the Windows 10 operating system. You conduct some research online and discover that a security patch against this particular vulnerability doesn't exist yet. Which type of threat would this BEST be categorized as? DDoS | Zero-Day |
What is the broadcast address associated with the host located at 10.10.10.200/25?
| 10.10.10.255 Explanation: |
Which Network element enables Unified Communication devices to connect to and traverse traffic onto the PSTN? UC Server | UC Gateway |
While working as a security analyst, you have been asked to monitor the SIEM. You observed network traffic going from an external IP to an internal host's IP within your organization's network over port 443. Which of the following protocols would you expect to be in use? HTTP | TLS (Transport Layer Security) |
Which of the following communication types can ONLY be used with IPv6? Broadcast | Anycast Explanation: Multicast, Anycast, Unicast works with IPv6. Multicast and Unicast works with both IPv4 and IPv6. |
You have been assigned to assist with deploying a new web-based application to your company's intranet. After installing the application, it was identified that the database server is becoming overloaded by the number of requests that the users create. The team lead has proposed adding a device between the web server and the database server to alleviate the issue. Which of the following is being implemented by adding this new device? Implement Load Balancing and provide High Availability | Implement Load Balancing and provide High Availability |
A network’s design includes gateways connecting an assembly-line network. The assembly-line network uses specialized cabling and interfaces to allow the assembly-line robots to communicate with one another. Which type of network would you classify this design as? NFV | SCADA/ICS Explanation: Network Function Virtualization (NFV) is a way to reduce cost and accelerate service deployment for network operators by decoupling functions like a firewall or encryption from dedicated hardware and moving them to virtual servers. Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) is an advanced distance-vector routing protocol that is used on a computer network for automating routing decisions and configuration. Channel Service Unit/Data Service Unit (CSU/DSU) is a hardware device about the size of an external modem that converts digital data frames from the communications technology used on a local area network (LAN) into frames appropriate to a wide-area network (WAN) and vice versa. |
Your company has just installed a brand new email server, but you determined that the server cannot send emails to another server during your initial testing. You decide to check the firewall's ACL to see if the server's outgoing email is being blocked. Which of the following ports should you ensure is open and not blocked by the firewall? 110 | 25 Explanation: 22 = SSH (Secure Shell) has nothing to do with Mail. |
A technician has been troubleshooting a network problem, has determined the likely cause of the issue, and implemented a solution. What is the NEXT step they should perform according to the CompTIA troubleshooting methodology? Document findings, actions, outcomes, and lessons learned. | Verify system functionality |
Your company has installed a guest wireless network in the break room. According to company policy, employees may only connect to the network and use it during their lunch break. Which of the following policies should you have each employee sign to show they understand and accept the use conditions for this guest network? MOU | AUP Acronyms: AUP = Acceptable Use Policy MOU = Memorandum of Understanding NDA = Non Disclosure Agreement SLA = Service Level Agreement |
Alexander needs to set up two public-facing web servers and ensure that an attacker cannot access its intranet if those servers are compromised. Which of the following should he use? VPN | DMZ Acronyms: VPN = Virtual Private Network EAP = Extensible Authentication Protocol VNC = Virtual Network Computing DMZ = Demilitarization Zone |
Dion Training's corporate network appears to be suffering from a broadcast storm and you have been asked to assist in troubleshooting. You just arrived in the main distribution frame and see another technician looking at the equipment rack. What step of the troubleshooting methodology should you perform NEXT? Identify the problem | Identify the problem |
Your company has purchased a new office building down the street for its executive suites. You have been asked to choose the BEST encryption for AP1, AP2, and AP3 to establish a wireless connection inside the main building for visitors to use. Your boss has stated that the main building's internal wireless network is only going to be used by visitors and should not require the visitors to set up any special configuration on their devices to connect. Which of the following is the BEST encryption to use from the options below to meet your managers requirements for the new visitors Wireless Network? WPA-CCMP WPA2-TKIP WEP WPA Open | Open (Dion suggests that this is part of a PBQ that you may see on the NET+ 008 where you will be asked to drag and drop the Correct Encryption into the AP's that are displayed in a Picture. So know your Wireless Encryptions!!!) |