My EPPP Practice Questions: Physio and Psychopharm Big 6

Question 1

As the result of head trauma, a middle-aged woman has difficulty regulating the rate, rhythm, pitch, and loudness of her speech. This is referred to as:
a. synesthesia.
b. anomia.
c. asomatognosia.
d. dysprosody.

Accepted Answer

d. dysprosodyProsody refers to the pattern of stress and intonation in speech. Dysprosody is a characteristic of Broca’s aphasia and other nonfluent aphasias.

Question 2

The assumption that changes in regional cerebral blood flow correspond to changes in neural activity underlies the use of all of the following brain imaging techniques except:
a. PET.
b. fMRI.
c. CT.
d. SPECT.

Accepted Answer

c. CTRegional cerebral blood flow is associated with the brain activity (functioning). CT (computerized tomography) is a structural brain imaging technique. It provides information on brain structure (e.g., tumors, lesions), not function.

Question 3

The most commonly prescribed drugs for Tourette’s disorder are drugs that:

a. increase dopamine levels.
b. block dopamine transmission.
c. increase acetylcholine levels.
d. block acetylcholine transmission.

Accepted Answer

b. block dopamine transmissionHaloperidol is an antipsychotic drug that is frequently-prescribed for Tourette’s Disorder. It exerts its effects by blocking the transmission of dopamine.

Question 4

Which of the following is involved in the regulation of circadian rhythms?a. thalamusb. basal gangliac. cerebellumd. hypothalamus

Accepted Answer

d. hypothalamusThe suprachiasmatic nucleus, which is located in the hypothalamus, has been implicated in the regulation of the body’s circadian rhythms.

Question 5

If you’re in a car accident that causes damage to your cerebellum, you’re most likely to:

a. have trouble jogging and playing tennis.
b. find it difficult to answer EPPP questions.
c. have trouble recognizing friends and family members.
d. find it difficult to do simple arithmetic calculations.

a. have trouble jogging and playing tennis.
The cerebellum is involved in the regulation of balance and coordination. Consequently, of the activ...

Accepted Answer

a. have trouble jogging and playing tennis.
b. find it difficult to answer EPPP questions.
c. have trouble recognizing friends and family members.
d. find it difficult to do simple arithmetic calculations.

Question 6

Bilateral lesions in which of the following areas of the brain are most likely to result in a loss of the fear response without loss of other emotional responses?
a. hippocampus
b. suprachiasmatic nucleus
c. amygdala
d. thalamus

Accepted Answer

c. amygdalaThe case of “patient SM” has confirmed that the amygdala is responsible for the experience of fear in response to frightening stimuli. SM has focal bilateral amygdala lesions as the result of a rare disease. While she is able to experience other emotions, she does not experience fear. See J. S. Feinstein et al., The human amygdala and the induction and experience of fear, Current biology, 21(1), 34-38, 2010.

Question 7

Impaired facial recognition, left-right disorientation, difficulty recognizing familiar objects by touch, and an inability to perform complex, purposeful movements (apraxia) are most suggestive of damage to the:
a. parietal lobes.
b. frontal lobes.
c. temporal lobes.
d. occipital lobes.

Accepted Answer

a. parietal lobesDamage to the parietal lobes can cause aphasia, tactile agnosia, and apraxia (loss of ability to perform purposeful movements).

Question 8

Damage to the right hemisphere of the cerebral cortex is most likely to result in:a. anxiety and depression.b. indifference or undue cheerfulness.c. aphasia.d. increased aggression.

Accepted Answer

b. indifference or undue cheerfulnessThe right hemisphere governs negative emotions, and damage to certain areas of the right hemisphere produces indifference or excessively positive emotions.

Question 9

A patient with brain damage is unable to recognize his doctor’s face even though he has
met with the doctor several times. This condition is known as:
a. topographagnosia.
b. prosopagnosia.
c. autotopagnosia.
d. anosognosia.

Accepted Answer

b. prosopagnosiaProsopagnosia is a type of visual agnosia that involves an inability to recognize familiar faces.Topographagnosia involves deficits in spatial ability; autotopagnosia is the inability to locatevarious parts of the body; and anosognosia is the refusal or inability to recognize theexistence of a defect or disease.

Question 10

A person is able to say “knife” when a picture of a knife is flashed to his right visual
field, but he cannot name a spoon, which he can’t see but has felt with his left hand. Most
likely, this individual has damage to which of the following?
a. substantia nigra
b. corpus callosum
c. suprachiasmatic nucleus
d. prefrontal cortex

Accepted Answer

b. corpus callosumThis man is exhibiting the characteristics of “split-brain” patients whose corpus callosum hasbeen severed, usually as a treatment for severe epilepsy.

Question 11

Global aphasia is caused by widespread damage in the dominant (left) hemisphere
and involves:
a. intact comprehension and nonfluent speech
b. impaired comprehension and nonfluent speech
c. intact comprehension and fluent speech
d. impaired comprehension and fluent speech

Accepted Answer

b. impaired comprehension and nonfluent speech
As its name suggests, global aphasia is caused by widespread brain injury and is characterized by extensive disruption in the ability to produce and understand language. A person with this disorder exhibits impaired auditory comprehension, nonfluent speech,
anomia (inability to name a common or familiar object, attribute, or action), paraphasia (use of inappropriate words and phrases), and an inability to read or write. Depending on the brain areas affected by the injury, the person may also exhibit hemiparesis, limb apraxia, and/or catastrophic emotional reactions.

Question 12

During the ________ stage of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS), the release of epinephrine results in an increase in heart rate, blood pressure, and respiration rate.
a. resistance
b. activation
c. alarm
d. exhaustion

Accepted Answer

c. alarmEpinephrine (adrenaline) is released by the adrenal medulla during the alarm stage of the GAS and is responsible for the body’s “fight-or-flight” response.

Question 13

Studies investigating age-related changes in sleep patterns have found that, over the
adult years:
a. REM sleep remains fairly constant but slow-wave sleep increases.
b. REM sleep remains fairly constant but slow-wave sleep decreases.
c. REM sleep decreases but slow-wave sleep remains fairly constant.
d. REM sleep increases but slow-wave sleep remains fairly constant.

Accepted Answer

b. REM sleep remains fairly constant but slow-wave sleep decreases.
Research has confirmed that the latency (onset) of the first REM period decreases with
increasing age but that the amount of REM sleep remains fairly stable over the lifespan or
decreases only slightly. In contrast, Stage 3 and Stage 4 sleep (slow-wave sleep) decrease and,
in some older adults, are nearly nonexistent.

Question 14

Following a closed head injury caused by a car accident, a 55-year-old woman experiences extensive retrograde amnesia that affects memories for events that occurred up to 10 years prior to the accident. When her “lost” memories begin to return, she will
most likely recall which of the following first:
a. memories from 10 years before the accident.
b. memories from 6 months before the accident.
c. memories from 1 week before the accident.
d. memories of the accident.

Accepted Answer

a. memories from 10 years before the accidentThe typical pattern for the return of long-term memories following head trauma is for the most remote memories to return first.

Question 15

As the result of a stroke involving the middle cerebral artery and the right

(nondominant) hemisphere, a person is most likely to exhibit:
a. paralysis on the left side of his body and vision loss in his left visual field.
b. paralysis on the left side of his body and global aphasia.
c. paralysis on the right side of his body and visual agnosia.
d. paralysis on the right side of his body and visual loss in his right visual field.

Accepted Answer

a. paralysis on the left side of his body and vision loss in his left visual field Damage to certain areas of the right hemisphere could cause paralysis on the left side of the body as well as visual loss in the left visual field. These are common symptoms of stroke.

Question 16

Which of the following is an early sign of Huntington’s disease that can cause misdiagnosis as a psychiatric disorder?
a. sleep disturbances
b. disorientation
c. memory loss for autobiographical information
d. depression

Accepted Answer

d. depressionA mood disturbance, especially depression, is an early symptom in at least 40% of cases of Huntington’s disease.

Question 17

Which of the following are characteristic symptoms of Parkinson’s disease?

a. resting tremor, slowed movement, rigidity, and impaired balance and coordination
b. jerky, involuntary movements, facial grimaces, restlessness, and general weakness
c. muscle weakness, impaired coordination, paresthesias, and nystagmus
d. involuntary repetitive movements of the jaw, lips, tongue, and extremities

Accepted Answer

a. resting tremor, slowed movement, rigidity, and impaired balance and coordination
The symptoms of Parkinson’s disease vary somewhat from person to person and from day to
day. However, most people with this disorder experience the symptoms listed in this
response. (Huntington’s disease is associated with the symptoms listed in answer b; multiple
sclerosis with the symptoms listed in answer c, and tardive dyskinesia with the symptoms
listed in answer d.)

Question 18

In comparison to haloperidol, risperidone:

a. is less likely to produce extrapyramidal side effects.
b. is less likely to produce weight gain.
c. is less effective for the negative symptoms of Schizophrenia.
d. is more likely to produce sexual side effects.

Accepted Answer

a. is less likely to produce extrapyramidal side effects
Risperidone is an atypical antipsychotic. It is less likely to produce extrapyramidal side
effects than haloperidol and other typical (conventional) antipsychotics. According to a recent
Cochrane Review, in comparison to haloperidol, risperidone is more likely to cause weight
gain, is more effective for negative symptoms, and is about equally likely to cause sexual side
effects. [Hunter, R. H., Joy, C. B., Kennedy, E., Gilbody, S. M., & Song, F. (2003).
Risperidone versus typical antipsychotic medication for schizophrenia (Cochrane Review),
The Cochrane Library, 4.]

Question 19

When tardive dyskinesia develops as the result of antipsychotic drug use:
a. its symptoms are nearly always irreversible.
b. it signals that a larger dose of the drug is required.
c. its symptoms may decline if the drug is slowly withdrawn.
d. its symptoms may increase temporarily after the drug is slowly withdrawn but
thereafter decline.

Accepted Answer

d. its symptoms may increase temporarily after the drug is slowly withdrawn but
thereafter decline
At one time, tardive dyskinesia was considered irreversible. However, recent studies have
shown that, in some patients, its symptoms gradually decline once the drug is withdrawn,
although there may be a temporary increase in symptoms first.

Question 20

Which of the following drugs is considered a first-line treatment for neuropathic pain?a. carbamazepineb. clozapinec. amitriptylined. naltrexone

Accepted Answer

c. amitriptylineNeuropathic pain is chronic pain that is due to a nervous system injury or dysfunction.Analgesics are the first-line treatment for neuropathic pain and include certainantidepressants, anticonvulsants, opioids, and local anesthetics. Antidepressants thatincrease levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine not only have analgesic properties butalso reduce the depression that often accompanies neuropathic pain. Of theseantidepressants, amitriptyline (Elavil) is one of the oldest and most widely used tricyclicdrugs for this condition.

My EPPP Practice Questions: Physio and Psychopharm Big 6

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As the result of head trauma, a middle-aged woman has difficulty regulating the rate, rhythm, pitch, and loudness of her speech. This is referred to as:
a. synesthesia.
b. anomia.
c. asomatognosia.
d. dysprosody.

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As the result of head trauma, a middle-aged woman has difficulty regulating the rate, rhythm, pitch, and loudness of her speech. This is referred to as: a. synesthesia. b. anomia. c. asomatognosia. d. dysprosody.	d. dysprosody Prosody refers to the pattern of stress and intonation in speech. Dysprosody is a characteristic of Broca’s aphasia and other nonfluent aphasias.
The assumption that changes in regional cerebral blood flow correspond to changes in neural activity underlies the use of all of the following brain imaging techniques except: a. PET. b. fMRI. c. CT. d. SPECT.	c. CT Regional cerebral blood flow is associated with the brain activity (functioning). CT (computerized tomography) is a structural brain imaging technique. It provides information on brain structure (e.g., tumors, lesions), not function.
The most commonly prescribed drugs for Tourette’s disorder are drugs that: a. increase dopamine levels. b. block dopamine transmission. c. increase acetylcholine levels. d. block acetylcholine transmission.	b. block dopamine transmission Haloperidol is an antipsychotic drug that is frequently-prescribed for Tourette’s Disorder. It exerts its effects by blocking the transmission of dopamine.
Which of the following is involved in the regulation of circadian rhythms? a. thalamus b. basal ganglia c. cerebellum d. hypothalamus	d. hypothalamus The suprachiasmatic nucleus, which is located in the hypothalamus, has been implicated in the regulation of the body’s circadian rhythms.
If you’re in a car accident that causes damage to your cerebellum, you’re most likely to: a. have trouble jogging and playing tennis. b. find it difficult to answer EPPP questions. c. have trouble recognizing friends and family members. d. find it difficult to do simple arithmetic calculations.	a. have trouble jogging and playing tennis. The cerebellum is involved in the regulation of balance and coordination. Consequently, of the activities listed in the answers, jogging and playing tennis are most likely to be adversely affected by damage to this structure of the brain.
Bilateral lesions in which of the following areas of the brain are most likely to result in a loss of the fear response without loss of other emotional responses? a. hippocampus b. suprachiasmatic nucleus c. amygdala d. thalamus	c. amygdala The case of “patient SM” has confirmed that the amygdala is responsible for the experience of fear in response to frightening stimuli. SM has focal bilateral amygdala lesions as the result of a rare disease. While she is able to experience other emotions, she does not experience fear. See J. S. Feinstein et al., The human amygdala and the induction and experience of fear, Current biology, 21(1), 34-38, 2010.
Impaired facial recognition, left-right disorientation, difficulty recognizing familiar objects by touch, and an inability to perform complex, purposeful movements (apraxia) are most suggestive of damage to the: a. parietal lobes. b. frontal lobes. c. temporal lobes. d. occipital lobes.	a. parietal lobes Damage to the parietal lobes can cause aphasia, tactile agnosia, and apraxia (loss of ability to perform purposeful movements).
Damage to the right hemisphere of the cerebral cortex is most likely to result in: a. anxiety and depression. b. indifference or undue cheerfulness. c. aphasia. d. increased aggression.	b. indifference or undue cheerfulness The right hemisphere governs negative emotions, and damage to certain areas of the right hemisphere produces indifference or excessively positive emotions.
A patient with brain damage is unable to recognize his doctor’s face even though he has met with the doctor several times. This condition is known as: a. topographagnosia. b. prosopagnosia. c. autotopagnosia. d. anosognosia.	b. prosopagnosia Prosopagnosia is a type of visual agnosia that involves an inability to recognize familiar faces. Topographagnosia involves deficits in spatial ability; autotopagnosia is the inability to locate various parts of the body; and anosognosia is the refusal or inability to recognize the existence of a defect or disease.
A person is able to say “knife” when a picture of a knife is flashed to his right visual field, but he cannot name a spoon, which he can’t see but has felt with his left hand. Most likely, this individual has damage to which of the following? a. substantia nigra b. corpus callosum c. suprachiasmatic nucleus d. prefrontal cortex	b. corpus callosum This man is exhibiting the characteristics of “split-brain” patients whose corpus callosum has been severed, usually as a treatment for severe epilepsy.
Global aphasia is caused by widespread damage in the dominant (left) hemisphere and involves: a. intact comprehension and nonfluent speech b. impaired comprehension and nonfluent speech c. intact comprehension and fluent speech d. impaired comprehension and fluent speech	b. impaired comprehension and nonfluent speech As its name suggests, global aphasia is caused by widespread brain injury and is characterized by extensive disruption in the ability to produce and understand language. A person with this disorder exhibits impaired auditory comprehension, nonfluent speech, anomia (inability to name a common or familiar object, attribute, or action), paraphasia (use of inappropriate words and phrases), and an inability to read or write. Depending on the brain areas affected by the injury, the person may also exhibit hemiparesis, limb apraxia, and/or catastrophic emotional reactions.
During the ________ stage of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS), the release of epinephrine results in an increase in heart rate, blood pressure, and respiration rate. a. resistance b. activation c. alarm d. exhaustion	c. alarm Epinephrine (adrenaline) is released by the adrenal medulla during the alarm stage of the GAS and is responsible for the body’s “fight-or-flight” response.
Studies investigating age-related changes in sleep patterns have found that, over the adult years: a. REM sleep remains fairly constant but slow-wave sleep increases. b. REM sleep remains fairly constant but slow-wave sleep decreases. c. REM sleep decreases but slow-wave sleep remains fairly constant. d. REM sleep increases but slow-wave sleep remains fairly constant.	b. REM sleep remains fairly constant but slow-wave sleep decreases. Research has confirmed that the latency (onset) of the first REM period decreases with increasing age but that the amount of REM sleep remains fairly stable over the lifespan or decreases only slightly. In contrast, Stage 3 and Stage 4 sleep (slow-wave sleep) decrease and, in some older adults, are nearly nonexistent.
Following a closed head injury caused by a car accident, a 55-year-old woman experiences extensive retrograde amnesia that affects memories for events that occurred up to 10 years prior to the accident. When her “lost” memories begin to return, she will most likely recall which of the following first: a. memories from 10 years before the accident. b. memories from 6 months before the accident. c. memories from 1 week before the accident. d. memories of the accident.	a. memories from 10 years before the accident The typical pattern for the return of long-term memories following head trauma is for the most remote memories to return first.
As the result of a stroke involving the middle cerebral artery and the right (nondominant) hemisphere, a person is most likely to exhibit: a. paralysis on the left side of his body and vision loss in his left visual field. b. paralysis on the left side of his body and global aphasia. c. paralysis on the right side of his body and visual agnosia. d. paralysis on the right side of his body and visual loss in his right visual field.	a. paralysis on the left side of his body and vision loss in his left visual field Damage to certain areas of the right hemisphere could cause paralysis on the left side of the body as well as visual loss in the left visual field. These are common symptoms of stroke.
Which of the following is an early sign of Huntington’s disease that can cause misdiagnosis as a psychiatric disorder? a. sleep disturbances b. disorientation c. memory loss for autobiographical information d. depression	d. depression A mood disturbance, especially depression, is an early symptom in at least 40% of cases of Huntington’s disease.
Which of the following are characteristic symptoms of Parkinson’s disease? a. resting tremor, slowed movement, rigidity, and impaired balance and coordination b. jerky, involuntary movements, facial grimaces, restlessness, and general weakness c. muscle weakness, impaired coordination, paresthesias, and nystagmus d. involuntary repetitive movements of the jaw, lips, tongue, and extremities	a. resting tremor, slowed movement, rigidity, and impaired balance and coordination The symptoms of Parkinson’s disease vary somewhat from person to person and from day to day. However, most people with this disorder experience the symptoms listed in this response. (Huntington’s disease is associated with the symptoms listed in answer b; multiple sclerosis with the symptoms listed in answer c, and tardive dyskinesia with the symptoms listed in answer d.)
In comparison to haloperidol, risperidone: a. is less likely to produce extrapyramidal side effects. b. is less likely to produce weight gain. c. is less effective for the negative symptoms of Schizophrenia. d. is more likely to produce sexual side effects.	a. is less likely to produce extrapyramidal side effects Risperidone is an atypical antipsychotic. It is less likely to produce extrapyramidal side effects than haloperidol and other typical (conventional) antipsychotics. According to a recent Cochrane Review, in comparison to haloperidol, risperidone is more likely to cause weight gain, is more effective for negative symptoms, and is about equally likely to cause sexual side effects. [Hunter, R. H., Joy, C. B., Kennedy, E., Gilbody, S. M., & Song, F. (2003). Risperidone versus typical antipsychotic medication for schizophrenia (Cochrane Review), The Cochrane Library, 4.]
When tardive dyskinesia develops as the result of antipsychotic drug use: a. its symptoms are nearly always irreversible. b. it signals that a larger dose of the drug is required. c. its symptoms may decline if the drug is slowly withdrawn. d. its symptoms may increase temporarily after the drug is slowly withdrawn but thereafter decline.	d. its symptoms may increase temporarily after the drug is slowly withdrawn but thereafter decline At one time, tardive dyskinesia was considered irreversible. However, recent studies have shown that, in some patients, its symptoms gradually decline once the drug is withdrawn, although there may be a temporary increase in symptoms first.
Which of the following drugs is considered a first-line treatment for neuropathic pain? a. carbamazepine b. clozapine c. amitriptyline d. naltrexone	c. amitriptyline Neuropathic pain is chronic pain that is due to a nervous system injury or dysfunction. Analgesics are the first-line treatment for neuropathic pain and include certain antidepressants, anticonvulsants, opioids, and local anesthetics. Antidepressants that increase levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine not only have analgesic properties but also reduce the depression that often accompanies neuropathic pain. Of these antidepressants, amitriptyline (Elavil) is one of the oldest and most widely used tricyclic drugs for this condition.
A person who takes an MAOI concurrently with an SSRI may develop serotonin syndrome which is characterized by: a. nausea, vomiting, a metallic taste in the mouth, and restlessness. b. headache, dizziness, confusion, irritability, tremor, and nystagmus. c. involuntary rhythmic movements of the jaw, lips, tongue, and extremities. d. drowsiness, dizziness, slurred speech, and anterograde amnesia.	b. headache, dizziness, confusion, irritability, tremor, and nystagmus. Serotonin syndrome is caused by excessive serotonergic activity and produces the symptoms listed in this answer. In extreme cases, it may cause cardiac arrhythmia and progress to coma and death.
Prescribing methylphenidate for a child who is believed to have ADHD: a. would help confirm the diagnosis because only children with this disorder display its paradoxical effects. b. would not help confirm the diagnosis because children without the disorder also display its paradoxical effects. c. would be contraindicated because it can produce ADHD-like symptoms in children who do not have the disorder. d. would be contraindicated because of the high risk for physical and psychological dependence on the drug.	b. would not help confirm the diagnosis because children without the disorder also display its paradoxical effects At the low dose prescribed for ADHD, methylphenidate decreases motor activity and impulsivity and increases attention span not only in children with ADHD but also in those without the disorder.

My EPPP Practice Questions: Physio and Psychopharm Big 6

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As the result of head trauma, a middle-aged woman has difficulty regulating the rate, rhythm, pitch, and loudness of her speech. This is referred to as:a. synesthesia.b. anomia.c. asomatognosia.d. dysprosody.

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As the result of head trauma, a middle-aged woman has difficulty regulating the rate, rhythm, pitch, and loudness of her speech. This is referred to as:
a. synesthesia.
b. anomia.
c. asomatognosia.
d. dysprosody.