Network Topologies, Protocols, and Configuration Part 2
This flashcard set covers key networking concepts including physical and logical topologies, protocols for connecting branch offices, wireless communication methods, virtualization components, and types of internet connections. It helps reinforce foundational networking knowledge for IT professionals and students.
An administrator is using a wire map tester to identify different types of issues with cabling. What kinds of issues can the wire map tester detect? (Select all that apply.)
a) Incorrect pin-out
b) Short
c) Bad port
d) Continuity
a) Incorrect pin-out
d) Continuity
-Incorrect pin-out means when the installer incorrectly wired the conductors into the terminals at one or both ends of the cable.
-Continuity means open-end in the cable due to cable damage or because the installer did not properly wire the connector.
Key Terms
An administrator is using a wire map tester to identify different types of issues with cabling. What kinds of issues can the wire map tester detect? (Select all that apply.)
a) Incorrect pin-out
b) Short
c) Bad port
d) Continuity
a) Incorrect pin-out
d) Continuity
An administrator measures the resistance between the two ends of a cable and verifies that the cable has a break. What tool allows the administrator to test the cable in this manner?
a) TAP (test access point)
b) Tone generator
c) Loopback adapter
d) Multimeter
d) Multimeter
-The purpose of a mult...
A network is running slow. To determine why the administrator wants detailed properties for the cable run, including how much attenuation, crosstalk, noise, and resistance are on it. What tool should the administrator use to get all of this information?
a) Spectrum analyzer
b) OTDR
c) Multimeter
d) Cable tester
d) Cable tester
-The administrator s...
An administrator expected a newly installed network cable to operate at 1Gbps. However, when the administrator tested the cable, the speed was never actually that fast. What is the actual performance of the data traveling across the media called?
a) Power over ethernet
b) Throughput
c) Attenuation
d) Speed
b) Throughput
-Throughput is an aver...
An administrator is configuring a router from their laptop through a pale blue cable. What kind of cable is this?
a) Unshielded twisted pair cable
b) Console cable
c) Crossover cable
d) Straight through cable
b) Console cable
-A console, or roll...
New workstations are set up in the office. They currently do not have an Internet Protocol (IP) address set and are connected to the network. These workstations will need to work with applications that are time sensitive. What must the system administrator configure for these applications to function correctly?
a) Create a CNAME record.
b) Enable DHCP on the NIC.
c) Configure the correct NTP settings.
d) Point to the correct DNS server.
c) Configure the correct NTP settings.
Related Flashcard Decks
Study Tips
- Press F to enter focus mode for distraction-free studying
- Review cards regularly to improve retention
- Try to recall the answer before flipping the card
- Share this deck with friends to study together
| Term | Definition |
|---|---|
An administrator is using a wire map tester to identify different types of issues with cabling. What kinds of issues can the wire map tester detect? (Select all that apply.) | a) Incorrect pin-out d) Continuity -Incorrect pin-out means when the installer incorrectly wired the conductors into the terminals at one or both ends of the cable. -Continuity means open-end in the cable due to cable damage or because the installer did not properly wire the connector. |
An administrator measures the resistance between the two ends of a cable and verifies that the cable has a break. What tool allows the administrator to test the cable in this manner? a) TAP (test access point) b) Tone generator c) Loopback adapter d) Multimeter | d) Multimeter -The purpose of a multimeter is for testing electrical circuits, but it can test for the continuity of any copper wire by measuring the resistance across the cable. -A test access point (TAP) reads the signals from the network stack and will either output two streams to monitor a full-duplex link or rebuild the streams into a single channel. -TAP) monitors the frames on a network, and in the case of an active TAP, it can also perform signal regeneration. |
A network is running slow. To determine why the administrator wants detailed properties for the cable run, including how much attenuation, crosstalk, noise, and resistance are on it. What tool should the administrator use to get all of this information? a) Spectrum analyzer b) OTDR c) Multimeter d) Cable tester | d) Cable tester -The administrator should use a cable tester that reports detailed information on the cable's physical and electrical properties, including crosstalk, attenuation, noise, and resistance. |
An administrator expected a newly installed network cable to operate at 1Gbps. However, when the administrator tested the cable, the speed was never actually that fast. What is the actual performance of the data traveling across the media called? | b) Throughput -Throughput is an average data transfer rate achieved over a period of time, excluding errors incurred at the physical and data link layers and measured at the network or transport layer. |
An administrator is configuring a router from their laptop through a pale blue cable. What kind of cable is this? | b) Console cable -A console, or rollover cable, is traditionally colored pale blue and connects a computer or laptop to the command line terminal of a switch or router. |
New workstations are set up in the office. They currently do not have an Internet Protocol (IP) address set and are connected to the network. These workstations will need to work with applications that are time sensitive. What must the system administrator configure for these applications to function correctly? a) Create a CNAME record. b) Enable DHCP on the NIC. c) Configure the correct NTP settings. d) Point to the correct DNS server. | c) Configure the correct NTP settings. -When it mentions time, NTP is involved. -NTP enables the synchronization of these time-independent applications. Workstations that connect to these applications must know the correct time by pointing to the correct NTP IP address to synchronize time. -CNAME or canonical name record is used to represent an alias for a host. For e.g: the true name of a web server could be masked as the alias WEB. NOTE: The question talks about applications that are "time sensitive". So, since it's related to time, think about NTP. |
Users mention that a video conferencing service is not working properly. The service ties to the company domain name for business purposes. Which domain name system (DNS) record does the tech identify as incorrect? | a) SRV -A Service (SRV) record is a DNS record used to identify a record that is providing a network service or protocol. Properties of this record type include port and protocol. |
Client systems receive IP address configurations via a DHCP server. When negotiating the address information assignment, what relates to available leases? (Select all that apply.) | c) T2 d) T1 -A client can renew its lease from a DHCP server when at least half the lease's period has elapse (T1 timer) so that it keeps the same IP addressing information. -A client can attempt to rebind the same lease configuration with any available DHCP server. By default, this happens after 87.5% of the lease duration is up (T2 timer). |
A set of workstations have been installed in an office floor. The network administrators are preparing to join these servers to the domain after they receive an Internet Protocol (IP) address from the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server. What are the minimum DHCP scope options required to simplify these computers joining the domain? (Select all that apply.) | a) Default gateway c) NTP IP address(es) d) DNS IP address(es) -The default gateway, or option 003, is required so the workstations can route to the rest of the internal LAN. The workstations will need to find a domain controller outside of its broadcast domain. -DNS IP addresses, or option 006, is required so the domain name can be resolved properly to join the workstations to the domain. -NTP Server setting is option 042. Providing the IP addresses for the NTP server will ensure the workstations have the correct time. It will ensure proper joining to the domain. #Must exclude lease time. NOTE: Question itself mentions an attempt to join the "DOMAIN". So, DNS has to be involved. |
A Windows Active Directory (AD) domain uses companyname.com. An external web server uses www.companyname.com. Users on the corporate network cannot reach the web server when using a www prefix. An IT engineer modifies which of the following to remedy the issue? | c) Internal DNS zone -Internal DNS zones refer to the domains used on a private network. As the site uses the same domain name as AD, an A record for www needs to be created internally to point to the public web server address. |
A virtual private network exists between two sites. The main site delivers Internet protocol (IP) addresses to the remote site. A configuration change places the remote site on a different subnet. An IT engineer reconfigures which of the following? | c) Relay -A DHCP relay agent can be configured to provide forwarding of DHCP traffic between different subnets. |
A company has an Active Directory domain called specks.com. The company has an on-demand subscription for cloud services and wants to ensure their internal applications are accessible to their remote employees via their Fully Qualified Domain Names (FQDNs) in the cloud. The company will control all these services and applications. Which of the following will the company most likely be using throughout their organization? (Select all that apply.) a) External DNS server b) Internal DNS server c) Third-party DNS server d) Cloud-hosted DNS server. | b) Internal DNS server d) Cloud-hosted DNS server. -The company is using an internal DNS server because it controls all of its services and applications. The DNS server will provide name resolution using FQDNs. -The company wants to extend its internal DNS services to the cloud and a cloud-hosted option is most appropriate option. The company can deploy a virtual DNS server that is accessible by its cloud users. NOTE: when the internal server and cloud-hosted server is involved, it's always good idea to choose those options. |
A Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) application does not work properly with company email address accounts. A tech concludes that a domain name system (DNS) record is incorrect. Which record type does the tech modify to restore services? | d) SRV -Keyword here is that a DNS record is required to "restore services". |
An engineer configures a DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM) record to list the names allowed to receive email from a given source. Considering domain name system (DNS) record types, which does the engineer configure? | c) TXT record -A TXT record is used to store any free-form text that may be needed to support other network services. DomainKeys Identified mail (DKIM) records are TXT records that are used to decide whether email is allowed from a given source to prevent spam and mail spoofing. |
An engineer configures a sender policy framework (SPF) record to list the server names allowed to send email for a company. Considering domain name system (DNS) record types, which does the engineer configure? | d) TXT record. -A TXT record is used to store any free-form text that may be needed to support other network services. An SPF record is a TXT record that is used to list the IP addresses or names of servers that are permitted to send email. |
A network administrator is working with the in-addr.arpa domain of the company's Domain Name System (DNS) server. The admin creates a pointer (PTR) record for a server's Internet Protocol (IP) address 10.60.100.21. Which of the following Enterprise network components is the administrator working with? | b) The reverse lookup zone -The reverse lookup zone is found in a special domain called in-addr.arpa of a Domain Name System (DNS) server. It contains PTR records to resolve IP addresses to name records (e.g. A record). |
What might cause zone transfers of domain name system (DNS) record updates to fail between multiple DNS servers? | a) Misconfigured stratum #Stratum 1 NTP servers directly connect to an accurate clock source. If an inaccurate Network Time Protocol (NTP) server is specified on a server, it may result in time synchronization and further communication problems. #NTP contains stratum, clients. Stratum 0 is for reference. Stratum 4 synchronizes stratum 3 and stratum 3 synchronizes stratum 2. Maximum stratum levels NTP can handle is 15. |
A server administrator configures a network's internal DNS to set the records for all servers. Users mention that one server, in particular, is not reachable by name. What does the administrator investigate? | a) Forward Lookups -Forward lookups use a forward lookup zone to return an IP address associated with a host name. In this case, an entry for the particular host was likely missed or contains a typo. -A recursive lookup means that if the queried server is not authoritative, it does take on the task of querying other name servers until it finds the requested record or times out. |
Which DNS record type is responsible for identifying a primary authoritative name server? | b) SOA -The Start of Authority (SOA) record identifies a primary authoritative name server that maintains complete resource records for a zone. |
In which of the following would an IT engineer configure a PTR? | c) Reverse lookup zone -A PTR record is found in reverse lookup zones and is used to resolve an IP address to an associated host name. |
A network administrator configures all printers in an organization to be issued specific IP addresses from a DHCP server. What does the administrator configure to accomplish this? (Select all that apply.) | d) Scope options -DHCP servers use scope options to issue configuration options, such as DNS server settings and more. -A scope, on the other hand, defines a range or ranges of addresses that DHCP server can issue to client systems. |
An engineer needs to update a DNS infrastructure with new host names. Which configuration does an engineer modify with host records that map to IP addresses? | c) Forward lookups -Forward lookups use a forward lookup zone to return an IP address associated with a host name. In this case, an entry for the particular host was likely missed or contains a typo. -Time to live (TTL) settings refer to the configuration of caching host names. When the TTL expires, the cache entry is invalid. |
A restaurant chain's corporate offices connect via a hierarchical star network topology. What term does CompTia use to describe the links that aggregate and distribute traffic from multiple different areas of the network? | d) Backbone -The term backbone describes the links that aggregate and distribute traffic from multiple different areas in the network. |
A real estate agent is uploading photos of the latest listing onto the corporate website. Once the agent uploads the photos, they pass through multiple servers undergoing quality checks and sorting to ensure that they appear in the most relevant searches. What term best describes the passing of data from server to server? | a) East-West -East-West is a term to describe traffic that travels or flows between server to server in a data center. |
A network technician is setting up a new office space by plugging in computers, printers, and telephones to workgroup switches via structured cabling and ports on the wall. What tier of the network hierarchy is the network technician plugging these devices? | a) Access/edge -The access/edge layer allows end-user devices to connect to the network using cabling and wall ports for wired access and access points for wireless access. -User/end devices do not plug directly into the backbone, control layer and management plane. |
Name the model typically used in spine and leaf topologies to connect distribution switches to server nodes and provide higher bandwidth than the typical workgroup switch. a) Core b) Software-defined network c) Fibre Channel d) Top-of-rack switching | d) Top-of-rack switching -Top-of-rack switching refers to the practice of using switches specifically made to provide high-bandwidth links between distribution switches and server nodes. |
A business with three different locations needs to share data between storage area networks at each site. This business has a strict budget they need to maintain while achieving this function. Which of the following options can link storage area networks without the need for expensive fiber-specific switches and adapters? | c) Internet Small Computer Systems Interface (iSCSI) -The iSCSI can link Storage Area Networks (SANs) but is also seen as an alternative to Fibre Channel itself since it works over ordinary Ethernet network adapters and switches. |
What is a cost-effective way to connect a Storage Area Network (SAN)? | a) Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE) -FCoE is the standard that allows for mixed use of ethernet networks with both ordinary data and storage network traffic. FCoE delivers Fibre Channel packets over ethernet cabling and switches. |
A network designer is explaining the options a business owner has to manage his business' network infrastructure. One option the business owner can choose will allow devices to provision and decommission quickly and to configure the devices via code in scripts. What is the term for the option described? | d) Software-defined network -A software-defined network makes all parts of the network infrastructure accessible to automation and orchestration technologies. |
Which type of authentication factor should be applied if a network administrator wants to implement a method incorporating gestures as either an intrusion detection or continuous authentication mechanism, despite its susceptibility to error? | b) Something you do. #Something you do refers to behavioral biometric recognition, such as one's gestures, but is subject to high error rates. Something you do authentication is likely to be deployed as an intrusion detection or continuous authentication mechanism. NOTE: behavioral biometric recognition is susceptible to errors. |
Users on a network are complaining about entering credentials each time they want to access multiple log-in portals. What can the network administrator implement to prevent the need for users to re-authenticate to access different resources? (Select all that apply.) | a) Single Sign-On (SSO) c) Kerberos. -Kerberos provides SSO. The system trusts a user once he or she confirms authentication and does not need re-authentication to access different resources. -Single Sign-On (SSO) means that a user only has to authenticate to a system once to gain access to all its resources (that is, all the resources to which the user has been granted rights.) |
The help desk support team of a company is being inundated with tickets regarding user requests for a solution to better manage the need to enter multiple passwords in different web portals. Analyze and explain the disadvantage of the network administrator implementing single sign-on (SSO) as a solution. | c) Compromising the account compromises multiple services. |
A network manager for ABC company in Seattle, WA adds host Advert20 to Active Directory. Advert20 is a client in the Advertising department. Compile this information to design the distinguished name of the client. | d) CN=Advert20, OU=Advertising, O=ABC, L=Seattle, ST=WA, DC=ABC, DC=com -A distinguished name is a unique identifier for any given resource within a X.500 directory. The most specific attribute is listed first, and successive attributes become progressively broader. In this scenario the client name is Advert30 and is the most specific attribute followed by the Organization (OU), Organization (O), Locality (L), State (ST), Domain Component (DC). |
The recent vulnerability assessment has left a company's IT team concerned about business continuity during a catastrophic event that could involve a data breach or even denial of service (DoS) attacks. At this point, what items would the team most strongly consider when doing a business impact analysis (BIA)? (Select all that apply.) | b) Data availability c) Business process #Assessing the process will focus on how to manage or recover from a range of threat scenarios that may include a DoS attack or data breach. Determining the appropriate processes provides options for business continuity. #Focusing on data availability ensures solutions or processes are in place to backup and recover data. Availability is one of the three CIA triad of Confidentiality, Integrity, and Availability. NOTE: This applies to the penetration testing as well. |
An organization considers moving some internal services to the cloud. Which of the following descriptions relates to a hybrid cloud infrastructure? | c) Utilization benefits -A hybrid cloud solution uses a mix of multiple cloud delivery models. One approach is to only utilize cloud services when it forecasts that private services will experience an increase in activity. |
An organization looks to implement a solution where remote workers can access both cloud-based resources and on-premise data. Some users will use company-issued laptops, while others will use personally owned desktop computers. Which solution does the IT department deploy? a) A multitenancy environment b) A hybrid cloud c) A virtual private network d) A desktop as a service environment | c) A virtual private network -Remote workers need VPN. -Since VPN creates a secure channel to share data, VPN could satisfy this company's need to access cloud apps and on-premise data. |
A cloud implementation for a growing business requires additional processing power. How will an engineer provide additional resources in real-time? | c) Implementing elasticity -Elasticity refers to a system's ability to handle changes on-demand in real-time. A system with high elasticity will not experience loss of service or performance if demand increases. |
A company uses several Windows Servers for Active Directory, SQL Server, RADIUS, DHCP, and DNS. Management pushes to move to the cloud. IT suggests moving services in a staggered fashion as to not cause disruption. IT moves SQL server instances to the cloud as a start. IT migrates this specific function to which of the following service types? | d) PaaS -Platform as a Service (PaaS) is a computing method that uses the cloud to provide any platform-type services. A SQL database is an example of PaaS. |
Management at an online retailer meet to discuss delivery options for an online shopping experience. IT proposes using a method where transactions take place in a cloud environment, but using a back-end locally. Which delivery model does IT suggest as a solution? a) Hybrid b) Private c) Public d) Community | a) Hybrid -A hybrid cloud solution uses a mix of multiple cloud delivery models. One approach is to only utilize cloud services when forecasted that private services will experience an increase in activity. |
IT implements Google Suite for Business at a large firm. This implementation negates the need to install any local applications. Considering the implementation, which type of cloud service does IT deploy? | c) SaaS |
An organization moving to a cloud infrastructure joins one of its partners' platforms. Evaluate the given statements and conclude which best fits the organization's approach. | c) Shared costs -A community cloud solution is where several organizations share the costs of either a hosted private or fully private cloud. NOTE: joining a platform is community cloud solution. (You join a community!!!!) |
A network administrator wants to deploy an intrusion detection system. Which of the following authentication factors incorporates biometric recognition that uses a template which is created by analyzing behavior? | c) Something you do -Something you do refers to behavioral biometric recognition. A template is created by analyzing a behavior, and is more likely to be deployed as an intrusion detection or continuous authentication mechanism. -Important to understand that Something you are means employing a biometric recognition system. |
What is the primary authentication method used when only the target device verifies administrator credentials on the system? | c) Local authentication |
A medium organization would like to deploy a secondary security measure that can attract attackers if they are able to bypass the screened subnet firewalls. What security measure would provide this additional layer of security near the network boundary? | d) Honeypot -A honeypot is a computer system set up to attract attackers, with the intention of analyzing attack strategies and tools, to provide early warning of attack attempts, or possibly as a decoy to divert attention from actual computer systems. |
A security researcher discovered a software vulnerability and notified the vendor to give them time to patch the vulnerability. What type of vulnerability is this? | b) Zero-day -Zero-day is a vulnerability that is exploited before the developer knows about it or can release a patch. These can be extremely destructive since it can take the vendor a lot of time to develop a patch and leave the systems vulnerable. |
Which security concept is based on the idea that perimeter security is unlikely to be completely robust? | b) Zero trust -Zero trust is based on the idea that perimeter security is unlikely to be completely robust. It uses continuous authentication and conditional access to mitigate privilege escalation and account compromise. |
The security network administrator of a company wants to ensure only authorized hosts are connecting to the network. Which options would an administrator utilize on routers and switches to provide port-based authentication for network access to devices? (Select all that apply.) | a) Port-based Network Access Control (PNAC) d) Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) 802.1X. -The IEEE 802.1X standard defines a PNAC mechanism, which means that the switch (or router) performs some sort of authentication of the attached device before activating the port. -PNAC means that the switch (or router) performs a type of authentication of the attached device before activating the port. |
A security consulting firm has been granted access to an organization’s network to assess the network’s security posture for about two weeks. The security firm has recently suggested using active or intrusive measures that can confirm any of the network’s assessed weaknesses. What type of action is the security firm asking the organization to authorize? a) Vulnerability assessment b) Posture assessment c) Penetration testing d) Threat assessment | c) Penetration testing -A penetration test (often shortened to pen test) uses authorized hacking techniques to discover exploitable weaknesses in the target's security systems. This is an active approach to assessing vulnerabilities. |
What is the difference between an exploit and a vulnerability? | a) A vulnerability is a security weakness; an exploit is a means of utilizing a vulnerability. -A vulnerability is a weakness triggered or exploited to cause a security breach; an exploit is a means of using a vulnerability to gain control or damage a system. #Understanding threat & risk: The potential to exercise a vulnerability to breach security, is known as threat. The likelihood and impact of a threat actor exercising a vulnerability is known as risk. NOTE: an external attacker doesn't have permissions to systems to exploit. It's the internal attack when it comes to exploitation of systems!!!!! |
A security analyst is using a method to aggregate logs from multiple sources. This tool can provide a long-term retention function and be used to demonstrate regulatory compliance. What is this method called? | a) Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) #Security information and event management (SIEM) is a security control designed to integrate vulnerability and threat assessment efforts through the automated collection, aggregation, and analysis of log data. #Privileged access management (PAM) refers to policies, procedures, and technical controls to prevent the malicious abuse of privileged accounts by internal threat actors and to mitigate risk from weak configurations over privileges. |
Which protocol would a switch authenticating via 802.1x mechanisms use? | c) EAPoL -Under 802.1X, the device requesting access is the supplicant. The switch, referred to as the authenticator, enables the Extensible Authentication Protocol over LAN (EAPoL) protocol only and waits for the device to supply authentication data. -802.1X defines the use of EAP over Wireless (EAPoW) to allow an access point to forward authentication data without allowing any other type of network access. -The IEEE 802.1X Port-based Network Access Control (NAC) protocol provides the means of using an EAP method when a device connects to an Ethernet switch port, wireless access point, or VPN gateway. |
What kind of tool can a network administrator run to measure the network statistics of a building's network equipment? | a) NetFlow -A packet analyzer, such as NetFlow, can measure network traffic statistics, but trying to record each frame imposes a heavy processing overhead on the network tap or mirror port. -A baseline is a snapshot of a known good configuration and how a device operates at that known good configuration. -An audit log records the use of authentication and authorization privileges. It will generally record success/fail type of events. An audit log is also known as an access log or security log. |
A sysadmin is running into the issue that traffic is getting dropped by the network equipment. After researching the issue, the sysadmin found that the individual packets were too small. What should the sysadmin configure to remove? | c) Runts -A runt is a frame that is smaller than the minimum size (64 bytes for Ethernet). A collision usually causes a runt frame. -A giant is a frame that is larger than the maximum permissible size (1518 bytes for Ethernet II). If it is too large, it may get dropped by networking equipment. |
A sysadmin is looking to monitor the network devices by pulling data off of them remotely. What kind of network equipment functionality can the sysadmin use to accomplish this? | a) SNMP trap -A Simple Network Management Protocol Trap is an agent that informs the SNMP monitor of a notable event (port failure, for instance). The sysadmin can set a threshold for triggering traps for each value. |
What do emergency, critical, and informational lines in a syslog refer to? (Select all that apply.) | b) Severity Levels c) Logging Levels -Logging levels refer to the threshold for storing or forwarding an event message based on its severity index or value. -Severity levels is another phrase for logging levels and refers to the categorization and logging of events based on a predetermined value. |
A sysadmin is investigating an issue on a switch after receiving reports that connecting to any network resource, local or on the web, is much slower than normal. What kind of log should the sysadmin investigate to determine what may be causing the issue? | d) Traffic -Performance and traffic logs record statistics for compute, storage, and network resources over a defined period. This log would help to determine performance issues on a given network. |
A network operations engineer is investigating alerts that the data center keeps switching to battery backup. What environmental factor should the engineer investigate? | b) Electrical -Computer systems need a stable power supply, free from outages (blackouts), voltage dips (brownouts), and voltage spikes and surges. -Low humidity increases the risks of static charges building up and damaging components. -High temperatures make it difficult for device and rack cooling systems to dissipate heat effectively. This increases the risk of overheating components within device chassis and consequent faults. |
A sysadmin improved the bandwidth for the office, improving the quality of phone calls. What did the sysadmin improve? | b) Jitter -Defined as being a variation in the delay, jitter manifests itself as an inconsistent rate of packet delivery. Jitter is apparent in phone or voice over internet protocol calls, manifesting as garbled audio. |
A sysadmin is investigating an issue between two geographically distant offices. Users at these locations report that accessing the shared drive at the corporate office is taking too long, even though all three locations have gigabit-speed internet. What indicator could help direct the sysadmin to the issue? | b) Latency -Latency refers to the time it takes for a packet to leave a computer, traverse the network, complete it's request and return to the original device, measured as Round Trip Time or RTT. -Remember that "load balancer" is used to reduce network latency. |
A sysadmin was monitoring the logs of the network equipment in the corporate office and noticed there were a lot of packet collisions. After digging around the individual network boxes, the sysadmin found that there was a misconfigured switch. What setting most likely contributed to packet collisions? a) Bandwidth b) Memory c) Speed/Duplex d) Packet count | c) Speed/Duplex -Half duplex refers to only being able to transfer or receive one at a time. Full duplex refers to being able to transfer and receive at the same time. Having multiple devices configured differently can cause collisions. |
A sysadmin is trying to understand what is causing the company's virtual private network connections to fail. What kind of log would help the sysadmin track down the issue? | a) Syslog |
What describes the calculation of a checksum based on the contents of a frame used to detect errors? | a) CRC -Cyclic redundancy checks (CRC) are a calculation of a checksum based on the contents of a frame used to detect errors. -A memorandum of understanding (MOU) is a preliminary or exploratory agreement to express an intent to work together. |
A sysadmin is researching a connectivity issue. The sysadmin sees the physical link listed as up, but the line protocol listed as down. What may be causing the issue that the sysadmin should investigate? | a) Encapsulation errors. -Encapsulation is the frame format expected on the interface. Encapsulation errors will prevent transmission and reception. If the sysadmin checks the interface status, the physical link will list it as up, but the line protocol will list it as down. |
A sysadmin noticed that there were changes to the hardware firewall not properly documented. The sysadmin does not know who made the change. What type of log should the sysadmin investigate that may shed light on who made the change in the firewall? | c) Audit -An audit log records the use of authentication and authorization privileges. It will generally record success/fail type of events. An audit log is also known as an access log or security log. NOTE: For Firewall report, audit is used not syslog or baseline. For network equipment check, use baseline. |
Which of the following security options would require the use of a smart badge to gain access to a rack enclosure full of rack-mounted servers and storage appliances? | b) Smart locks -A smart locker is a cabinet that supports unlocking via a smart card/badge or biometric. Lockers may also have built-in monitoring and surveillance to alert an administrator when a person adds or removes an item. -(IDS) is a system that can deploy as a hardware appliance or software application. An IDS performs real-time analysis of either network traffic or system and application logs. |
Which device transfers data over voice-grade telephone lines? | b) DSL modem -Digital subscriber line (DSL) is a technology for transferring data over voice-grade telephone lines. The DSL modem connects to the supporting ISP. |
A network administrator needs to provide remote workers access to internal messaging servers but cannot do internal service at the perimeter network. What can the network administrator deploy to listen for client requests from the Internet and create the appropriate request to the internal messaging server? | c) Reverse Proxy -A reverse proxy server provides for protocol-specific inbound traffic. This type of proxy can listen for client requests from the Internet and create the appropriate request to the internal server. -A forwarding proxy server provides for protocol-specific outbound traffic. A web proxy must be able to parse and modify HTTP and HTTPS commands. -A voice gateway is a means of translating between a VoIP system and legacy voice equipment and networks, such as Plain Old Telephone Service (POTS) lines and handsets. |
An engineer configures a wireless distribution system (WDS) in bridged mode. As a result, which of the statements are true regarding access point functionality? | d) In bridged mode, access point functionality does not support wireless clients. -WDS can bridge two separate cabled segments. When WDS is in bridge mode, the AP will not support wireless clients. |
A company updates an Internet use policy for employees to follow. In addition, a server engineer deploys a forward web proxy server onto the network to safeguard and enhance Internet web browsing. What functional features is this particular proxy server setup providing for employees? (Select all that apply.) | a) Traffic Filtering c) Caching engine. -A forwarding proxy server provides for protocol-specific outbound traffic. Most web proxy servers provide caching engines for frequently visited websites. -A multipurpose proxy is one configured with filters for multiple protocol types, such as, HTTP, SMTP and FTP. |
A company implements a new Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) phone system with networked VoIP endpoints at some office desks as a pilot program. The other employees will still be working with analog phone services. How would a network administrator connect this new VoIP system with the existing analog phone system? | b) Voice gateway -A voice gateway is a means of translating between a VoIP system and legacy voice equipment and networks. This gateway can include an integrated VoIP PBX feature as well. -A VoIP PBX by itself provides digital switching of the VoIP system that includes its VoIP endpoints. The VoIP PBX must connect to a voice or VoIP gateway to connect back to the external voice provider, especially an analog service. -A legacy Private Branch Exchange (PBX) system is based on the traditional telephone network and provides switch services for analog voice. |
A typical private network may have a router separating the internal network from the public network (Internet). The router may have a single IP interface to the public network but multiple interfaces connected to multiple internal subnets. How would a network administrator describe these different internal subnets? | c) Each subnet is a broadcast domain. -Each subnet is a separate broadcast domain which allows all nodes in that subnet to communicate with each other but must go through the router to communicate with another subnet or broadcast domain. |
Which of the following systems provide an active response to network threats that match signature patterns? | d) IPS -An intrusion prevention system (IPS) can deploy as hardware or software to provide an active response after analyzing possible network threats that match signature patterns. -IDS is like IPS but provides passive response to detected network threats using alerts such as emails or notifications. |
Which of the following works directly with programmable logical controllers (PLCs) in an industrial complex? a) Smart speakers b) Smart refrigerators c) Wireless printers d) SCADA | d) SCADA -"Industrial complex" is the hint. -Supervisory Control And Data Acquisition (SCADA) is a category of software applications for controlling industrial processes, which is the gathering of data in real time from remote locations in order to control equipment and conditions. -(SCADA) system runs as software on ordinary computers to gather data and manage plant devices and equipment with embedded PLCs, referred to as field devices. |
A systems administrator deploys a proxy server for an organization. The administrator chooses to use a transparent approach to the configuration. Considering how the systems administrator deploys the proxy server, what does this configuration type utilize? | d) Inline network appliance -A transparent proxy intercepts client traffic without the client being configured. A transparent proxy must be implemented on a switch or router or other inline network appliance. #An inline network device is one that receives packets and forwards them to their intended destination. Common inline network devices include routers, switches, firewalls, and intrusion detection and intrusion prevention systems, web application firewalls, antimalware and network taps. Typically residing on layer 2 or layer 3 of the network topology, inline network devices are considered critical to the function of an enterprise network. Any failure of an inline network device typically results in dropped packets, which can cause errors in the computing programs and processes that rely on the successful transmission of those packets. |
HVAC sensors are Internet of Things (IoT) devices that provide monitoring of what type of data? (Select all that apply.) | a) Temperature b) Ventilation d) Humidity -Heating, Ventilation, Air Conditioning (HVAC) sensors are Internet of Things (IoT) devices that monitor environmental controls. For example, one environmental control involves temperature to determine how hot or cold an office, rack enclosure, or building is. |
Which of the following devices operates similarly to a multiport repeater? | d) Hub -A hub acts similar to a multiport repeater so that every port receives transmissions sent from any other port. #As a repeater, the hub works only at the Physical layer. |
A company uses multiple internet providers to maintain a reliable network. The wide area network (WAN) interfaces on a firewall handle the traffic bandwidth with policies. Considering the approach to Internet access, what does this company utilize? | a) Load balancer -A load balancer can switch traffic to alternative nodes, reduce bottlenecks, and allow for failover services. In this case, the network engineer redirects specific traffic to take advantage of available bandwidth. -The network engineer would use a proxy server as an intermediary for network access, such as Internet access. A proxy can control what a system can or cannot connect to. |
Office desktop computers and Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) phones will most likely connect to this network device to communicate with other systems over the Local Area Network (LAN). | c) Layer 3 switch -Layer 3 switch or multilayer switch is a standard switch optimized for routing between VLANs. This will allow office computers and VoIP phones to connect directly for network connection and even power if the switch supports Power over Ethernet (PoE). NOTE: always remember switch when it says VLANs (Cisco switch!!!) |
An administrator connected both a router and a gateway that had dissimilar media types. What kind of issue does this solution remedy? | d) Transceiver issue -A transceiver converts from one media type to another, uses an appropriate Ethernet standard and wavelength, and must match in pairs. |
An administrator suspects there is too much jitter on a network's backbone. What method can the administrator use to identify which device is experiencing issues? c) LED status indicators -LED status indicators on a network interface card (NIC) or a switch/router port indicate the status | c) LED status indicators -LED status indicators on a network interface card (NIC) or a switch/router port indicate the status and problems with a link. |