Pharmacology Exam 1 - Multiple Choice Part 1

The study of drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion is known as

A. pharmacotherapeutics

B. pharmacodynamics

C. pharmacokinetics

D. pharmacy

E. posology

The medical situation when a particular drug should not be administered is referred to as

A. side effect

B. adverse effect

C. drug allergy

D. contraindication

E. antagonism

An unusual or unexpected drug reaction by an individual is known as

A. toxic effect

B. antagonism

C. idiosyncrasy

D. side effect

E. drug allergy

The proprietary drug name supplied by a pharmaceutical company is also referred to as the

A. generic name

B. over-the-counter name

C. trade name

D. chemical name

E. none of these

The time from drug administration to the first observable drug effect is known as the

A. duration of action

B. onset of action

C. ceiling effect

D. maximal response

E. ceiling effect

A drug that has the potential for abuse and is regulated by the Drug Enforcement Agency is classified as a

A. poison

B. OTC drug

C. prescription drug

D. controlled substance

E. nonproprietary drug

Select the term below that relates to the amount of drug administered to produce a therapeutic effect.

A. posology

B. toxicology

C. pharmacodynamics

D. pharmacotherapeutics

E. pharmacy

A medication that does not require a physician's service to obtain is referred to as

A. trade

B. nonproprietary

C. nonprescription

D. brand

E. generic

Which of the following could be categorized as an adverse reaction?

A. idiosyncrasy

B. drug allergy

C. teratogenicity

D. carcinogenicity

E. all of these

The time a drug continues to produce its effect is its

A. ED50

B. maximal response

C. ceiling effect

D. onset of action

E. duration of action

The drug administration route demonstrating the slowest onset of action is

A. inhalation

B. transdermal

C. intramuscular

D. sublingual

E. intravenous

In order for drugs to cross the blood-brain barrier, they must be

A. ionized

B. positively charged

C. water soluble

D. lipid soluble

E. negatively charged

First-pass metabolism refers to the metabolism of drugs in the

A. kidney

B. blood vessels

C. liver

D. heart

E. adipose tissue

Drug X has a half-life of 6 hours. How much drug is left in the body 18 hours after an IV injection of 1200 milligrams (mg)?

Drugs that have demonstrated teratogenic effects in women are classified as Pregnancy Category

A. B

B. C

C. D

D. X

E. NR

When a drug increases the rate of drug metabolism of other drugs, the process is termed

A. first-pass metabolism

B. enzyme induction

C. enzyme inhibition

D. enterohepatic cycling

E. microsomal inhibition

The rate of drug absorption would be increased by which of the following?

A. drug ionization

B. water solubility

C. positively charged drug

D. negatively charged drug

E. lipid solubility

Which factor of individual variation is dependent upon the patient's attitude toward treatment?

A. weight

B. age

C. genetic variation

D. placebo effect

E. gender

Which FDA pregnancy category would appear to be the safest for a developing fetus?

A. Category A

B. Category B

C. Category C

D. Category D

E. Category X

A 45-year-old female shop assistant is treated for heartburn with omeprazole. She notes that the effect of a dose of omeprazole lasts much longer than that of a dose of the antacid drug calcium carbonate she had previously taken. The active metabolite of omeprazole binds covalently and irreversibly to a molecular structure involved in releasing protons into the gastric juice. Drugs that modify their target structures through this mechanism are called

A. suicide substrates.

B. orphan drugs.

C. protein drugs.

D. competitive antagonists.

E. enantiomers.

A 36-year-old male has been diagnosed with chronic myeloid leukemia. His oncologist discusses treatment options with him. The patient is glad to hear that novel anticancer drugs used to treat chronic myeloid leukemia have a much better risk-benefit ratio than older ones, due to their improved selectivity. A major determinant for the selectivity of a given drug is

A) its target receptor ligand affinity.

B) its target receptor cell-type distribution.

C) its ionic interactions.

D) its hydrogen bonding.

E) its intrinsic activity.

A 56-year-old man with chest pain is diagnosed with stable angina and treated with several drugs including nitroglycerin. Every day he has to discontinue nitroglycerin for some hours to re-establish reactivity of his body to the drug. The clinical observation of a rapidly decreasing response to nitroglycerin after administration of just a few doses is called

idiosyncrasy.

tachyphylaxis.

heterologous desensitization.

refractoriness.

receptor downregulation.

Prolonged receptor stimulation during chronic drug therapy may induce cells to endocytose and sequester drug receptors in endocytic vesicles. This molecular mechanism is called

A) tachyphylaxis.

B) inactivation.

C) desensitization.

D) downregulation.

E) refractoriness.

A 16-year-old female with a history of goiter is admitted with fever, profuse sweating, tachyarrhythmia, hypertension, abdominal pain, and anxiety. Based on a working diagnosis of thyrotoxicosis, she is started on a beta-adrenoceptor antagonist that has a very short half-life.

Refer to the case above. Regarding the mechanism by which the drug ameliorates the toxic effects of excessive thyroxine levels, the drug acts as

A) a physiologic antagonist.

B) a competitive receptor antagonist.

C) a noncompetitive receptor antagonist.

D) a partial agonist.

E) an inverse agonist.

The main pharmacologic effect of norepinephrine on alpha-1 receptors is

A. increased heart rate

B. bronchodilation

C. vasoconstriction

D. contraction of urinary bladder

E. increased force of myocardial contraction

The pharmacologic effect of IV metaraminol (an alpha-1 drug) is

A. vasodilation

B. vasoconstriction

C. cardiac stimulation

D. cardiac depression

E. bronchodilation

Epinephrine stimulates

A. alpha-1 receptors

B. alpha-2 receptors

C. beta-1 receptors

D. beta-2 receptors

E. all of these

At therapeutic doses, albuterol stimulates

A. alpha-1 receptors

B. alpha-2 receptors

C. beta-1 receptors

D. beta-2 receptors

E. all of these

Metoprolol is classified as a(n)

A. alpha-blocker

B. nonselective beta-blocker

C. selective beta-1 blocker

D. adrenergic neuronal blocker

E. selective beta-2 blocker

The mechanism of action of methyldopa is

A. increased release of NE from adrenergic nerve ending

B. alpha-1 receptor blocker

C. beta-1 receptor blocker

D. formation of a false transmitter in adrenergic nerve ending

E. none of these

The drug of choice to treat acute allergic reactions is

A. norepinephrine

B. phenylephrine

C. pseudoephedrine

D. epinephrine

E. propranolol

Which of the following are actions of nonselective beta-adrenergic blocking drugs?

A. decreasing heart rate

B. decreasing force of myocardial contraction

C. vasoconstriction of skeletal muscle blood vessels

D. lowering of blood pressure

E. all of these

The actions of epinephrine (EPI) include which of the following?

A. bronchodilation

B. vasoconstriction

C. relaxation of uterus

D. increased heart rate

E. all of these

Parasympathetic receptors located on the membranes of the internal organs are classified as

A. alpha-1

B. nicotinic-neural (Nn)

C. nicotinic-muscle (Nm)

D. muscarinic

E. ganglionic

Select the pharmacologic effect produced by cholinergic drugs.

A. increased heart rate

B. increased gastrointestinal motility

C. decreased urination

D. pupillary dilation

E. bronchodilation

Physostigmine (Eserine ) is classified as a(n)

A. direct-acting cholinergic drug

B. reversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor

C. irreversible acetylcholinesterase inhibitor

D. anticholinergic drug

E. ganglionic blocker

Symptoms of cholinergic drug overdosage include

A. slow pulse rate

B. increased urination

C. diarrhea

D. sweating

E. all of these

Anticholinergic effects include all of the following except

A. bronchodilation

B. increased heart rate

C. increased gastrointestinal activity

D. decreased respiratory secretions

E. dry mouth

The antidote for atropine poisoning is

A. scopolamine

B. bethanechol

C. neostigmine

D. physostigmine

E. dicyclomine

Pick the correct pharmacological effect(s) of direct-acting cholinergic drugs.

A. respiratory paralysis

B. urinary retention

C. increased heart rate

D. bronchodilation

E. none of these

Which of the following would be a preferred treatment for overactive bladder?

A. neostigmine

B. tolterodine

C. physostigmine

D. bethanechol

E. donepezil

Which of the following is correct about the nicotinic-muscle (Nm) receptor blocking drugs?

A. the mechanism of action is the same as represented by dantrolene

B. all of these drugs depolarize the muscle fiber before blockade occurs

C. calcium ions are released from the storage sites

D. there are two groups in this class: either depolarizing agents or nondepolarizing agents

E. botulinumtoxinA rapidly attaches to these receptors

Succinylcholine is associated with which of the following actions?

A. stimulation of the actin and myosin muscle fibrils directly

B. liver damage because the drug is metabolized only by the liver

C. peripheral neuromuscular receptor blockade after stimulating the Nm receptors

D. longer duration of action than vecuronium

E. stimulation of presynaptic ACH release

Centrally acting skeletal muscle relaxants

A. include dantrolene and cisatracurium

B. inhibit or reduce activity within the spinal cord (intraneuronal), interrupting the central stimulus to muscle contraction

C. can only be given parenterally

D. cause systemic release of histamine, leading to hypotension

E. counteract the effect of botulinumtoxin B

Skeletal muscle relaxants may alter control of respiration because

A. the diaphragm is a skeletal muscle

B. succinylcholine stimulates the respiratory centers in the brain

C. like dantrolene, all muscle relaxants inhibit the action of norepinephrine at the neuromuscular junction

D. relaxation of the muscles in the lower extremities pulls blood away from the lungs

E. all skeletal muscle relaxants interfere with calcium ion storage in the muscle

Select the drug or condition(s) that decrease the effects of neuromuscular blockers.

A. neomycin

B. corticosteroids

C. general anesthetics like isoflurane

D. alcohol

E. myasthenia gravis and spinal cord lesions

Which of the following is a way in which skeletal muscles are relaxed?

A. blockage of conduction in the spinal cord

B. inhibiting nerve transmission

C. blockage of the Nm receptors

D. decreasing ACH in the neuromuscular junction

E. all of these

Select reasons for using muscle relaxants during surgical or diagnostic procedures.

A. reduce muscle tear

B. decrease body temperature

C. potentiate vasodilators

D. increase muscle tone

E. depress respiration

Which of the following is NOT a potential adverse effect of peripherally acting skeletal muscle relaxants?

A. difficulty swallowing (dysphagia)

B. skeletal muscle weakness

C. decreased respiration

D. bronchospasm

E. muscle fasciculations

In the presynaptic terminal of neuronal cells, the immediate trigger to release a neurotransmitter from synaptic vesicles into the synaptic cleft is

A) a drop in cytosolic Ca2+.

B) a drop in cytosolic K+.

C) a rise in cytosolic Ca2+.

D) a drop in cytosolic Mg2+.

E) a rise in cytosolic K+.

F) a rise in cytosolic Mg2+.