2023 ARRT Radiology VI Practice Exam with Answers (353 Solved Questions)
2023 ARRT Radiology VI Practice Exam with Answers is the perfect way to get a feel for your upcoming test.
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ARRT VI EXAM 2023 100% CORRECT
Kyphoplasty - Answer Also called per cutaneous vertebralplasty are invasive
procedures indicated for patients who have back pain. Also, these procedures are
done to stabilize a compression fracture that results from osteoporosis, a malignant
tumor of the vertebral body, including cancer types such as multiple myeloma, a
hemangioma, or an injury to this find that results in broken spinal bones. With a
compression fracture, the bones have collapsed in sections of the spine or in the
entire spine. During the procedurehey needle or a guy pan is placed into the
vertebral body using image guidance. Once the needle or guide pin is pleased, a
style that in a cannula are inserted over the needle or the guide pin and into the
pedicle. Through the cannula, a drill is advanced. Once an inflatable balloon device
is placed into the vertebral body and expands it, The bone is compacted and a cavity
space is open. Using real-time image guidance, the vertebral bodies cavity space is
injected with the bone cement.
Lovenox - Answer A parenteral anticoagulant used to treat thromboembolic
conditions. Anticoagulant drugs include heparin, plavix coumadin lovenox and
heparin are examples of parent Terrell coagulants. Coumadin is an example of an
oral anticoagulant. Heparin and I'm on some parents should not be taken orally or
given intramuscularly. If taken orally, the gastrointestinal tract does not absorb these
drugs. Hematoma can occur if these drugs are given intramuscularly. Patientpatients
who receive interventional procedures and taken anticoagulant drugs is monitored to
ensure overdose does not occur, which can be evident by a hemorrhage
Raynaud's disease is an example of - Answer Functional peri feral vascular disease.
It is a type of circulation disorder associated with peripheral vascular disease, beside
organic peripheral vascular disease. Functional peripheral vascular disease is
associated with short-term spasms. The onset of functional peripheral vascular
disease includes emotional stress, smoking, exposure to cold temperatures, four
instance.
Best catheter for upper extremities - Answer H1H. Several catheters are good for
upper extremities depending in the age of the patient. H1H suitable for younger
patients while Berenstein and Simmons tend to be more suitable for older patients.
Simple consent - Answer Simple consent is getting the patient's permission to
perform a procedure. Simple consent is further categorized into two types one
express consent into implied consent with express consent to consent is given in
writing verbally or just by allowing the procedure to happen. And implied consent
often takes place in an emergency situation where the patient is on able to give
consent
Uretic compression - Answer A process that allows the pelvicalyceal to fill and for the
contrast media to stay in the renal collecting system longer one more involved and
complicated studies are performed. He device is used to perform the ureteric
compression and is put on the patient before the contrast material is injected
Leading cause of aortic aneurysms - Answer Atherosclerosis is the leading cause of
aortic aneurysm him. This condition occurs when aweakness develops in the lumbar
region and the aorta balloons out
Kyphoplasty - Answer Also called per cutaneous vertebralplasty are invasive
procedures indicated for patients who have back pain. Also, these procedures are
done to stabilize a compression fracture that results from osteoporosis, a malignant
tumor of the vertebral body, including cancer types such as multiple myeloma, a
hemangioma, or an injury to this find that results in broken spinal bones. With a
compression fracture, the bones have collapsed in sections of the spine or in the
entire spine. During the procedurehey needle or a guy pan is placed into the
vertebral body using image guidance. Once the needle or guide pin is pleased, a
style that in a cannula are inserted over the needle or the guide pin and into the
pedicle. Through the cannula, a drill is advanced. Once an inflatable balloon device
is placed into the vertebral body and expands it, The bone is compacted and a cavity
space is open. Using real-time image guidance, the vertebral bodies cavity space is
injected with the bone cement.
Lovenox - Answer A parenteral anticoagulant used to treat thromboembolic
conditions. Anticoagulant drugs include heparin, plavix coumadin lovenox and
heparin are examples of parent Terrell coagulants. Coumadin is an example of an
oral anticoagulant. Heparin and I'm on some parents should not be taken orally or
given intramuscularly. If taken orally, the gastrointestinal tract does not absorb these
drugs. Hematoma can occur if these drugs are given intramuscularly. Patientpatients
who receive interventional procedures and taken anticoagulant drugs is monitored to
ensure overdose does not occur, which can be evident by a hemorrhage
Raynaud's disease is an example of - Answer Functional peri feral vascular disease.
It is a type of circulation disorder associated with peripheral vascular disease, beside
organic peripheral vascular disease. Functional peripheral vascular disease is
associated with short-term spasms. The onset of functional peripheral vascular
disease includes emotional stress, smoking, exposure to cold temperatures, four
instance.
Best catheter for upper extremities - Answer H1H. Several catheters are good for
upper extremities depending in the age of the patient. H1H suitable for younger
patients while Berenstein and Simmons tend to be more suitable for older patients.
Simple consent - Answer Simple consent is getting the patient's permission to
perform a procedure. Simple consent is further categorized into two types one
express consent into implied consent with express consent to consent is given in
writing verbally or just by allowing the procedure to happen. And implied consent
often takes place in an emergency situation where the patient is on able to give
consent
Uretic compression - Answer A process that allows the pelvicalyceal to fill and for the
contrast media to stay in the renal collecting system longer one more involved and
complicated studies are performed. He device is used to perform the ureteric
compression and is put on the patient before the contrast material is injected
Leading cause of aortic aneurysms - Answer Atherosclerosis is the leading cause of
aortic aneurysm him. This condition occurs when aweakness develops in the lumbar
region and the aorta balloons out
ARRT VI EXAM 2023 100% CORRECT
Kyphoplasty - Answer Also called per cutaneous vertebralplasty are invasive
procedures indicated for patients who have back pain. Also, these procedures are
done to stabilize a compression fracture that results from osteoporosis, a malignant
tumor of the vertebral body, including cancer types such as multiple myeloma, a
hemangioma, or an injury to this find that results in broken spinal bones. With a
compression fracture, the bones have collapsed in sections of the spine or in the
entire spine. During the procedurehey needle or a guy pan is placed into the
vertebral body using image guidance. Once the needle or guide pin is pleased, a
style that in a cannula are inserted over the needle or the guide pin and into the
pedicle. Through the cannula, a drill is advanced. Once an inflatable balloon device
is placed into the vertebral body and expands it, The bone is compacted and a cavity
space is open. Using real-time image guidance, the vertebral bodies cavity space is
injected with the bone cement.
Lovenox - Answer A parenteral anticoagulant used to treat thromboembolic
conditions. Anticoagulant drugs include heparin, plavix coumadin lovenox and
heparin are examples of parent Terrell coagulants. Coumadin is an example of an
oral anticoagulant. Heparin and I'm on some parents should not be taken orally or
given intramuscularly. If taken orally, the gastrointestinal tract does not absorb these
drugs. Hematoma can occur if these drugs are given intramuscularly. Patientpatients
who receive interventional procedures and taken anticoagulant drugs is monitored to
ensure overdose does not occur, which can be evident by a hemorrhage
Raynaud's disease is an example of - Answer Functional peri feral vascular disease.
It is a type of circulation disorder associated with peripheral vascular disease, beside
organic peripheral vascular disease. Functional peripheral vascular disease is
associated with short-term spasms. The onset of functional peripheral vascular
disease includes emotional stress, smoking, exposure to cold temperatures, four
instance.
Best catheter for upper extremities - Answer H1H. Several catheters are good for
upper extremities depending in the age of the patient. H1H suitable for younger
patients while Berenstein and Simmons tend to be more suitable for older patients.
Simple consent - Answer Simple consent is getting the patient's permission to
perform a procedure. Simple consent is further categorized into two types one
express consent into implied consent with express consent to consent is given in
writing verbally or just by allowing the procedure to happen. And implied consent
often takes place in an emergency situation where the patient is on able to give
consent
Uretic compression - Answer A process that allows the pelvicalyceal to fill and for the
contrast media to stay in the renal collecting system longer one more involved and
complicated studies are performed. He device is used to perform the ureteric
compression and is put on the patient before the contrast material is injected
Leading cause of aortic aneurysms - Answer Atherosclerosis is the leading cause of
aortic aneurysm him. This condition occurs when aweakness develops in the lumbar
region and the aorta balloons out
Kyphoplasty - Answer Also called per cutaneous vertebralplasty are invasive
procedures indicated for patients who have back pain. Also, these procedures are
done to stabilize a compression fracture that results from osteoporosis, a malignant
tumor of the vertebral body, including cancer types such as multiple myeloma, a
hemangioma, or an injury to this find that results in broken spinal bones. With a
compression fracture, the bones have collapsed in sections of the spine or in the
entire spine. During the procedurehey needle or a guy pan is placed into the
vertebral body using image guidance. Once the needle or guide pin is pleased, a
style that in a cannula are inserted over the needle or the guide pin and into the
pedicle. Through the cannula, a drill is advanced. Once an inflatable balloon device
is placed into the vertebral body and expands it, The bone is compacted and a cavity
space is open. Using real-time image guidance, the vertebral bodies cavity space is
injected with the bone cement.
Lovenox - Answer A parenteral anticoagulant used to treat thromboembolic
conditions. Anticoagulant drugs include heparin, plavix coumadin lovenox and
heparin are examples of parent Terrell coagulants. Coumadin is an example of an
oral anticoagulant. Heparin and I'm on some parents should not be taken orally or
given intramuscularly. If taken orally, the gastrointestinal tract does not absorb these
drugs. Hematoma can occur if these drugs are given intramuscularly. Patientpatients
who receive interventional procedures and taken anticoagulant drugs is monitored to
ensure overdose does not occur, which can be evident by a hemorrhage
Raynaud's disease is an example of - Answer Functional peri feral vascular disease.
It is a type of circulation disorder associated with peripheral vascular disease, beside
organic peripheral vascular disease. Functional peripheral vascular disease is
associated with short-term spasms. The onset of functional peripheral vascular
disease includes emotional stress, smoking, exposure to cold temperatures, four
instance.
Best catheter for upper extremities - Answer H1H. Several catheters are good for
upper extremities depending in the age of the patient. H1H suitable for younger
patients while Berenstein and Simmons tend to be more suitable for older patients.
Simple consent - Answer Simple consent is getting the patient's permission to
perform a procedure. Simple consent is further categorized into two types one
express consent into implied consent with express consent to consent is given in
writing verbally or just by allowing the procedure to happen. And implied consent
often takes place in an emergency situation where the patient is on able to give
consent
Uretic compression - Answer A process that allows the pelvicalyceal to fill and for the
contrast media to stay in the renal collecting system longer one more involved and
complicated studies are performed. He device is used to perform the ureteric
compression and is put on the patient before the contrast material is injected
Leading cause of aortic aneurysms - Answer Atherosclerosis is the leading cause of
aortic aneurysm him. This condition occurs when aweakness develops in the lumbar
region and the aorta balloons out
ARRT VI EXAM 2023 100% CORRECT
Qualifications for abdominal aortic aneurysm ultrasound screening - Answer Family
history abdominal aortic aneurysm or, a male who is aged 65 to 75 years old, a male
who smokes cigarettes and has smoked a minimum of 100 cigarettes over the
course of his life
Wilkie's syndrome - Answer Hey vascular compression disorder of the superior
mesenteric artery or SMA that can be checked with the vascular interventional
radiology
The posterior branches of the renal arteries supply blood to which of the part of the
kidney? - Answer Upper pole and posterior portion
Best common catheter used for visceral angiography are - Answer Cobras and
sidewinders
Visceral angiography evaluates bloodflow in the liver, spleen, and bowel
External renal stone removal procedures are generally used for stones larger then -
Answer 2 cm or 8 inches
The folds in the brain matter are known as - Answer Gyrus. The brain matter is made
up of folds and fishers the folds are known as gyrus
A digital image acquisition mode where one image is produced a refers to? - Answer
Digital angiography. Image production for vascular image has three types of modes
for digital image acquisition, which are Digital angiography, Digital cineradiography
and digital subtraction angiography. With digital angeography, also called spa
filming, a single images produced. For instance,
Organic peripheral vascular disease - Answer Hey disease that occurs when
structural changes service in the blood vessel. Examples of this disorder are tissue
damage and inflammation. Further, a type of organic peripheral vascular disease is a
peripheral artery disease. When the blood flow is restricted in the arteries, which are
the blood vessels that transports blood to the organs of the body from the heart, the
arteries restricts or Narrows and fattydeposits accumulate and block the arteries also
arthrosclerosis peripheral arterial disease happens when the blood does not flow
through the arteries sufficiently to provide adequate blood supply to the muscles in
the body. This condition most often occurs in the legs and arms.signs and symptoms
of peripheral artery disease that has progressed into advanced stages are pain,
especially in the feet or toes, paleness in the legs one elevated, does colorization,
such as blue or red numbness soreness of the foot tiredness of the legs to name a
few
Moral values - Answer Believes cultivated based on cultural family and suicidal
ideas.
Law - Answer a set of established rules
Ethics - Answer The standards that govern the way an individual asked and guides
the person to decide what is right or wrong
Qualifications for abdominal aortic aneurysm ultrasound screening - Answer Family
history abdominal aortic aneurysm or, a male who is aged 65 to 75 years old, a male
who smokes cigarettes and has smoked a minimum of 100 cigarettes over the
course of his life
Wilkie's syndrome - Answer Hey vascular compression disorder of the superior
mesenteric artery or SMA that can be checked with the vascular interventional
radiology
The posterior branches of the renal arteries supply blood to which of the part of the
kidney? - Answer Upper pole and posterior portion
Best common catheter used for visceral angiography are - Answer Cobras and
sidewinders
Visceral angiography evaluates bloodflow in the liver, spleen, and bowel
External renal stone removal procedures are generally used for stones larger then -
Answer 2 cm or 8 inches
The folds in the brain matter are known as - Answer Gyrus. The brain matter is made
up of folds and fishers the folds are known as gyrus
A digital image acquisition mode where one image is produced a refers to? - Answer
Digital angiography. Image production for vascular image has three types of modes
for digital image acquisition, which are Digital angiography, Digital cineradiography
and digital subtraction angiography. With digital angeography, also called spa
filming, a single images produced. For instance,
Organic peripheral vascular disease - Answer Hey disease that occurs when
structural changes service in the blood vessel. Examples of this disorder are tissue
damage and inflammation. Further, a type of organic peripheral vascular disease is a
peripheral artery disease. When the blood flow is restricted in the arteries, which are
the blood vessels that transports blood to the organs of the body from the heart, the
arteries restricts or Narrows and fattydeposits accumulate and block the arteries also
arthrosclerosis peripheral arterial disease happens when the blood does not flow
through the arteries sufficiently to provide adequate blood supply to the muscles in
the body. This condition most often occurs in the legs and arms.signs and symptoms
of peripheral artery disease that has progressed into advanced stages are pain,
especially in the feet or toes, paleness in the legs one elevated, does colorization,
such as blue or red numbness soreness of the foot tiredness of the legs to name a
few
Moral values - Answer Believes cultivated based on cultural family and suicidal
ideas.
Law - Answer a set of established rules
Ethics - Answer The standards that govern the way an individual asked and guides
the person to decide what is right or wrong
ARRT VI EXAM 2023 100% CORRECT
Vascular insufficiency - Answer When blood valves do not work properly and blood
begins to flow backwards. A thrombectomy is used to remove a blood clot from a
vessel. It is a type of surgical procedure. The procedure restores proper circulation.
Patients that have severe vascular insufficiency are recommended to have this
procedure
Cholecystitis - Answer And acute infection and inflammation of the gallbladder
A procedure that images all of the arteries in the skull - Answer Cerebral
angiography
Atropine - Answer Correct Answer:
Atropine
Medication often used to treat patients who have a reaction to contrast material,
whether it is a minor reaction or a major life threatening reaction, are B-agonists
inhalers, epinephrine, atropine, and diphenhydramine to name a few. Atropine is a
muscarinic cholinergic blocking agent.
Tunneled catheter - Answer Tunneled catheters are passed underneath the skin
from the insertion site to a separate exit site. Common types of tunneled catheters
used are Hickman, Groshong, Leonard, and Broviac catheters.
The common bile duct joins the pancreatic duct before opening up into which of the
following structures? - Answer Correct Answer:
Duodenum
The common duct combines with the pancreatic duct before opening up into the
duodenum. These ducts are part of the biliary system, which carries bile secretions
from the liver to the duodenum.
The vessel which lies along the ventral surface of the brainstem is known as which of
the following? - Answer Explanation:
Correct Answer:
Basilar artery
The basilar artery lies on the ventral surface of the brainstem. This artery supplies
blood to the brain stem.
The use of a MRI during the preprocedure phase for a kyphoplasty helps to: -
Answer Explanation:
Correct Answer:
Identify spine degenerative disease
Preparation for a kyphoplasty may involve imaging studies, such as a computed
tomography (CT), plain x-ray films or a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).
A CT scan is used to locate pedicle fractures in order to find a pedicle that is not
damaged for access or entry during the kyphoplasty procedure. Then, plain x-ray
films determine the extent of the vertebral body compression. A magnetic resonance
Vascular insufficiency - Answer When blood valves do not work properly and blood
begins to flow backwards. A thrombectomy is used to remove a blood clot from a
vessel. It is a type of surgical procedure. The procedure restores proper circulation.
Patients that have severe vascular insufficiency are recommended to have this
procedure
Cholecystitis - Answer And acute infection and inflammation of the gallbladder
A procedure that images all of the arteries in the skull - Answer Cerebral
angiography
Atropine - Answer Correct Answer:
Atropine
Medication often used to treat patients who have a reaction to contrast material,
whether it is a minor reaction or a major life threatening reaction, are B-agonists
inhalers, epinephrine, atropine, and diphenhydramine to name a few. Atropine is a
muscarinic cholinergic blocking agent.
Tunneled catheter - Answer Tunneled catheters are passed underneath the skin
from the insertion site to a separate exit site. Common types of tunneled catheters
used are Hickman, Groshong, Leonard, and Broviac catheters.
The common bile duct joins the pancreatic duct before opening up into which of the
following structures? - Answer Correct Answer:
Duodenum
The common duct combines with the pancreatic duct before opening up into the
duodenum. These ducts are part of the biliary system, which carries bile secretions
from the liver to the duodenum.
The vessel which lies along the ventral surface of the brainstem is known as which of
the following? - Answer Explanation:
Correct Answer:
Basilar artery
The basilar artery lies on the ventral surface of the brainstem. This artery supplies
blood to the brain stem.
The use of a MRI during the preprocedure phase for a kyphoplasty helps to: -
Answer Explanation:
Correct Answer:
Identify spine degenerative disease
Preparation for a kyphoplasty may involve imaging studies, such as a computed
tomography (CT), plain x-ray films or a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).
A CT scan is used to locate pedicle fractures in order to find a pedicle that is not
damaged for access or entry during the kyphoplasty procedure. Then, plain x-ray
films determine the extent of the vertebral body compression. A magnetic resonance
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ARRT VI EXAM 2023 100% CORRECT
imaging (MRI) study evaluates the spine for other conditions that may cause back
pain, such as spine degenerative disease.
Which of the following is not a reason that an intracranial vascular treatment would
occur?
AVM.
Aneurysms.
Collapsed lung.
Tumors that have excessive blood flow. - Answer Collapsed lung
Intracranial vascular treatments are used to gain images of the body's blood vessels.
It is focused on the blood flow in the arteries and veins in the brain. It can be used to
help treat and detect aneurysms, AVM, AVF and tumors.
Most wires constructed into guidewires are composed of:
Kinase
Asystole
Stainless steel
Cardiac index - Answer Stainless steel
A contaminated latex glove is best described as:
a cyst
a vector
a fomite
sterilization - Answer a fomite
Fomites are contaminated inanimate objects that have been exposed to infectious
agents. Infectious agents can live on inanimate objects, such as gloves, radiographic
equipment, food, water, medical devices, clothes, bedding and towels, for example.
A cyst is not the best answer choice as this is where a parasite is enclosed in a
covering or protective wall. A vector is a carrier of an infectious disease that spreads
the disease from one host to another host. Then, sterilization is the elimination of a
microorganism.
The right lobe of the liver is composed of which of the following segments?
Anterior and posterior.
Medial and lateral.
Superior and inferior.
Medial and inferior. - Answer Anterior and posterior
The liver is divided into right and left lobes by a line drawn between the gallbladder
and the inferior vena cava. The right lobe is composed of anterior and posterior
segments, each with superior and inferior subsegments
Abdominal aortography requires how many milliliters of contrast medium injection?
60-70.
10-20.
1-5.
imaging (MRI) study evaluates the spine for other conditions that may cause back
pain, such as spine degenerative disease.
Which of the following is not a reason that an intracranial vascular treatment would
occur?
AVM.
Aneurysms.
Collapsed lung.
Tumors that have excessive blood flow. - Answer Collapsed lung
Intracranial vascular treatments are used to gain images of the body's blood vessels.
It is focused on the blood flow in the arteries and veins in the brain. It can be used to
help treat and detect aneurysms, AVM, AVF and tumors.
Most wires constructed into guidewires are composed of:
Kinase
Asystole
Stainless steel
Cardiac index - Answer Stainless steel
A contaminated latex glove is best described as:
a cyst
a vector
a fomite
sterilization - Answer a fomite
Fomites are contaminated inanimate objects that have been exposed to infectious
agents. Infectious agents can live on inanimate objects, such as gloves, radiographic
equipment, food, water, medical devices, clothes, bedding and towels, for example.
A cyst is not the best answer choice as this is where a parasite is enclosed in a
covering or protective wall. A vector is a carrier of an infectious disease that spreads
the disease from one host to another host. Then, sterilization is the elimination of a
microorganism.
The right lobe of the liver is composed of which of the following segments?
Anterior and posterior.
Medial and lateral.
Superior and inferior.
Medial and inferior. - Answer Anterior and posterior
The liver is divided into right and left lobes by a line drawn between the gallbladder
and the inferior vena cava. The right lobe is composed of anterior and posterior
segments, each with superior and inferior subsegments
Abdominal aortography requires how many milliliters of contrast medium injection?
60-70.
10-20.
1-5.
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ARRT VI EXAM 2023 100% CORRECT
40-50. - Answer Abdominal aortography requires 40 to 50 milliliters of contrast
media injection. Knowledge of the appropriate amount of contrast medium required
for procedures is essential to radiographic professionalism
The small saphenous vein usually drains into which vessel?
Fibular vein.
Femoral vein.
Popliteal vein.
Anterior tibial. - Answer Popliteal vein
The small saphenous vein is a rather large superficial vein in the posterior leg. It
usually drains into the popliteal vein, but it sometimes joins with the Giacomini vein
and that merged vein drains into the great saphenous vein. Knowledge of anatomy is
an essential part of professionalism for radiographers
Of which of the following is the deltoid artery a branch?
Subclavian artery.
Thoracoacromial trunk.
Thyrocervical trunk.
Descending aorta - Answer Thoracoacromial trunk
The deltoid artery is a branch of the thoracoacromial trunk. It supplies blood to the
deltoid muscle
Which of the following best identifies a functionality of a guide wire?
It prevents a catheter from being inserted into an organ
It allows access to the blood vessel
A guide wire is made of thick coils of gold rope
A guide wire is attached to the tip of a balloon catheter tip - Answer It allows access
to the blood vessel
For vascular access procedures or minimally invasive procedures, several types of
equipment is used to access the blood vessels, the bile duct, and other organs in the
body. The equipment may include imaging equipment, a needle, guide wire or a
catheter. A guide wire is defined as a thin piece of wire. The wire helps to guide the
insertion and placement of a catheter, stent or material into the body.
At what level does the celiac artery arise from the abdominal aorta?
L3-L5.
T10-T12.
T9-T11.
T12-L1. - Answer T12-L1
The celiac artery arises from the abdominal aorta at the T12 to L1 level. Knowledge
of anatomy and the position of organs and blood vessels is essential to radiographic
professionalism.
What should a radiologic technologist remember when using moral rules to make an
ethical decision?
Moral rules require a health care professional to make alternate choices
40-50. - Answer Abdominal aortography requires 40 to 50 milliliters of contrast
media injection. Knowledge of the appropriate amount of contrast medium required
for procedures is essential to radiographic professionalism
The small saphenous vein usually drains into which vessel?
Fibular vein.
Femoral vein.
Popliteal vein.
Anterior tibial. - Answer Popliteal vein
The small saphenous vein is a rather large superficial vein in the posterior leg. It
usually drains into the popliteal vein, but it sometimes joins with the Giacomini vein
and that merged vein drains into the great saphenous vein. Knowledge of anatomy is
an essential part of professionalism for radiographers
Of which of the following is the deltoid artery a branch?
Subclavian artery.
Thoracoacromial trunk.
Thyrocervical trunk.
Descending aorta - Answer Thoracoacromial trunk
The deltoid artery is a branch of the thoracoacromial trunk. It supplies blood to the
deltoid muscle
Which of the following best identifies a functionality of a guide wire?
It prevents a catheter from being inserted into an organ
It allows access to the blood vessel
A guide wire is made of thick coils of gold rope
A guide wire is attached to the tip of a balloon catheter tip - Answer It allows access
to the blood vessel
For vascular access procedures or minimally invasive procedures, several types of
equipment is used to access the blood vessels, the bile duct, and other organs in the
body. The equipment may include imaging equipment, a needle, guide wire or a
catheter. A guide wire is defined as a thin piece of wire. The wire helps to guide the
insertion and placement of a catheter, stent or material into the body.
At what level does the celiac artery arise from the abdominal aorta?
L3-L5.
T10-T12.
T9-T11.
T12-L1. - Answer T12-L1
The celiac artery arises from the abdominal aorta at the T12 to L1 level. Knowledge
of anatomy and the position of organs and blood vessels is essential to radiographic
professionalism.
What should a radiologic technologist remember when using moral rules to make an
ethical decision?
Moral rules require a health care professional to make alternate choices
Loading page 6...
ARRT VI EXAM 2023 100% CORRECT
Moral rules are grounded in conflict resolution
Moral rules are incomplete
Moral rules are applicable to a subset of professional groups - Answer Moral rules
are incomplete
Moral rules deal with statements governing right and wrong conduct or behavior.
Moral rules typically apply to individual behavior. Moral rules have limitations such as
they are not complete and do not address all ethical situations that may arise.
Therefore, moral rules often rely on an individual's personal judgment when dealing
with an ethical situation and making a decision.
The thoracic aorta ends at which level?
T9.
L1.
T12.
T4. - Answer T12
The thoracic aorta is contained in the posterior mediastinal cavity. It ends at the
aortic hiatus of the diaphragm in the T12 level.
Which of the following documents is referred to a "declaration" in some states?
Health care power of attorney
A living will
A physician's order
A requisition request - Answer A living will
Health care advanced directives are legal documents that express the wishes of the
patient if the individual is incompetent or unable to make medical decisions. A living
will outlines an individual's choices for medical care.
In some states, a living will may be called a declaration. A living takes effect when
the patient is incapacitated and is not able to make decisions about his or her
medical care or in situations where the patient has a terminal medical illness or is
unconscious.
The living will can have directions for medical care, such as if the patient want or
does not want cardiopulmonary resuscitation, mechanical ventilation or nutritional
feedings through a tube, for example.
The left and right hepatic ducts combine to form which of the following?
Common hepatic duct.
Common bile duct.
Biliary tract.
Celiac artery. - Answer Common hepatic duct
The left and right hepatic ducts combine to form the common hepatic duct. The
common hepatic duct is part of the biliary tract, which transports bile from the liver to
the small intestine.
Moral rules are grounded in conflict resolution
Moral rules are incomplete
Moral rules are applicable to a subset of professional groups - Answer Moral rules
are incomplete
Moral rules deal with statements governing right and wrong conduct or behavior.
Moral rules typically apply to individual behavior. Moral rules have limitations such as
they are not complete and do not address all ethical situations that may arise.
Therefore, moral rules often rely on an individual's personal judgment when dealing
with an ethical situation and making a decision.
The thoracic aorta ends at which level?
T9.
L1.
T12.
T4. - Answer T12
The thoracic aorta is contained in the posterior mediastinal cavity. It ends at the
aortic hiatus of the diaphragm in the T12 level.
Which of the following documents is referred to a "declaration" in some states?
Health care power of attorney
A living will
A physician's order
A requisition request - Answer A living will
Health care advanced directives are legal documents that express the wishes of the
patient if the individual is incompetent or unable to make medical decisions. A living
will outlines an individual's choices for medical care.
In some states, a living will may be called a declaration. A living takes effect when
the patient is incapacitated and is not able to make decisions about his or her
medical care or in situations where the patient has a terminal medical illness or is
unconscious.
The living will can have directions for medical care, such as if the patient want or
does not want cardiopulmonary resuscitation, mechanical ventilation or nutritional
feedings through a tube, for example.
The left and right hepatic ducts combine to form which of the following?
Common hepatic duct.
Common bile duct.
Biliary tract.
Celiac artery. - Answer Common hepatic duct
The left and right hepatic ducts combine to form the common hepatic duct. The
common hepatic duct is part of the biliary tract, which transports bile from the liver to
the small intestine.
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ARRT VI EXAM 2023 100% CORRECT
Unlike an angiogram, a thrombolysis procedure is performed by inserting the
catheter how?
Using a percutaneous needle.
Through a small incision.
Directly into the thrombus site.
None of the above - Answer Through a small incision
An angiogram typically uses a needle to create a percutaneous puncture for the
catheter. However, a thrombolysis may use a larger catheter or need a larger entry
port to target a thrombus, so the technician will create a small incision in the skin in
order to gain better access. The incision is typically very small and may or may not
need a stitch/suture to close
Which of the following is NOT one of the major branches of the celiac trunk?
Left gastric artery.
Splenic artery.
Superior mesenteric artery.
Common hepatic artery. - Answer Superior mesenteric artery
The celiac trunk has three major branches: the splenic artery, common hepatic
artery, and left gastric artery. The superior mesenteric artery is a branch of the
thoracic artery.
A patient is scheduled to undergo an angiography of the adrenal glands. Monitoring
the patient's blood pressure is important to evaluate the patient for symptoms of:
Electrolyte imbalances
Activated clotting time
Hypertensive crisis
Hypertrophy - Answer Hypertensive crisis
The blood pressure is monitored constantly during an angiography procedure of the
adrenal glands. The monitoring helps to identify emergency conditions, such as
malignant hypertensive crisis.
Hypertensive crisis often develops from kidney failure, individuals who have vascular
disorders, such as collagen vascular disorder, renal artery stenosis that leads to
renal hypertension, to name a few.
Symptoms of hypertensive crisis may include: confusion, fatigue, chest pain,
headache, blurred vision, seizure, weakness or numbness in the extremities, for
instance.
When performing lower limb venography, an injection is made into which of the
following vessels?
Unlike an angiogram, a thrombolysis procedure is performed by inserting the
catheter how?
Using a percutaneous needle.
Through a small incision.
Directly into the thrombus site.
None of the above - Answer Through a small incision
An angiogram typically uses a needle to create a percutaneous puncture for the
catheter. However, a thrombolysis may use a larger catheter or need a larger entry
port to target a thrombus, so the technician will create a small incision in the skin in
order to gain better access. The incision is typically very small and may or may not
need a stitch/suture to close
Which of the following is NOT one of the major branches of the celiac trunk?
Left gastric artery.
Splenic artery.
Superior mesenteric artery.
Common hepatic artery. - Answer Superior mesenteric artery
The celiac trunk has three major branches: the splenic artery, common hepatic
artery, and left gastric artery. The superior mesenteric artery is a branch of the
thoracic artery.
A patient is scheduled to undergo an angiography of the adrenal glands. Monitoring
the patient's blood pressure is important to evaluate the patient for symptoms of:
Electrolyte imbalances
Activated clotting time
Hypertensive crisis
Hypertrophy - Answer Hypertensive crisis
The blood pressure is monitored constantly during an angiography procedure of the
adrenal glands. The monitoring helps to identify emergency conditions, such as
malignant hypertensive crisis.
Hypertensive crisis often develops from kidney failure, individuals who have vascular
disorders, such as collagen vascular disorder, renal artery stenosis that leads to
renal hypertension, to name a few.
Symptoms of hypertensive crisis may include: confusion, fatigue, chest pain,
headache, blurred vision, seizure, weakness or numbness in the extremities, for
instance.
When performing lower limb venography, an injection is made into which of the
following vessels?
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ARRT VI EXAM 2023 100% CORRECT
Deep vein of the foot.
Superficial vein of the foot.
Superficial vein of the leg.
Deep vein of the leg - Answer Superficial vein of the foot
Lower limb venography is used to exclude thrombosis of the deep veins. When
performing a lower limb venography, an injection is made into a superficial vein of
the foot, such as the dorsal venous arch.
Positioning of the patient for renal venography is done in the:
Supine position
Sim's
Fowlers
Trendelenburg - Answer Supine position
A renal venograph is an x-ray that is used to evaluate the kidneys. The test can also
determine the amount of hormone levels the kidney is producing. Further, renal
venography is indicated for evaluation of the kidneys for tumors or renal cell
carcinoma, blood clots (renal thrombus), for instance. Access for catheter insertion is
done through the femoral or jugular vein.
Positioning of the patient involves placing the patient in the supine position on the x-
ray table. The patient's abdomen is centered so that it is over the film. The skin
located over the femoral vein, if used for access, is prepped by cleaning the skin
using antiseptic liquid and then draped. An anesthetic agent is then injected,
followed by cannulation of the femoral vein. Fluoroscopic guidance is used where a
guide wire is threaded into the vein and a catheter is inserted over the wire and
passed into the inferior vena cava.
Which of the following is a section of the American Registry of Radiologic
Technologist's Standards of Ethics, which has enforceable standards?
Code of Ethics
Preamble
Rules of Ethics
Doctrine - Answer Rules of Ethics
The Standard of Ethics has two parts, which are the (1) Code of Ethics and the (2)
Rules of Ethics. The first section of the American Registry of Radiologic Technologist
- Standards of Ethics is the Code of Ethics, which outlines standards the
technologists should follow and use to measure professional and ethical conduct.
The Code of Ethics has an aspirational section, which comprises 10 statements.
The second section of the Standards of Ethics is the Rules of Ethics, which outlines
acceptable practices for a registered technologist and are mandatory standards the
technologist must follow. The Rules of Ethics provides patients, the community and
other health care professional assurance that the technologist has the qualification to
practice in the field. As with the Code of Ethics, the Rules of Ethics are designed to
foster patient safety, patient protection and guidelines for patient comfort.
Deep vein of the foot.
Superficial vein of the foot.
Superficial vein of the leg.
Deep vein of the leg - Answer Superficial vein of the foot
Lower limb venography is used to exclude thrombosis of the deep veins. When
performing a lower limb venography, an injection is made into a superficial vein of
the foot, such as the dorsal venous arch.
Positioning of the patient for renal venography is done in the:
Supine position
Sim's
Fowlers
Trendelenburg - Answer Supine position
A renal venograph is an x-ray that is used to evaluate the kidneys. The test can also
determine the amount of hormone levels the kidney is producing. Further, renal
venography is indicated for evaluation of the kidneys for tumors or renal cell
carcinoma, blood clots (renal thrombus), for instance. Access for catheter insertion is
done through the femoral or jugular vein.
Positioning of the patient involves placing the patient in the supine position on the x-
ray table. The patient's abdomen is centered so that it is over the film. The skin
located over the femoral vein, if used for access, is prepped by cleaning the skin
using antiseptic liquid and then draped. An anesthetic agent is then injected,
followed by cannulation of the femoral vein. Fluoroscopic guidance is used where a
guide wire is threaded into the vein and a catheter is inserted over the wire and
passed into the inferior vena cava.
Which of the following is a section of the American Registry of Radiologic
Technologist's Standards of Ethics, which has enforceable standards?
Code of Ethics
Preamble
Rules of Ethics
Doctrine - Answer Rules of Ethics
The Standard of Ethics has two parts, which are the (1) Code of Ethics and the (2)
Rules of Ethics. The first section of the American Registry of Radiologic Technologist
- Standards of Ethics is the Code of Ethics, which outlines standards the
technologists should follow and use to measure professional and ethical conduct.
The Code of Ethics has an aspirational section, which comprises 10 statements.
The second section of the Standards of Ethics is the Rules of Ethics, which outlines
acceptable practices for a registered technologist and are mandatory standards the
technologist must follow. The Rules of Ethics provides patients, the community and
other health care professional assurance that the technologist has the qualification to
practice in the field. As with the Code of Ethics, the Rules of Ethics are designed to
foster patient safety, patient protection and guidelines for patient comfort.
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ARRT VI EXAM 2023 100% CORRECT
The transverse cervical artery supplies blood to which of the following?
Upper chest.
Anterior chest wall.
Intercostal spaces.
Upper back muscles - Answer Upper back muscles
The transverse cervical artery supplies blood to the upper back muscles. It is a
branch of the thryocervical trunk
During an abdominal aortography, the exposure is made during the:
Beginning of suspended expiration
End of suspended expiration
Middle of suspended expiration
Onset of suspended expiration - Answer End of suspended expiration
An abdominal aortography has several requirements, such as ensuring the exposure
is made toward the end of suspended expiration. Further, the central ray is
positioned at the level of the L2. This allows the aorta extending to the diaphragm
and the aortic bifurcation to appear in the image. The abdominal aortography is
performed on patients who are suspected to have bruits in the mid-section of the
abdomen, has vascular disease in the abdominal aorta, the arteries such as the iliac,
visceral and renal.
The structure at the base of the brain which is formed by the joining of the basilar
and carotid arteries is known as which of the following?
Interior carotid artery.
Inferior vena cava.
Circle of Willis.
Circle of Pons. - Answer Circle of Willis
The Circle of Willis is a structure at the base of the brain. It is formed by the juncture
of the carotid and basilar arteries. It is sometimes also called the cerebral arterial
circle.
What type of atherectomy is considered the first type?
Rotational.
Staged.
Directional.
Transluminal extraction - Answer Directional
An atherectomy is considered a non-surgical procedure. It is used to open both
blocked vein grafts or coronary arteries. It restores proper blood flow to the heart.
There are three types. They are rotational, directional, and transluminal extraction.
Rotational uses a fast rotating shaver to remove plaque. Directional was the original
The transverse cervical artery supplies blood to which of the following?
Upper chest.
Anterior chest wall.
Intercostal spaces.
Upper back muscles - Answer Upper back muscles
The transverse cervical artery supplies blood to the upper back muscles. It is a
branch of the thryocervical trunk
During an abdominal aortography, the exposure is made during the:
Beginning of suspended expiration
End of suspended expiration
Middle of suspended expiration
Onset of suspended expiration - Answer End of suspended expiration
An abdominal aortography has several requirements, such as ensuring the exposure
is made toward the end of suspended expiration. Further, the central ray is
positioned at the level of the L2. This allows the aorta extending to the diaphragm
and the aortic bifurcation to appear in the image. The abdominal aortography is
performed on patients who are suspected to have bruits in the mid-section of the
abdomen, has vascular disease in the abdominal aorta, the arteries such as the iliac,
visceral and renal.
The structure at the base of the brain which is formed by the joining of the basilar
and carotid arteries is known as which of the following?
Interior carotid artery.
Inferior vena cava.
Circle of Willis.
Circle of Pons. - Answer Circle of Willis
The Circle of Willis is a structure at the base of the brain. It is formed by the juncture
of the carotid and basilar arteries. It is sometimes also called the cerebral arterial
circle.
What type of atherectomy is considered the first type?
Rotational.
Staged.
Directional.
Transluminal extraction - Answer Directional
An atherectomy is considered a non-surgical procedure. It is used to open both
blocked vein grafts or coronary arteries. It restores proper blood flow to the heart.
There are three types. They are rotational, directional, and transluminal extraction.
Rotational uses a fast rotating shaver to remove plaque. Directional was the original
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ARRT VI EXAM 2023 100% CORRECT
type of atherectomy. Transluminal extraction cuts plaque off of blood vessels, and
then sucks it up into a bottle.
Which of the following supplies blood to the brain and eyes?
Basilar artery.
Internal carotid artery.
Vertebral artery.
External carotid artery.
. - Answer Internal carotid artery
The internal carotid artery supplies blood to the brain, eyes, and some internal parts
of the head. Knowledge of the vessels of the body part being imaged or treated is
key for radiographic professionals
Which vessel begins at the junction of the brachial and basilic veins and travels to
the first rib where it becomes the subclavian vein?
Cephalic.
Digital metacarpal.
Axillary.
Iliac. - Answer Axillary
The axillary vein begins at the junction of the brachial and basilic veins and travels to
the first rib where it becomes the subclavian vein. Knowledge of anatomy is an
essential part of professionalism as a radiographer
A type of catheter used during thrombolysis where the dissolving solution is injected
with the use of a syringe refers to:
Systemic approach
Pulse spray method
Super selective approach
Vasoconstrictor method - Answer Pulse spray method
For a thrombolytic procedure there are several kinds of catheters that can be
inserted into the blood clot. Common types of catheters are pulse spray and infusion
type. With the pulse spray approach, an individual uses a syringe to inject the
thrombolytic agent.
With the infusion approach, a pump infuses the thrombolytic agent over a course of
time, such as hours or days. There is not a vasoconstrictor method. However, a
vasoconstrictor drug exists that is used for infusion therapy.
Then, systemic approach and the super selective approach is a method for infusing
therapeutic drugs.
type of atherectomy. Transluminal extraction cuts plaque off of blood vessels, and
then sucks it up into a bottle.
Which of the following supplies blood to the brain and eyes?
Basilar artery.
Internal carotid artery.
Vertebral artery.
External carotid artery.
. - Answer Internal carotid artery
The internal carotid artery supplies blood to the brain, eyes, and some internal parts
of the head. Knowledge of the vessels of the body part being imaged or treated is
key for radiographic professionals
Which vessel begins at the junction of the brachial and basilic veins and travels to
the first rib where it becomes the subclavian vein?
Cephalic.
Digital metacarpal.
Axillary.
Iliac. - Answer Axillary
The axillary vein begins at the junction of the brachial and basilic veins and travels to
the first rib where it becomes the subclavian vein. Knowledge of anatomy is an
essential part of professionalism as a radiographer
A type of catheter used during thrombolysis where the dissolving solution is injected
with the use of a syringe refers to:
Systemic approach
Pulse spray method
Super selective approach
Vasoconstrictor method - Answer Pulse spray method
For a thrombolytic procedure there are several kinds of catheters that can be
inserted into the blood clot. Common types of catheters are pulse spray and infusion
type. With the pulse spray approach, an individual uses a syringe to inject the
thrombolytic agent.
With the infusion approach, a pump infuses the thrombolytic agent over a course of
time, such as hours or days. There is not a vasoconstrictor method. However, a
vasoconstrictor drug exists that is used for infusion therapy.
Then, systemic approach and the super selective approach is a method for infusing
therapeutic drugs.
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ARRT VI EXAM 2023 100% CORRECT
When evaluating the kidneys for tumors, which of the following is injected prior to the
contrast medium?
Epinephrine.
Saline.
Adrenaline.
Hydrocortisone - Answer Epinephrine
When evaluating the kidneys for tumors, epinephrine is injected prior to the contrast
media. The epinephrine helps produces better images for evaluation by constricting
the blood vessels.
All but which of the following are the superficial veins in the upper arm?
Brachial.
Median cubital.
Cephalic.
Digital metacarpal - Answer Brachial
The superficial veins of the upper arm are the basilic, cephalic, digital metacarpal,
and median cubital. Knowledge of anatomy is an essential part of professionalism as
a radiographer
What is the ratio of flow rate to the catheter width when using an automatic pressure
injector?
As flow rate decreases, catheter length increases.
As flow rate decreases, catheter length decreases.
As flow rate increases, catheter length decreases.
The flow rate stays the same as catheter length increases or decreases - Answer As
flow rate decreases, catheter length increases
The length of the catheter determines the appropriate flow rate that should be used.
As the catheter length increases, flow rate decreases because the resistance is
applied over a longer length of catheter tubing.
Which of the following settings on an automatic pressure injector controls when the
filming and the injection will start?
Volume.
Linear rise.
Flow rate.
Injection delay. - Answer Injection delay
Automatic pressure injectors are used to inject contrast media. The injection delay
controls when the filming begins and then when the injection will start
Which of the following is the normal range for total protein on a liver panel?
6.3-7.9 g/dL.
When evaluating the kidneys for tumors, which of the following is injected prior to the
contrast medium?
Epinephrine.
Saline.
Adrenaline.
Hydrocortisone - Answer Epinephrine
When evaluating the kidneys for tumors, epinephrine is injected prior to the contrast
media. The epinephrine helps produces better images for evaluation by constricting
the blood vessels.
All but which of the following are the superficial veins in the upper arm?
Brachial.
Median cubital.
Cephalic.
Digital metacarpal - Answer Brachial
The superficial veins of the upper arm are the basilic, cephalic, digital metacarpal,
and median cubital. Knowledge of anatomy is an essential part of professionalism as
a radiographer
What is the ratio of flow rate to the catheter width when using an automatic pressure
injector?
As flow rate decreases, catheter length increases.
As flow rate decreases, catheter length decreases.
As flow rate increases, catheter length decreases.
The flow rate stays the same as catheter length increases or decreases - Answer As
flow rate decreases, catheter length increases
The length of the catheter determines the appropriate flow rate that should be used.
As the catheter length increases, flow rate decreases because the resistance is
applied over a longer length of catheter tubing.
Which of the following settings on an automatic pressure injector controls when the
filming and the injection will start?
Volume.
Linear rise.
Flow rate.
Injection delay. - Answer Injection delay
Automatic pressure injectors are used to inject contrast media. The injection delay
controls when the filming begins and then when the injection will start
Which of the following is the normal range for total protein on a liver panel?
6.3-7.9 g/dL.
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ARRT VI EXAM 2023 100% CORRECT
3.5-5.0 g/dL.
1.3-5.9 g/dL.
12.3-15.7 g/dL. - Answer 6.3-7.9 g/dL
A liver panel measures enzymes, proteins, and substances produced or excreted by
the liver that are affected by liver injury or disease. The normal range for total protein
on a liver panel is 6.3-7.9 g/dL.
Which of the following is a normal range for hemoglobin in an adult male?
12-16 g/dL.
8-13 g/dL.
20-28 g/dL.
13-18 g/dL. - Answer 13-18 g/dL
A hemoglobin or Hgb test measures the amount of hemoglobin in the blood. Normal
ranges vary by age and sex. A normal range of hemoglobin in adult males is 13-18
g/dL.
Which of the following is the normal range for a potassium test in adults?
3.5-5.2 mEq/L.
5.2-8.3 mEq/L.
1.2-3.6 mEq/L.
6.5-9.2 mEq/L. - Answer 3.5-5.2 mEq/L
A potassium test is performed to determine whether a patient's potassium level is
within normal limits and to help evaluate an electrolyte imbalance as well monitor for
several conditions. Normal potassium levels vary by age. The normal range for
potassium in adults is 3.5-5.2 mEq/L.
How is nitroprusside administered?
Intramuscularly.
Via infusion pump.
Via enema.
Intrathecally. - Answer Via infusion pump
Nitroprusside is a vasodillator, which widens blood vessels and results in lowered
blood pressure, increased heart rate, and increased cardiac output. Nitroprusside is
administers by an infusion pump.
Determine which is considered a mild reaction to iodine contrast media?
Difficulty breathing.
Swelling of the throat.
Swelling of the face.
Headache. - Answer Swelling of the face
3.5-5.0 g/dL.
1.3-5.9 g/dL.
12.3-15.7 g/dL. - Answer 6.3-7.9 g/dL
A liver panel measures enzymes, proteins, and substances produced or excreted by
the liver that are affected by liver injury or disease. The normal range for total protein
on a liver panel is 6.3-7.9 g/dL.
Which of the following is a normal range for hemoglobin in an adult male?
12-16 g/dL.
8-13 g/dL.
20-28 g/dL.
13-18 g/dL. - Answer 13-18 g/dL
A hemoglobin or Hgb test measures the amount of hemoglobin in the blood. Normal
ranges vary by age and sex. A normal range of hemoglobin in adult males is 13-18
g/dL.
Which of the following is the normal range for a potassium test in adults?
3.5-5.2 mEq/L.
5.2-8.3 mEq/L.
1.2-3.6 mEq/L.
6.5-9.2 mEq/L. - Answer 3.5-5.2 mEq/L
A potassium test is performed to determine whether a patient's potassium level is
within normal limits and to help evaluate an electrolyte imbalance as well monitor for
several conditions. Normal potassium levels vary by age. The normal range for
potassium in adults is 3.5-5.2 mEq/L.
How is nitroprusside administered?
Intramuscularly.
Via infusion pump.
Via enema.
Intrathecally. - Answer Via infusion pump
Nitroprusside is a vasodillator, which widens blood vessels and results in lowered
blood pressure, increased heart rate, and increased cardiac output. Nitroprusside is
administers by an infusion pump.
Determine which is considered a mild reaction to iodine contrast media?
Difficulty breathing.
Swelling of the throat.
Swelling of the face.
Headache. - Answer Swelling of the face
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ARRT VI EXAM 2023 100% CORRECT
Most patients tolerate contrast media well. However, it is important to educate
patients about potential reactions. Mild reactions to iodine contrast include swelling
of the face and eyes, hives, pallor, chills, and shaking.
A private or civil injustice that may involve an injury refers to:
Reasonable cause
Due care
Criminal law
Tort - Answer ...
A contraindication for a transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS)
procedure is:
Severe encephalopathy
Severe endocarditis
Severe endoblast
Severe hemothorax - Answer Severe encephalopathy
Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) is a percutaneous procedure.
With this technique, a stent is placed inside the portal veins to reduce the amount of
pressure between the portal vein and the adjacent veins, such as the hepatic vein.
The blood flow pressure (a) is reduced as the blood goes to the liver when it is
diseased, (b) prevents bleeding and (c) stops fluid accumulation.
The best answer choice for this question is encephalopathy, which is a condition or
disease affecting the brain. Additional contraindications associated with a
transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) procedure are heart failure and
liver failure.
The remaining answer choices, severe hemothorax, severe endoblast and severe
endocarditis, are incorrect. Endocarditis describes inflammation affecting the heart's
membrane lining. Then, endoblast is an immature cell that develops into the
endodermal cell. Hemothorax occurs when the blood vessels break and blood and
fluid builds up in the pleural cavity.
Which of the following is used to screen patients for an abdominal aortic aneurysm?
A routine onetime ultrasound
A CT angiography
A routine physical transducer examination by a physician
A magnetic resonance imaging - Answer A routine onetime ultrasound is a
screening tool used to not only screen a patient for an abdominal aortic aneurysm,
but also confirm the size of an abdominal aortic aneurysm
Also, the ultrasound is used to watch the growth of the abdominal aortic aneurysm.
Suspected aortic aneurysms are often discovered during a routine physical
examination and from there the physician may order an abdominal ultrasound, a
computed tomography scan or a magnetic resonance imaging.
Most patients tolerate contrast media well. However, it is important to educate
patients about potential reactions. Mild reactions to iodine contrast include swelling
of the face and eyes, hives, pallor, chills, and shaking.
A private or civil injustice that may involve an injury refers to:
Reasonable cause
Due care
Criminal law
Tort - Answer ...
A contraindication for a transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS)
procedure is:
Severe encephalopathy
Severe endocarditis
Severe endoblast
Severe hemothorax - Answer Severe encephalopathy
Transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) is a percutaneous procedure.
With this technique, a stent is placed inside the portal veins to reduce the amount of
pressure between the portal vein and the adjacent veins, such as the hepatic vein.
The blood flow pressure (a) is reduced as the blood goes to the liver when it is
diseased, (b) prevents bleeding and (c) stops fluid accumulation.
The best answer choice for this question is encephalopathy, which is a condition or
disease affecting the brain. Additional contraindications associated with a
transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) procedure are heart failure and
liver failure.
The remaining answer choices, severe hemothorax, severe endoblast and severe
endocarditis, are incorrect. Endocarditis describes inflammation affecting the heart's
membrane lining. Then, endoblast is an immature cell that develops into the
endodermal cell. Hemothorax occurs when the blood vessels break and blood and
fluid builds up in the pleural cavity.
Which of the following is used to screen patients for an abdominal aortic aneurysm?
A routine onetime ultrasound
A CT angiography
A routine physical transducer examination by a physician
A magnetic resonance imaging - Answer A routine onetime ultrasound is a
screening tool used to not only screen a patient for an abdominal aortic aneurysm,
but also confirm the size of an abdominal aortic aneurysm
Also, the ultrasound is used to watch the growth of the abdominal aortic aneurysm.
Suspected aortic aneurysms are often discovered during a routine physical
examination and from there the physician may order an abdominal ultrasound, a
computed tomography scan or a magnetic resonance imaging.
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ARRT VI EXAM 2023 100% CORRECT
A computed tomography (CT) angiography is the first line imaging test when a
patient has an abdominal aortic aneurysm but it is used for the measurement of the
aneurysm and not for screening purposes. Also, the CT angiography helps with
planning an endovascular aortic aneurysm repair and is used as a follow up medical
test after an endovascular aortic aneurysm repair.`
Which of the following would you use when it is necessary to diminish flow?
Straight catheter.
Balloon occlusion catheter.
Pig tail catheter.
Umbrella catheter. - Answer Umbrella catheter
Umbrella catheters are used to diminish flow. Awareness of the different types of
catheters and the circumstances in which they are used is key for radiology
professionals.
Which type of injector has an electromechanical flow rate that is relative to
variables?
Air-compressed.
Linear rise.
Pressure dependent.
Fixed flow rate. - Answer Pressure dependent
Automatic pressure injectors are used to inject contrast media into a patient. A
pressure dependent injector has an electromechanical flow rate that is relative to
variables
When exchanging catheters, the guidewire should be at least how much longer than
the catheter?
10 cm.
Three times as long.
Twice as long.
20 cm. - Answer Twice as long
Catheters are long hollow tubes that provide pathways for contrast media to get to a
certain area of the body, and guidewires thread the catheters through the vessels.
When exchanging catheters, the guidewire should be at least twice as long as the
catheter.
Which type of injector has an electromechanical flow rate that is not dependent upon
variables?
Pressure dependent.
Linear rise.
Air-compressed.
Fixed flow rate - Answer Fixed flow rate
A computed tomography (CT) angiography is the first line imaging test when a
patient has an abdominal aortic aneurysm but it is used for the measurement of the
aneurysm and not for screening purposes. Also, the CT angiography helps with
planning an endovascular aortic aneurysm repair and is used as a follow up medical
test after an endovascular aortic aneurysm repair.`
Which of the following would you use when it is necessary to diminish flow?
Straight catheter.
Balloon occlusion catheter.
Pig tail catheter.
Umbrella catheter. - Answer Umbrella catheter
Umbrella catheters are used to diminish flow. Awareness of the different types of
catheters and the circumstances in which they are used is key for radiology
professionals.
Which type of injector has an electromechanical flow rate that is relative to
variables?
Air-compressed.
Linear rise.
Pressure dependent.
Fixed flow rate. - Answer Pressure dependent
Automatic pressure injectors are used to inject contrast media into a patient. A
pressure dependent injector has an electromechanical flow rate that is relative to
variables
When exchanging catheters, the guidewire should be at least how much longer than
the catheter?
10 cm.
Three times as long.
Twice as long.
20 cm. - Answer Twice as long
Catheters are long hollow tubes that provide pathways for contrast media to get to a
certain area of the body, and guidewires thread the catheters through the vessels.
When exchanging catheters, the guidewire should be at least twice as long as the
catheter.
Which type of injector has an electromechanical flow rate that is not dependent upon
variables?
Pressure dependent.
Linear rise.
Air-compressed.
Fixed flow rate - Answer Fixed flow rate
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ARRT VI EXAM 2023 100% CORRECT
Automatic pressure injectors are used to inject contrast media into a patient. Fixed
flow rate injectors have an electromechanical flow that is not dependent upon
variables
Which branch of the abdominal aorta arises around the L3 level anterolaterally and
to the left?
Inferior mesenteric artery.
Celiac trunk.
Superior mesenteric artery.
Renal arteries - Answer Inferior mesenteric artery
The inferior mesenteric artery arises around the L3 level anterolaterally and to the
left of the abdominal aorta. It supplies blood to the descending and sigmoid colon
and rectum
The hepatic veins releases blood into the:
Liver
Inferior vena cava
Mitral valve
Pancreatic duct - Answer Inferior vena cava
The hepatic veins are three vessels which carries out two main functions. One, the
hepatic veins carries blood from the liver. Secondly, the hepatic veins releases blood
into the inferior vena cava
Which of the following supplies blood to the inner part and lateral surfaces of both
cerebral hemispheres of the brain?
Basilar artery.
Posterior cerebral artery.
Anterior cerebral artery.
Middle cerebral artery - Answer Middle cerebral artery
The middle cerebral artery provides blood to the inner part and lateral surfaces of
both cerebral hemispheres. The ability to locate and identify key blood vessels is a
vital skill for radiographic professionals.
Which of the following is the FINAL segement of the small intestine?
Ileum.
Duodenum.
Jejunum.
Descending colon. - Answer Ileum
The ileum is the final segment of the small intestine. It is also the longest segment.
The small intestine has three segments: the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum.
A technologist should perform what action FIRST when talking with the patient?
Automatic pressure injectors are used to inject contrast media into a patient. Fixed
flow rate injectors have an electromechanical flow that is not dependent upon
variables
Which branch of the abdominal aorta arises around the L3 level anterolaterally and
to the left?
Inferior mesenteric artery.
Celiac trunk.
Superior mesenteric artery.
Renal arteries - Answer Inferior mesenteric artery
The inferior mesenteric artery arises around the L3 level anterolaterally and to the
left of the abdominal aorta. It supplies blood to the descending and sigmoid colon
and rectum
The hepatic veins releases blood into the:
Liver
Inferior vena cava
Mitral valve
Pancreatic duct - Answer Inferior vena cava
The hepatic veins are three vessels which carries out two main functions. One, the
hepatic veins carries blood from the liver. Secondly, the hepatic veins releases blood
into the inferior vena cava
Which of the following supplies blood to the inner part and lateral surfaces of both
cerebral hemispheres of the brain?
Basilar artery.
Posterior cerebral artery.
Anterior cerebral artery.
Middle cerebral artery - Answer Middle cerebral artery
The middle cerebral artery provides blood to the inner part and lateral surfaces of
both cerebral hemispheres. The ability to locate and identify key blood vessels is a
vital skill for radiographic professionals.
Which of the following is the FINAL segement of the small intestine?
Ileum.
Duodenum.
Jejunum.
Descending colon. - Answer Ileum
The ileum is the final segment of the small intestine. It is also the longest segment.
The small intestine has three segments: the duodenum, jejunum, and ileum.
A technologist should perform what action FIRST when talking with the patient?
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ARRT VI EXAM 2023 100% CORRECT
Provide an introduction to the patient
Properly identify the patient
Start the imaging procedure
Chart notes in the patient's medical record - Answer Provide an introduction to the
patient
Before an imaging procedure, the technologist should first start with an introduction.
By introducing himself or herself to the patient, the technologist establishes trust and
rapport and oftentimes places the patient at ease.
After this, the technologist will need to verify the identity of the patient. The
technologist in an outpatient setting can use specific pieces of information, such as
the patient's name or date of birth to verify the identity of the patient. In a hospital
setting, the technologist can check the patient's identification wristband to identify the
patient.
What is the maximum infusion rate for a PICC line?
5 ml/sec.
10 ml/sec.
3 ml/sec.
7 ml/sec - Answer 5 ml/sec
PICC lines are used to deliver medications or fluids and can be used for a prolonged
period of time. The maximum rate of infusion for a PICC line is 5 ml/sec.
An angioplasty can be an effective treatment for atherosclerosis, which is damage to
the arteries caused by what?
Defective blood cells.
Tissue scarring.
Plaque.
Recent injury. - Answer Plaque
Atherosclerosis is a disorder characterized by damage to the artery or vein from a
build-up of plaque long the vessel walls. An angioplasty is designed to help correct
this problem by pressing this build up against the vessel wall and implanting a stent if
necessary.
The anterior and posterior tibial arteries are located at which of the following?
Trochanteric fossa.
Fovea.
Linea aspera.
Intercondyloid fossa - Answer Intercondyloid fossa
The anterior and posterior tibial arteries arise from the bifurcation of the politeal
artery. They are located at the anterior and posterior intercondyloid fossa.
Knowledge of anatomy is an essential part of professionalism as a radiographer
Provide an introduction to the patient
Properly identify the patient
Start the imaging procedure
Chart notes in the patient's medical record - Answer Provide an introduction to the
patient
Before an imaging procedure, the technologist should first start with an introduction.
By introducing himself or herself to the patient, the technologist establishes trust and
rapport and oftentimes places the patient at ease.
After this, the technologist will need to verify the identity of the patient. The
technologist in an outpatient setting can use specific pieces of information, such as
the patient's name or date of birth to verify the identity of the patient. In a hospital
setting, the technologist can check the patient's identification wristband to identify the
patient.
What is the maximum infusion rate for a PICC line?
5 ml/sec.
10 ml/sec.
3 ml/sec.
7 ml/sec - Answer 5 ml/sec
PICC lines are used to deliver medications or fluids and can be used for a prolonged
period of time. The maximum rate of infusion for a PICC line is 5 ml/sec.
An angioplasty can be an effective treatment for atherosclerosis, which is damage to
the arteries caused by what?
Defective blood cells.
Tissue scarring.
Plaque.
Recent injury. - Answer Plaque
Atherosclerosis is a disorder characterized by damage to the artery or vein from a
build-up of plaque long the vessel walls. An angioplasty is designed to help correct
this problem by pressing this build up against the vessel wall and implanting a stent if
necessary.
The anterior and posterior tibial arteries are located at which of the following?
Trochanteric fossa.
Fovea.
Linea aspera.
Intercondyloid fossa - Answer Intercondyloid fossa
The anterior and posterior tibial arteries arise from the bifurcation of the politeal
artery. They are located at the anterior and posterior intercondyloid fossa.
Knowledge of anatomy is an essential part of professionalism as a radiographer
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A major complication of a catheter placed to drain an abdominal abscess is:
Hemorrhage
Pain
Infection
Pericatheter leak - Answer Hemorrhage
Complications associated with a catheter inserted for the drainage of an abdominal
abscess is divided into two categories: major and minor. Major complications are
hemopneumothorax, septic shock, hemorrhage, an enteric fistula, for instance.
Minor complications may involve a pericatheter leak or the patient experiencing pain
or acquiring an infection.
After a percutaneous stone removal procedure, how long does a patient generally
stay in the hospital?
1 hour.
12 hours.
1 day.
2-7 days. - Answer 2-7 days
A percutaneous stone removal is a type of procedure that is used to remove stone
material directly from a kidney. During the procedure, a small incision will be made
into the patient's back. A score is inserted into the incision which goes directly to the
kidney, and from there the stones can be removed. Since the procedure is invasive,
it requires of a hospital stay of 2-7 days.
The popliteal artery supplies blood to all but which of the following?
Knee.
Calf.
Plantar region of the foot.
Thigh. - Answer Plantar region of the foot
The popliteal artery supplies the knee, calf, and thigh. Knowledge of the location and
function of the various arteries and veins is key to professionals who perform
vascular interventions.
of the following is a major branch of the posterior tibial artery?
Popliteal artery.
Dorsalis pedis.
External circumflex arteries.
Peroneal artery. - Answer Peroneal artery
The peroneal artery is a major branch of the posterior tibial artery and supplies blood
to the lateral and posterior compartments of the leg. Knowledge of anatomy is an
essential part of professionalism for radiographers.
A major complication of a catheter placed to drain an abdominal abscess is:
Hemorrhage
Pain
Infection
Pericatheter leak - Answer Hemorrhage
Complications associated with a catheter inserted for the drainage of an abdominal
abscess is divided into two categories: major and minor. Major complications are
hemopneumothorax, septic shock, hemorrhage, an enteric fistula, for instance.
Minor complications may involve a pericatheter leak or the patient experiencing pain
or acquiring an infection.
After a percutaneous stone removal procedure, how long does a patient generally
stay in the hospital?
1 hour.
12 hours.
1 day.
2-7 days. - Answer 2-7 days
A percutaneous stone removal is a type of procedure that is used to remove stone
material directly from a kidney. During the procedure, a small incision will be made
into the patient's back. A score is inserted into the incision which goes directly to the
kidney, and from there the stones can be removed. Since the procedure is invasive,
it requires of a hospital stay of 2-7 days.
The popliteal artery supplies blood to all but which of the following?
Knee.
Calf.
Plantar region of the foot.
Thigh. - Answer Plantar region of the foot
The popliteal artery supplies the knee, calf, and thigh. Knowledge of the location and
function of the various arteries and veins is key to professionals who perform
vascular interventions.
of the following is a major branch of the posterior tibial artery?
Popliteal artery.
Dorsalis pedis.
External circumflex arteries.
Peroneal artery. - Answer Peroneal artery
The peroneal artery is a major branch of the posterior tibial artery and supplies blood
to the lateral and posterior compartments of the leg. Knowledge of anatomy is an
essential part of professionalism for radiographers.
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When performing a retrograde femoral artery catheterization, the femoral artery is
found:
In the middle of the femoral cavity space instead of the pubic symphysis
Posterior to the iliac spine
Anterior to the superior iliac spine and the pubic tubercle
Above the inguinal nodes in the ligaments - Answer Anterior to the superior iliac
spine and the pubic tubercle
The femoral vessel is often selected for vascular procedures because the vessels
are large, which helps with the insertion of large diameter catheters. Also, this vessel
carries the least risk for thrombosis developing in the vessel.
The puncture site to administer anesthesia for a retrograde femoral artery
catheterization is located by palpating the femoral artery and the inguinal ligament
directly underneath the inguinal ligament where a mark is made which designates
0.5 cm medially to the strongest pulsation of the femoral vein. The femoral artery is
located between the middle of the pubic symphysis. It is also anterior to superior to
the iliac spine.
An esophageal stricture is further classified as:
Benign or malignant
Extraluminal or intraluminal
Low output or high output
Therapeutic or nontherapeutic - Answer Benign or malignant
A stricture of the esophagus is defined as the narrowing of the esophagus. An
esophageal stricture can be benign (no cancer) or malignant (cancer). Patients with
esophageal stricture has problems swallowing, may experience pain during
swallowing or have regurgitation of food, to name a few symptoms.
How many types of atherectomy are there?
3.
5.
7.
9. - Answer 3
An atherectomy is considered a non-surgical procedure. It is used to open both
blocked vein grafts or coronary arteries. It restores proper blood flow to the heart.
There are three types. They are rotational, directional, and transluminal extraction
A procedure in which an artificial opening is created in the stomach, such as for
providing nutritional support, is known as which of the following?
Nephrotomy.
When performing a retrograde femoral artery catheterization, the femoral artery is
found:
In the middle of the femoral cavity space instead of the pubic symphysis
Posterior to the iliac spine
Anterior to the superior iliac spine and the pubic tubercle
Above the inguinal nodes in the ligaments - Answer Anterior to the superior iliac
spine and the pubic tubercle
The femoral vessel is often selected for vascular procedures because the vessels
are large, which helps with the insertion of large diameter catheters. Also, this vessel
carries the least risk for thrombosis developing in the vessel.
The puncture site to administer anesthesia for a retrograde femoral artery
catheterization is located by palpating the femoral artery and the inguinal ligament
directly underneath the inguinal ligament where a mark is made which designates
0.5 cm medially to the strongest pulsation of the femoral vein. The femoral artery is
located between the middle of the pubic symphysis. It is also anterior to superior to
the iliac spine.
An esophageal stricture is further classified as:
Benign or malignant
Extraluminal or intraluminal
Low output or high output
Therapeutic or nontherapeutic - Answer Benign or malignant
A stricture of the esophagus is defined as the narrowing of the esophagus. An
esophageal stricture can be benign (no cancer) or malignant (cancer). Patients with
esophageal stricture has problems swallowing, may experience pain during
swallowing or have regurgitation of food, to name a few symptoms.
How many types of atherectomy are there?
3.
5.
7.
9. - Answer 3
An atherectomy is considered a non-surgical procedure. It is used to open both
blocked vein grafts or coronary arteries. It restores proper blood flow to the heart.
There are three types. They are rotational, directional, and transluminal extraction
A procedure in which an artificial opening is created in the stomach, such as for
providing nutritional support, is known as which of the following?
Nephrotomy.
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ARRT VI EXAM 2023 100% CORRECT
Colostomy.
Gastrostomy.
Lithotomy. - Answer Gastrostomy
In gastrostomy, an artificial opening is created in the stomach. This may be used for
providing nutritional support, by inserting a feeding tube.
Contrast passes through all but which of the following structures of the kidneys
during the nephrogram phase of an arteriogram?
Papillary ducts.
Glomeruli.
Tubules.
Capillaries. - Answer Papillary ducts
An arteriogram is an imaging test that uses x-rays and contrast to demonstrate
arteries. During the nephrogram phase of an arteriogram, contrast passes through
the glomeruli, tubules, and capillaries of the kidneys.
Which of the following is NOT one of the sections of the large intestine?
Cecum.
Ileum.
Colon.
Rectum. - Answer Ileum
The large intestine has four sections. They are the cecum, colon, rectum, and anal
canal.
The brain structure that marks the boundary between the frontal and parietal lobes is
known as which of the following?
Central sulcus.
Longitudinal fissure.
Temporal fissure.
Transverse fissure. - Answer Central sulcus
The central sulcus marks the boundary between the frontal lobe and the parietal
lobes of the brain. The ability to identify key structures is vital when imaging or
treating a patient.
If a stent is implanted into a vessel during an angioplasty, what part of the vessel is it
attached to?
The lumen.
The mucosa.
The villi.
The tunica media - Answer The lumen
Colostomy.
Gastrostomy.
Lithotomy. - Answer Gastrostomy
In gastrostomy, an artificial opening is created in the stomach. This may be used for
providing nutritional support, by inserting a feeding tube.
Contrast passes through all but which of the following structures of the kidneys
during the nephrogram phase of an arteriogram?
Papillary ducts.
Glomeruli.
Tubules.
Capillaries. - Answer Papillary ducts
An arteriogram is an imaging test that uses x-rays and contrast to demonstrate
arteries. During the nephrogram phase of an arteriogram, contrast passes through
the glomeruli, tubules, and capillaries of the kidneys.
Which of the following is NOT one of the sections of the large intestine?
Cecum.
Ileum.
Colon.
Rectum. - Answer Ileum
The large intestine has four sections. They are the cecum, colon, rectum, and anal
canal.
The brain structure that marks the boundary between the frontal and parietal lobes is
known as which of the following?
Central sulcus.
Longitudinal fissure.
Temporal fissure.
Transverse fissure. - Answer Central sulcus
The central sulcus marks the boundary between the frontal lobe and the parietal
lobes of the brain. The ability to identify key structures is vital when imaging or
treating a patient.
If a stent is implanted into a vessel during an angioplasty, what part of the vessel is it
attached to?
The lumen.
The mucosa.
The villi.
The tunica media - Answer The lumen
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In some angioplasty procedures, a stent is implanted into the vessel to keep it open.
When the stent is implanted, it is set into the lumen of the vessel so that it can sit
firmly in place while still allowing blood to flow freely.
The abdominal aorta bifurcates at which level?
L3.
T12.
L5.
T10. - Answer L3
The abdominal aorta transcends from the diaphragm, anterior to the vertebral
column, by passing through the aortic hiatus on the left side of the body. It bifurcates
at the L3 level.
The suprascapular artery supplies blood to all but which of the following?
Upper chest.
Shoulder joint.
1st and 2nd intercostal spaces.
Upper back muscles - Answer 1st and 2nd intercostal spaces
The suprascapular artery supplies blood to the upper chest, upper back muscles,
and shoulder joint. It is a branch of the thyrocervical trunk.
Catheters best used for Brachial Vessels - Answer HIH, Berenstein, and Simmons 1
& 2
An example of an injection parameter is:
Control panel
Total volume
Pulsation
Synchronization - Answer The contrast medium injection device has different types
of parameters. These parameters are the flow rate, total volume, rise, pressure and
delay. The flow rate defines the speed or degree that the contrast agent is injected,
which is measured by cubic centimeters per second. The control panel is where the
parameters can be changed by the interventional technologist
Which of the following is a disadvantage of side holes on a catheter?
Increases resistance.
Must be flushed frequently.
Increases recoil.
Cannot be used in large vessels. - Answer Must be flushed frequently
Catheters are long hollow tubes that provide pathways for contrast media to get to a
certain area of the body. Side holes in catheters reduce catheter's resistance and
recoil, but they must be flushed frequently to avoid clotting.
All but which of the following is a basic shape of a catheter?
In some angioplasty procedures, a stent is implanted into the vessel to keep it open.
When the stent is implanted, it is set into the lumen of the vessel so that it can sit
firmly in place while still allowing blood to flow freely.
The abdominal aorta bifurcates at which level?
L3.
T12.
L5.
T10. - Answer L3
The abdominal aorta transcends from the diaphragm, anterior to the vertebral
column, by passing through the aortic hiatus on the left side of the body. It bifurcates
at the L3 level.
The suprascapular artery supplies blood to all but which of the following?
Upper chest.
Shoulder joint.
1st and 2nd intercostal spaces.
Upper back muscles - Answer 1st and 2nd intercostal spaces
The suprascapular artery supplies blood to the upper chest, upper back muscles,
and shoulder joint. It is a branch of the thyrocervical trunk.
Catheters best used for Brachial Vessels - Answer HIH, Berenstein, and Simmons 1
& 2
An example of an injection parameter is:
Control panel
Total volume
Pulsation
Synchronization - Answer The contrast medium injection device has different types
of parameters. These parameters are the flow rate, total volume, rise, pressure and
delay. The flow rate defines the speed or degree that the contrast agent is injected,
which is measured by cubic centimeters per second. The control panel is where the
parameters can be changed by the interventional technologist
Which of the following is a disadvantage of side holes on a catheter?
Increases resistance.
Must be flushed frequently.
Increases recoil.
Cannot be used in large vessels. - Answer Must be flushed frequently
Catheters are long hollow tubes that provide pathways for contrast media to get to a
certain area of the body. Side holes in catheters reduce catheter's resistance and
recoil, but they must be flushed frequently to avoid clotting.
All but which of the following is a basic shape of a catheter?
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ARRT VI EXAM 2023 100% CORRECT
Single curve.
Pigtail.
Double curve.
Straight. - Answer Double curve
Catheters are long hollow tubes that provide pathways for contrast media to get to a
certain area of the body. There are four basic shapes of catheters: single curve,
multiple curve, pigtail, and straight.
What is the increment of French sizes?
.33 mm.
.33 cm.
3.3 mm.
33 mm. - Answer .33 mm
Catheters are long hollow tubes that provide pathways for contrast media to get to a
certain area of the body. Catheters are measured by French sizes, which refers to
the outer diameter of the catheter tube. The increment of French sizes is .33 mm or
1/3 mm.
What is the length of the flexible portion of a fixed core guidewire?
10-15 mm.
10-20 mm.
3-10 mm.
3-10 cm. - Answer 3-10 cm
Guidewires are used to direct the catheter through vessels. With fixed core
guidewires, the core is attached close to the tip. The flexible portion of a moveable
core guidewire is 10-15 cm in length.
A patient who has undergone angioplasty should be advised to contact his physician
immediately if he experiences all but which of these?
Increased leg pain.
Shortness of breath.
Drainage at the catheter site.
Nausea. - Answer Nausea
A patient who experiences chest pain, persistent or worsening leg pain, shortness of
breath, bleeding or drainage at the catheter site, and fever should contact his or her
physician immediately. These are potential signs of a serious complication.
What is DSI used for in a renal angiogram?
To view only bones and tissues, and blood vessels.
To view only blood vessels, and not bones and tissues.
To view only bones, and not blood vessels and tissues.
Single curve.
Pigtail.
Double curve.
Straight. - Answer Double curve
Catheters are long hollow tubes that provide pathways for contrast media to get to a
certain area of the body. There are four basic shapes of catheters: single curve,
multiple curve, pigtail, and straight.
What is the increment of French sizes?
.33 mm.
.33 cm.
3.3 mm.
33 mm. - Answer .33 mm
Catheters are long hollow tubes that provide pathways for contrast media to get to a
certain area of the body. Catheters are measured by French sizes, which refers to
the outer diameter of the catheter tube. The increment of French sizes is .33 mm or
1/3 mm.
What is the length of the flexible portion of a fixed core guidewire?
10-15 mm.
10-20 mm.
3-10 mm.
3-10 cm. - Answer 3-10 cm
Guidewires are used to direct the catheter through vessels. With fixed core
guidewires, the core is attached close to the tip. The flexible portion of a moveable
core guidewire is 10-15 cm in length.
A patient who has undergone angioplasty should be advised to contact his physician
immediately if he experiences all but which of these?
Increased leg pain.
Shortness of breath.
Drainage at the catheter site.
Nausea. - Answer Nausea
A patient who experiences chest pain, persistent or worsening leg pain, shortness of
breath, bleeding or drainage at the catheter site, and fever should contact his or her
physician immediately. These are potential signs of a serious complication.
What is DSI used for in a renal angiogram?
To view only bones and tissues, and blood vessels.
To view only blood vessels, and not bones and tissues.
To view only bones, and not blood vessels and tissues.
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ARRT VI EXAM 2023 100% CORRECT
To view only tissues, and not bones and blood vessels - Answer To view only blood
vessels, and not bones and tissues
DSI stands for Digital Subtraction Angiography. It is used in procedures like renal
angiograms. On a computer, tissues and bones are subtracted out of the picture.
This is done to view only the blood vessels during an angiogram.
The anterior tibial artery branches off into which vessel?
Dorsalis pedis.
Peroneal artery.
Popliteal artery.
Deep femoral artery. - Answer Dorsalis pedis
The anterior tibial artery branches into the dorsalis pedis, which supplies blood to the
foot. Knowledge of anatomy is an essential part of professionalism as a
radiographer.
Which of the following is the preferred insertion site for a PICC line?
Brachial vein.
Basilic vein.
Cephalic vein.
Superior vena cava - Answer Basilic vein
A PICC line is a form of intravenous access that can be used for a prolonged period
of time to administer medications or fluids and to withdraw blood samples. The line is
inserted into a peripheral vein in the patient's arm and then advanced to the superior
vena cava. The preferred insertion site for a PICC line is the basilic vein, but the
cephalic and brachial veins may also be used for an insertion site if the basilic vein
cannot be used for some reason
How long can a PICC line stay in position?
72 hours.
30 days.
1 year.
6 months. - Answer 1 year
A PICC line can remain in place for one year. This is an advantage over a regular
line, which can only remain in place for 72 hours.
Treatment of a serious allergic condition, anaphylaxis, may involve:
Giving the patient oxygen
Performing surgery
Injecting the patient with an allergen
Inducing vomiting - Answer Giving the patient oxygen
To view only tissues, and not bones and blood vessels - Answer To view only blood
vessels, and not bones and tissues
DSI stands for Digital Subtraction Angiography. It is used in procedures like renal
angiograms. On a computer, tissues and bones are subtracted out of the picture.
This is done to view only the blood vessels during an angiogram.
The anterior tibial artery branches off into which vessel?
Dorsalis pedis.
Peroneal artery.
Popliteal artery.
Deep femoral artery. - Answer Dorsalis pedis
The anterior tibial artery branches into the dorsalis pedis, which supplies blood to the
foot. Knowledge of anatomy is an essential part of professionalism as a
radiographer.
Which of the following is the preferred insertion site for a PICC line?
Brachial vein.
Basilic vein.
Cephalic vein.
Superior vena cava - Answer Basilic vein
A PICC line is a form of intravenous access that can be used for a prolonged period
of time to administer medications or fluids and to withdraw blood samples. The line is
inserted into a peripheral vein in the patient's arm and then advanced to the superior
vena cava. The preferred insertion site for a PICC line is the basilic vein, but the
cephalic and brachial veins may also be used for an insertion site if the basilic vein
cannot be used for some reason
How long can a PICC line stay in position?
72 hours.
30 days.
1 year.
6 months. - Answer 1 year
A PICC line can remain in place for one year. This is an advantage over a regular
line, which can only remain in place for 72 hours.
Treatment of a serious allergic condition, anaphylaxis, may involve:
Giving the patient oxygen
Performing surgery
Injecting the patient with an allergen
Inducing vomiting - Answer Giving the patient oxygen
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ARRT VI EXAM 2023 100% CORRECT
Anaphylaxis, also known as allergic shock, is an allergic reaction that is life
threatening. Symptoms of anaphylaxis are wheezing, closure of the airways
triggered by laryngeal edema, difficulty swallowing (dysphagia), dyspnea and
hypotension, to name a few. Many types of allergens can cause anaphylaxis, such
as medication, latex, foods, insect venom and anesthesia. Injecting, absorption and
ingestion of an allergen can produce anaphylaxis.
A patient who is having anaphylaxis while undergoing a procedure, the procedure
should be stopped immediately. Treatment of anaphylaxis which is a medical
emergency can include assessing the patent's flow of oxygen. If oxygen is low,
especially due to airway obstruction, the patient is given oxygen. Oxygen is
decreased (hypoxia) when the airways are constricted or the patient is suffering from
aspiration. The technologist can call a code or start the Heimlich maneuver on the
patient. Also, documentation of the allergic reaction should be notated including the
time the reaction occurred and the symptoms.
Epinephrine is indicated for:
Preventing vasospasm
Controlling bleeding
A renal arteriography
Angina pectoris - Answer A renal arteriography
Epinephrine is a vasoconstrictor. Vasoconstrictors narrows the blood vessels, which
increases the heart rate, blood pressure, ventricular contractility, to name a few.
Indications for epinephrine include renal arteriography, visceral arteriography, for
instance. Epinephrine is contraindicated in patients who have organic brain damage
and narrow angle glaucoma. This drug should be used with caution in hypertensive
and diabetic patients.
Vasopressin (Pitressin) is a vasoconstrictor that is indicated for controlling
gastrointestinal bleeding. A vasodilator, such as nifedipine (Procardia), prevents
vasospasm during an angioplasty. Further, nitroglycerin is indicated for angina
pectoris
The acromial artery is a branch of which of the following?
Subclavian artery.
Ascending aorta.
Brachocephalic artery.
Thoracocromial trunk. - Answer Thoracocromial trunk
The acromial artery is a branch of the thoracocromial trunk. It supplies blood to the
shoulder joint and deltoid
All but which of the following indicates that a patient may have gallstones?
Pain in the upper right quadrant of the abdomen.
Pain that radiates between the shoulder blades.
Vomiting.
Anaphylaxis, also known as allergic shock, is an allergic reaction that is life
threatening. Symptoms of anaphylaxis are wheezing, closure of the airways
triggered by laryngeal edema, difficulty swallowing (dysphagia), dyspnea and
hypotension, to name a few. Many types of allergens can cause anaphylaxis, such
as medication, latex, foods, insect venom and anesthesia. Injecting, absorption and
ingestion of an allergen can produce anaphylaxis.
A patient who is having anaphylaxis while undergoing a procedure, the procedure
should be stopped immediately. Treatment of anaphylaxis which is a medical
emergency can include assessing the patent's flow of oxygen. If oxygen is low,
especially due to airway obstruction, the patient is given oxygen. Oxygen is
decreased (hypoxia) when the airways are constricted or the patient is suffering from
aspiration. The technologist can call a code or start the Heimlich maneuver on the
patient. Also, documentation of the allergic reaction should be notated including the
time the reaction occurred and the symptoms.
Epinephrine is indicated for:
Preventing vasospasm
Controlling bleeding
A renal arteriography
Angina pectoris - Answer A renal arteriography
Epinephrine is a vasoconstrictor. Vasoconstrictors narrows the blood vessels, which
increases the heart rate, blood pressure, ventricular contractility, to name a few.
Indications for epinephrine include renal arteriography, visceral arteriography, for
instance. Epinephrine is contraindicated in patients who have organic brain damage
and narrow angle glaucoma. This drug should be used with caution in hypertensive
and diabetic patients.
Vasopressin (Pitressin) is a vasoconstrictor that is indicated for controlling
gastrointestinal bleeding. A vasodilator, such as nifedipine (Procardia), prevents
vasospasm during an angioplasty. Further, nitroglycerin is indicated for angina
pectoris
The acromial artery is a branch of which of the following?
Subclavian artery.
Ascending aorta.
Brachocephalic artery.
Thoracocromial trunk. - Answer Thoracocromial trunk
The acromial artery is a branch of the thoracocromial trunk. It supplies blood to the
shoulder joint and deltoid
All but which of the following indicates that a patient may have gallstones?
Pain in the upper right quadrant of the abdomen.
Pain that radiates between the shoulder blades.
Vomiting.
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ARRT VI EXAM 2023 100% CORRECT
Central chest pain. - Answer Central chest pain
Common signs and symptoms of gallstones include pain in the right upper quadrant
of the abdomen, pain that radiates between the shoulder blades, and nausea and
vomiting. The pain is typically severe, and may be confused with cardiac pain.
When assessing a patient with a stricture, the use of atropine before the procedure
helps control:
Vocal cord palsy
Dysphagia
Vagal tone
Bleeding diathesis that is not controlled - Answer Vagal tone
Before performing a procedure, such as an esophageal stent placement, a catheter
is placed to measure the size of a stricture. To stop the patient from gagging when
the catheter is inserted through the mouth, the patient is given an anesthetic.
Atropine or suctioning is used to decrease the amount of salivary secretions as well
as control vagal tone.
Further, dysphagia is relieved when an esophageal stent is placed using an
endoscopic or fluoroscopic approach. Then, bleeding diathesis that is not controlled
and vocal cord palsy are contraindications for esophageal stent placement. These
conditions are not managed with the use of Atropine.
A PICC line is inserted into a vein in the patient's arm and then advanced proximally
until the tip rests in which of the following vessels?
Inferior vena cava.
Thoracic aorta.
Superior vena cava.
Femoral vein - Answer Superior vena cava
A PICC line is inserted into a peripheral vein in the patient's arm, such as the
cephalic, basilic, or brachial vein. It is just advanced proximally toward the heart until
the tip rests in the distal superior vena cava or cavoatrial junction
Of all disruptions diagnosed, the majority are found to be at which location?
Aortic root.
Aortic arch.
Isthmus.
Mediastinal branches - Answer Isthmus
Of all the aortic disruptions diagnosed, 80-86% are found at the isthmus of the aorta.
With an incidence of about 9%, the next most likely site for disruption is at the aortic
root.
The LPO position of the lower leg demonstrates which of the following?
Central chest pain. - Answer Central chest pain
Common signs and symptoms of gallstones include pain in the right upper quadrant
of the abdomen, pain that radiates between the shoulder blades, and nausea and
vomiting. The pain is typically severe, and may be confused with cardiac pain.
When assessing a patient with a stricture, the use of atropine before the procedure
helps control:
Vocal cord palsy
Dysphagia
Vagal tone
Bleeding diathesis that is not controlled - Answer Vagal tone
Before performing a procedure, such as an esophageal stent placement, a catheter
is placed to measure the size of a stricture. To stop the patient from gagging when
the catheter is inserted through the mouth, the patient is given an anesthetic.
Atropine or suctioning is used to decrease the amount of salivary secretions as well
as control vagal tone.
Further, dysphagia is relieved when an esophageal stent is placed using an
endoscopic or fluoroscopic approach. Then, bleeding diathesis that is not controlled
and vocal cord palsy are contraindications for esophageal stent placement. These
conditions are not managed with the use of Atropine.
A PICC line is inserted into a vein in the patient's arm and then advanced proximally
until the tip rests in which of the following vessels?
Inferior vena cava.
Thoracic aorta.
Superior vena cava.
Femoral vein - Answer Superior vena cava
A PICC line is inserted into a peripheral vein in the patient's arm, such as the
cephalic, basilic, or brachial vein. It is just advanced proximally toward the heart until
the tip rests in the distal superior vena cava or cavoatrial junction
Of all disruptions diagnosed, the majority are found to be at which location?
Aortic root.
Aortic arch.
Isthmus.
Mediastinal branches - Answer Isthmus
Of all the aortic disruptions diagnosed, 80-86% are found at the isthmus of the aorta.
With an incidence of about 9%, the next most likely site for disruption is at the aortic
root.
The LPO position of the lower leg demonstrates which of the following?
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ARRT VI EXAM 2023 100% CORRECT
Right internal iliac artery and left femoral bifurcation.
Left internal iliac artery and right femoral bifurcation.
Left internal iliac artery and left femoral bifurcation.
Right internal iliac artery and right femoral bifurcation - Answer Left internal iliac
artery and right femoral bifurcation
The LPO position of the lower leg will demonstrate the left internal iliac artery and
right femoral bifurcation. Knowledge of anatomy and positioning is an essential part
of professionalism for radiographers.
How often should a technologist evaluate a patient who is in a cast for impaired
circulation?
Every 30 minutes
Every 15 minutes
Every hour
Evaluation is not necessary - Answer Every 15 minutes
Individuals in a cast due to a fracture are at risk for developing a decubitus ulcer. A
cast on a person's extremities can impair circulation and reduce blood flow to the
skin which may lead to skin breakdown. The technologist should assess the patient
for potential impaired circulation or even compression of the nerve. This assessment
should be done every 15 minute.
Examples of symptoms the technologist should watch for associated with impaired
circulation and compression of the nerves are: (1) pain - rapid onset of pain when a
person is not moving is a sign of damage to the nerves (2) Cold - an individual may
feel coldness in the extremities instead of warmth (3) numbness - numbness is
attributed to nerve damage or the cast is applied to tightly on the patient (4) Burning -
tingling sensation or burning in the fingers or the patient's toes is indicative of
impaired circulation (5) Swelling - represents edema.
About how long is the recovery period for a patient who has had an abdominal
angiogram?
30 minutes -4 hours.
12-24 hours.
48-120 hours.
3-4 weeks. - Answer 12-24 hours
An abdominal angiogram is commonly referred to as an abdominal arteriogram. It is
a type of imaging test. It uses X-rays to evaluate blood vessels. The recovery time
for this procedure is about 12-24 hours.
Which of the following is the widest, shortest part of the small intestine?
Right internal iliac artery and left femoral bifurcation.
Left internal iliac artery and right femoral bifurcation.
Left internal iliac artery and left femoral bifurcation.
Right internal iliac artery and right femoral bifurcation - Answer Left internal iliac
artery and right femoral bifurcation
The LPO position of the lower leg will demonstrate the left internal iliac artery and
right femoral bifurcation. Knowledge of anatomy and positioning is an essential part
of professionalism for radiographers.
How often should a technologist evaluate a patient who is in a cast for impaired
circulation?
Every 30 minutes
Every 15 minutes
Every hour
Evaluation is not necessary - Answer Every 15 minutes
Individuals in a cast due to a fracture are at risk for developing a decubitus ulcer. A
cast on a person's extremities can impair circulation and reduce blood flow to the
skin which may lead to skin breakdown. The technologist should assess the patient
for potential impaired circulation or even compression of the nerve. This assessment
should be done every 15 minute.
Examples of symptoms the technologist should watch for associated with impaired
circulation and compression of the nerves are: (1) pain - rapid onset of pain when a
person is not moving is a sign of damage to the nerves (2) Cold - an individual may
feel coldness in the extremities instead of warmth (3) numbness - numbness is
attributed to nerve damage or the cast is applied to tightly on the patient (4) Burning -
tingling sensation or burning in the fingers or the patient's toes is indicative of
impaired circulation (5) Swelling - represents edema.
About how long is the recovery period for a patient who has had an abdominal
angiogram?
30 minutes -4 hours.
12-24 hours.
48-120 hours.
3-4 weeks. - Answer 12-24 hours
An abdominal angiogram is commonly referred to as an abdominal arteriogram. It is
a type of imaging test. It uses X-rays to evaluate blood vessels. The recovery time
for this procedure is about 12-24 hours.
Which of the following is the widest, shortest part of the small intestine?
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ARRT VI EXAM 2023 100% CORRECT
Descending colon.
Duodenum.
Jejunum.
Cecum. - Answer Duodenum
The duodenum is the shortest, widest section of the small intestine. It is mostly
retroperitoneal -- behind the peritoneum, which protects the abdominal and pelvic
organs.
The posterior tibial artery divides into which vessels?
Dorsalis pedis.
Peroneal artery.
Medial and lateral plantar arteries.
Popliteal artery. - Answer Medial and lateral plantar arteries
The posterior tibial artery branches into the medial and lateral plantar arteries.
Knowledge of anatomy is an essential part of professionalism for radiographers.
After a pulmonary angiogram is completed, how long should pressure be applied to
the puncture site?
30 seconds.
5-10 minutes.
20-45 minutes.
There is no puncture site. - Answer 20-45 minutes
A pulmonary angiogram is used to check to see how well blood flows through the
lungs. It is a type of imaging test. The catheter is placed through the skin into a vein.
At this puncture site, it is crucial to place pressure for 20-45 minutes to avoid
bleeding.
The ileocolic artery is a branch of which of the following?
Inferior mesenteric artery.
Superior mesenteric artery.
Common hepatic artery.
Splenic artery. - Answer Superior mesenteric artery
The ileocolic artery is a branch of the superior mesenteric artery. The ileocolic artery
supplies blood the appendix, cecum, and ileum.
During a percutaneous biliary drainage procedure an antibiotic is given:
After the procedure
One hour before the procedure
7-10 days once the patient is discharged
Descending colon.
Duodenum.
Jejunum.
Cecum. - Answer Duodenum
The duodenum is the shortest, widest section of the small intestine. It is mostly
retroperitoneal -- behind the peritoneum, which protects the abdominal and pelvic
organs.
The posterior tibial artery divides into which vessels?
Dorsalis pedis.
Peroneal artery.
Medial and lateral plantar arteries.
Popliteal artery. - Answer Medial and lateral plantar arteries
The posterior tibial artery branches into the medial and lateral plantar arteries.
Knowledge of anatomy is an essential part of professionalism for radiographers.
After a pulmonary angiogram is completed, how long should pressure be applied to
the puncture site?
30 seconds.
5-10 minutes.
20-45 minutes.
There is no puncture site. - Answer 20-45 minutes
A pulmonary angiogram is used to check to see how well blood flows through the
lungs. It is a type of imaging test. The catheter is placed through the skin into a vein.
At this puncture site, it is crucial to place pressure for 20-45 minutes to avoid
bleeding.
The ileocolic artery is a branch of which of the following?
Inferior mesenteric artery.
Superior mesenteric artery.
Common hepatic artery.
Splenic artery. - Answer Superior mesenteric artery
The ileocolic artery is a branch of the superior mesenteric artery. The ileocolic artery
supplies blood the appendix, cecum, and ileum.
During a percutaneous biliary drainage procedure an antibiotic is given:
After the procedure
One hour before the procedure
7-10 days once the patient is discharged
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