NCLEX PN Test Practice Questions

Name: NCLEX PN Test Practice Questions
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Author: Alice Edwards

NCLEX-PN 2023 practice questions with verified answers, covering stress ulcer prevention, immunosuppressant use post-transplant, and postpartum hemorrhage management. Ideal for nursing students preparing for clinical scenario-based NCLEX questions.

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Nclex Pn Test Practicequestions With Verified Solutions
2023
* The client is admitted from the emergency room with multiple injuries
sustained from an auto accident. His doctor prescribes a histamine
blocker. The reason for this order is:
A. To treat general discomfort
B. To correct electrolyte
imbalances C. To prevent stress
ulcers
D. To treat nausea
Answer C: Histamine blockers arc frequently ordered for clients who are
hospitalized for prolonged periods and who are in a stressful situation.
They are not used to treat discomfort, correct electrolytes, or treat nausea;
therefore, answers A, B, and D are incorrect.
* The client with a recent liver transplant asks the nurse how long he
will have to take cyclosporine {Sandimmune). Which response is correct?
A. 1 year
B. 5 years
C. 10 years
D. The rest of his life
Answer D: Cyclosporin is an immunosuppressant, and the client with a
liver transplant will be on immunosuppressants for the rest of his life.
Answers A, B, and C, therefore, are incorrect.
* Shortly after the client was admitted to the postpartum unit, the
nurse notes heavy lochia rubra with large clots. The nurse should
anticipate an order for:
A. Methergine
B. Sradol
C. Magnesium sulfate
D. Phone rgan

Answer A: Metherginc is a drug chai causes uterine contractions. It Is used
for pastpartal bleeding that is nor controlled by Fltocin. Answers BPC, and D
are incorrect: Stadol is an analgesic; magnesium sulfate is used tor
preeclampsia; and phenergan is an antiemcrlc.
• The client is scheduled to have an intravenous cholangiogram.
Before rhe procedure, the nurse should assess the patient for:
A. Shellfish allergies
B. Reactions co blood transfusions
C. Gallbladder disease
D. Egg allergies
Answer A: Clients having dye procedures should be assessed for allergies
to iodine or shellfish. Answers B and D are incorrect because there is no
need for the client to be assessed for reactions to blood or eggs. Because an
IV cholangiogram is done ro detect gallbladder disease, there is no need to
ask about answer C.
1 A new diabetic is learning co administer his insulin. He receives 10U
of NPH and 12U of regular insulin each morning. Which of the following
statements reflects understanding of the nurse's reaching?
A. "When drawing up my Insulin, I should draw up die regular insulin first."
B. "When drawing up my insulin. I should draw up the N P El insulin first.1
’
C. "It doesn't matter which insulin I draw up first."
D. "I cannot mix the insulin, so I will need two shots."
Answer A: Regular insulin should be drawn up before the NTH. They can be
given together, so there is no need for two injections, making answer D
incorrect. Answer B is obviously Incorrect, and answer C is incorrect
because it does matter which is drawn first: Contamination of NP II into
regular insulin will result In a hypoglycemic reaction at unexpected times.
• A client with osteomylitis has an order for a trough level to be
done because he is caking Gentamycin. When should the nurse call the
lab to obtain the trough level?
A. Before the first dose

B. 30 minutes before the fourth dose
C. 30 minutes after the first dose
D. 30 minutes after rhe fourth dose
Answer B: Trough levels are the lowest blood levels and should be done 30
minutes before the third IV dose or 30 minutes before the fourth IM dose.
Answers A, C, and D are incorrect.
* A 4 year old with cystic fibrosis has a prescription for Viokase
pancreatic enzymes to prevent malabsorption. The correct time to
give pancreatic enzyme is:
A. 1 hour before meals
B. 2 hours after meals
C. With each meal and snack
D. On an empty stomach
Answer C: Viokase is a pancreatic enzyme that is used to facilitate
digestion. It should be given with meals and snacks, and it works well in
foods such a s applesauce. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect times to
administer this medication.
* Isoniazid (INH) has been prescribed for a family member exposed to
tuberculosis. The nurse is aware that rhe length of time that the
medication will be taken is:
A. 6 months
B. 3 months
C. 18 months
D. 24 months
Answer A: The expected time for contact to tuberculosis is 1 year.
Therefore, answers B, C. and D are incorrect.
* The client is admitted to the postpartum unit with an order to continue
the infusion of Pitocln. Which finding indicates that the Pitocin is having
the desired effect?
A. The fundus is deviated to the left.
B. The tundus is firm and in the midline.

C. The fundus is boggy.
D. The fundus is two finger breadths below rhe umbilicus.
Answer B: Pirocin is used to cause the uterus to contract and decrease
bleeding. A uterus deviated co the left, as stated in answer A, indicates a full
bladder. It is not desirable to have a boggy uterus, making answer C
incorrect. This lack of muscle tone will Increase bleeding. Answer D is
incorrect because the position of rhe uterus is not related to the use of
Pirocin.
’ The nurse is teaching a group of new graduates about the safety needs
of the client receiving chemotherapy. Before administering chemotherapy,
the nurse should:
A. Administer a bolus of IV fluid
B. Administer pain
medication C. Administer an
antiemetic
D. Allow the patient a chance to eat
Answer C: Before chemotherapy, an antiemetic should be given because
most chemotherapy agents cause nausea. It is not necessary to give a bolus
of IV fluids, medicate for pain, or allow the client to eat; therefore, answers A,
B, and D are incorrect.
’ Before administering Merhytrexate orally to the client with cancer,
the nurse should check the:
A. IV site
B. Electrolytes
C. Blood gases
D. Viral signs
Answer D: The vita] signs should be taken before any chemotherapy
agent. If it is an IV infusion of chemotherapy, the nurse should check the IV
site as well. Answers B and C are incorrect because it is not necessary to
check the electrolytes or blood gases.
* Vitamin K (aqua mephy ton) is administered to a newborn shortly
after birth for which of the following reasons?
A. To prevent dehydration

B. Ta treat infection
C. To replace electrolytes
D. To facilitate clotting
Answer D : Vitamin K is given after delivery because the newborn's
intestinal tract is sterile and lacks vitamin K needed for clotting. Answer A
is incorrect because vitamin K is not directly given to prevent dehydration,
but will facilitate clotting. Answers B and C are incorrect because vitamin K
does not prevent infection or replace electrolytes.
• The client with an ileostomy is being discharged. Which teaching
should be included in the plan of care?
A. Use Karaya powder to seal the bag.
B. Irrigate the ileostomy dally.
C. Stomahesive is the best skin protector.
D. Neosporin ointment can be used to protect the skin.
Answer C: The best protector for the client with an ileostomy to use is
stomahesive. Answer A Is not correct because the bag w i l l not seal i f the
client uses Karaya powder. Answer B is incorrect because there is no need
to irrigate an ileostomy. Neosporin, answer D. is not used to protect the
skin because it is an antibiotic.
The client has an order for FeSo4 liquid. Which method of administration
would be best?
A. Administer the medication with milk
B. Administer rhe medication with a meal
C. Administer die medication w i t h orange juice
D. Administer the medication undiluted
.Answer C: FeSO4 o r i r o n should be given with ascorbic acid (vitamin Cj.
This helps with the absorption. I t should nor be given w i t h meals or milk
because this decreases the absorption; thus, answers A and B are incorrect.
Giving i t undiluted, as stated in answer D, is not good because it tastes bad.
1 The client arrives i n the emergency room with a hyphema. Which
action by the nurse would be best?

A. Elevate the head of the bed and apply ice to the eye
B. Place the client in a supine position and apply heat to the knee
C. Insert a Poley catheter and measure the intake and output
D. Perform a vaginal exam and check for a discharge
Answer A: Hyphema is blood in the anterior chamber of the eye and
around the eye. The client should have the head of the bed elevated and ice
applied. Answers B, C, and D arc incorrect and do not treat the problem.
• The nurse Is making assignments for the day. Which client should
be assigned to the nursing assistant?
A. The 18 year old with a fracture to two cervical vertebrae
B. The infant with meningitis
C. The elderly client with a thyroidectomy 4 days ago
D. The client with a thoracotomy 2 days ago
Answer C: The most stable client is rhe client with the thyroidectomy 4
days ago. Answers A, B, and D are incorrect because the other clients are
less stable and require a registered nurse.
• The client arrives in rhe emergency room with a "bull's eye" rash.
Which question would be most appropriate for the nurse to ask the
client? A. "Have you found any ticks on your body?"
B. "Have you had any nausea in the last 24 hours?"
C. "Have you been outside rhe country in rhe last 6 months?"
D. "Have you had any fever for rhe past few days?"
Answer A: The "bull's eye" rash is indicative of Lyme's disease, a disease
spread by ticks. The signs and symptoms include elevated temperature,
headache, nausea, and the rash. Although answers B and D are important, rhe
question asks which would be best. Answer C has no significance.
• The child with seizure disorder is being treated with Dilantin
(phenytoin). Which of rhe following statements by rhe patient's mother
indicates to the nurse that rhe patient is experiencing a side effect of
Dilantin therapy?
A. "She is very irritable lately."
B. "She sleeps quite a bit of the time."
C. "Her gums look too big for her
teeth."
D. "She has gained about 10 pounds Ln rhe last 6 months."

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Answer C: Hyperplasia of rhe gums is associated with Dilantin therapy.
Answer A is not related to the therapy; answer B is a side effect, and answer
D is not related to the question.
• A 5 year old is admitted to the unit following a tonsillectomy. Which
of the following would indicate a complication of the surgery?
A. Decreased appetite
B. A low grade fever
C. Chest congestion
D. Constant swallowing
Answer D: A complication of a tonsillectomy is bleeding, and constant
swallowing may indicate bleeding. Decreased appetite is expected after a
tonsillectomy, as is a low grade temperature; thus, answers A and B arc
incorrect. In answer C, chest congestion is not normal but is nor associated
with the tonsillectomy.
■ A 6 year old with cerebral palsy functions at the level of an 18 monthold. Which finding would
support that assessment?
A. She dresses herself.
B. She puUsa toy behind her.

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C. She can build a tower of eight blocks.
D. She can copy a horizontal or vertical line.
Answer B: Children at 18 months of age like push pull toys. Children at
approximately 3 years of age begin to dress themselves and build a tower of
eight blocks. At age four, children can copy a horizontal or vertical line.
Therefore, answers A r C„ and D are incorrect.
1 Which information obtained from the mother of a child with
cerebral palsy most likely correlates to the diagnosis?
A. She was born at 42 weeks gestation.
B. She had meningitis when she was 6 months old.
C. She had physiologic jaundice after delivery.
D. She has frequent sore throats.
Answer B: The diagnosis of meningitis at age 6 months correlates to a
diagnosis of cerebral palsy. Cerebral palsy, a neurological disorder, is often
associated with birth trauma or infections of the brain or spinal column.
Answers A, C, and D arc not related to the question.
* A 10 year old is being created for asthma. Before
administering Theodur, the nurse should check the:
A. Urinary output
B. Blood pressure
C. Pulse
D. Temperature
Answer C: Theodur is a bronchodilator, and a side effect of bronchodilators
is tachycardia, so checking rhe pulse is important. Extreme tachycardia
should be reported to the doctor. Answers A, E, and D are nor necessary.
106. An elderly client is diagnosed with ovarian cancer. She has surgery
followed by chemotherapy with a fluorouracil (Adrucil) IV. What should the
nurse do if she notices crystals and cloudiness in the IV medication?
A. Discard the solution and order a new bag
B. Warm the solution
C. Continue rhe infusion and document the finding
D. Discontinue the medication
Answer A: Crystals in the solution are nor norma] and should not be

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administered to the client. Discard the bad solution immediately. Answer B
is incorrect because warming the solution will not help. Answer C is
incorrect, and answer D requires a doctor's order.
* The client is diagnosed with multiple myoloma. The doctor has
ordered cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan). Which instruction should be given
to rhe client?
A. "Walk about a mile a day to prevent calcium loss."
B. "Increase the fiber in your diet."
C. "Report nausea to the doctor immediately."
D. "Drink at lease eight large glasses of watera day."
Answer D; Cytoxan can cause hemorrhagic cystitis, so rhe client should
drink at least eight glasses of water a day. Answers A and B are not
necessary and, so, are incorrect. Nausea often occurs with chemotherapy, so
answer C is incorrect.
* The client is taking rifampin 600mg po daily to treat his
tuberculosis. Which action by the nurse indicates understanding of the
medication?
A. I oiling the client that the medication will need ro be taken with juice
B. Telling the client that the medication will change the color of the
urine
C. Telling the client ro take the medication before going ro bed at night
D. Telling rhe client to take the medication if night sweats occur
.Answer B: Rifampin can change rhe color of rhe urine and body fluid.
Teaching the client about these changes is best because he might think this
is a complication. Answer A is not necessary, answer C is not true, and
answer D is not true because this medication should be taken regularly
during the course of the treatment.
’ The client is taking prednisone 7.5mg po each morning to treat his
systemic lupus erryrhymatosis. Which statement best explains rhe reason
for taking the prednisone in the morning?
A. There is less chance of forgetting the medication if taken in the morning.
B. There will be less fluid retention if taken in rhe morning.
C. Prednisone is absorbed best with the breakfast meal.

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D. Morning administration mimics the body's natural secretion
of corticosteroid.
Answer D; Taking corticosteroids in the morning mimics the body's natural
release of cortisol. Answers A is nor necessarily true, and answers B and C
are nor true.
• A 20 year old female has a prescription for tetracycline. While
teaching rhe client how to take her medicine, the nurse learns that the
client is also taking Ortho Novum oral contraceptive pills. Which
instructions should be included in rhe teaching plan?
A. The oral contraceptives will decrease the effectiveness of the tetracycline.
B. Nausea often results from taking oral contraceptives and antibiotics.
C. Toxicity can result when taking these two medications together.
D. Antibiotics can decrease the effectiveness of oral contraceptives, so
the client should use an alternate method of birth control.
Answer D: Taking antibiotics and oral contraceptives together decreases
the effectiveness of the oral contraceptives. Answers A, B, and C are not
necessarily true.
• A 60 year old diabetic is taking glyburidc (Diabeta) 1.25mg daily to
treat Type II diabetes mellitus. Which statement indicates the need for
further teaching?
A. "I will keep candy wrlth me just in case my blood sugar drops."
B. "I need to stay out of the sun as much as
passible." C. "I often skip dinner because I don't feel
hungry,"
D. "1 always wear my medical identification."
.Answer C: The client should be taught to car his meals even if he is not
hungry, to prevent a hypoglycemic reaction. Answers A, B, and D are
incorrect because they indicate an understanding of the nurse's teaching.
• The physician prescribes regular insulin, 5 units subcutaneous.
Regular insulin begins to exert an effect:
A. In 5 10 minutes
B. In 10 20 minutes

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C. I n 30 6 0 minutes
D. In 60 120 minutes
Answer C; The rime of onset for regular insulin is 30 60 minutes;
therefore, answers A, E, and D are incorrect.
* Which of rhe following is the best Indicator of the diagnosis of IIIV?
A. White blood cell count
B. ELISA
C. Western Blot
D. Complete blood count
Answer C:The most definitive diagnostic tool for IIIV is the Western Bloc
The white blood cell count, as stated in answer A, is not rhe best indicator,
but a white blood cell count of less than 3,500 requires investigation. The
ELISA rest, answer B, i s a screening exam. Answer D is not specific
enough.
‘ The client has an order for gentamycin to be administered. Which lab
results should be reported to the doctor before beginning rhe
medication?
A. Hematocrit
B. Creatinine
C. White blood cell count
D. Erythrocyte count
Answer B : Gentamycin is a drug from the amino glycocide classification.
These drugs are toxic co the auditory nerve and the kidneys. The hematocrit
is not of significant consideration i n this client; therefore, answer A is
incorrect. Answer C is incorrect because we would expect rhe white blood
cell count to be elevated i n this client because gentamycin is an antibiotic.
Answer D is incorrect because rhe erythrocyte count is also particularly
significant
■ The nurse is caring for the client w i t h a mastectomy. Which
action would be contraindicated?
A. Taking the blood pressure in the side of the mastectomy
B. Elevating rhe arm on the side of the mastectomy
C. Positioning rhe client on the unaffected side
D. Performing a dextrost ix on the unaffected side

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NCLEX PN Test Practice Questions

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