Test Bank For Auditing And Assurance Services, 5th Edition

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Need to sharpen your exam skills? Test Bank For Auditing And Assurance Services, 5th Edition provides answers to tough questions, helping you excel.

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Chapter 01
Auditing and Assurance Services
True / False Questions
1. Financial decision makers demand reliable information that is provided by
accountants.
True False
2. Financial decision makers obtain their accounting information from lenders of
funds.
True False
3. Four conditions that create demand for reliable information are complexity,
remoteness, timeliness, and consequences.
True False
4. The lending of credibility to financial information is known as certification.
True False
5. Independent auditors are employees of the client.
True False
6. Assurance service is the systematic process of objectively obtaining and
evaluating evidence.
True False
7. Evidence consists of assertions about economic actions and events.
True False

8. The purpose of obtaining and evaluating evidence is to ascertain the degree of
correspondence between the assertions and established criteria.
True False
9. The AICPA Statement on Auditing Standards defines auditing more broadly than
the AAA definition of auditing.
True False
10. The PCAOB audit objective related to the completeness assertion is to establish
evidence that assets, liabilities, and equities actually exist.
True False
11. The ASB balance audit objective related to valuation or accuracy is to determine
whether proper values have been assigned to assets, liabilities, equities,
revenues, and expenses.
True False
12. The objective of internal auditing is to assist members of an organization to
effectively perform their obligations.
True False
13. Internal auditors perform only operational audits.
True False
14. Government auditors perform both financial and performance audits.
True False
15. Expanded scope governmental auditing includes economy and efficiency and
program results audits.
True False
16. The AICPA licenses CPAs to practice in the United States.
True False

17. Professional skepticism is an auditor's tendency not to believe anyone.
True False
18. Assurance services are independent professional services that improve the
quality of information or its context for decision makers.
True False
19. The concept "professional skepticism" requires that auditors assume
management is dishonest and should not be trusted.
True False
20. For independent auditors of financial statements in the United States, established
criteria largely consist of the generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP).
True False
Multiple Choice Questions
21. The audit objective of presenting all transactions and accounts in the financial
statements are in fact included is related to which of the PCAOB assertions?
A. Existence.
B. Rights and obligations.
C. Completeness.
D. Valuation.

22. To be proficient as an auditor, a person must first be able to accomplish which of
these tasks in a decision-making process?
A. Identify audit evidence relevant to the verification of assertions management
makes in its unaudited financial statements and notes.
B. Formulate evidence-gathering procedures (audit plan) designed to obtain
sufficient, competent evidence about assertions management makes in
financial statements and notes.
C. Recognize the financial assertions made in management's financial statements
and footnotes.
D. Evaluate the evidence produced by the performance of procedures and decide
whether management's assertions conform to generally accepted accounting
principles and reality.
23. Which of the following is an underlying condition that in part creates the demand
by users for reliable information?
A. Economic transactions are numerous and complex.
B. Decisions are time sensitive.
C. Users are separated from accounting records by distance and time.
D. Financial decisions are important to investors and users.
E. All of the above.
24. Which of the following is not included in The American Accounting Association
(AAA) definition of auditing?
A. Potential conflict of interest.
B. Systematic process.
C. Assertions about economic actions.
D. Established criteria.

25. What is the term used to identify the risk that the client's financial statements may
be materially false and misleading?
A. Business risk.
B. Information risk.
C. Client risk.
D. Risk assessment.
26. Which of the following is not a recommendation usually made following the
completion of an operational audit?
A. Economic and efficient use of resources.
B. Effective achievement of business objectives.
C. Attesting to the fairness of the financial statements.
D. Compliance with company policies.
27. In order to be considered as external auditors with respect to government
agencies, GAO auditors must be
A. Organizationally independent.
B. Empowered as the accounting and auditing agency by the U.S. Congress.
C. Funded by the federal government.
D. Guided by standards similar to GAAS.
28. Which of the following is the essential purpose of the audit function?
A. Detection of fraud.
B. Examination of individual transactions to certify their validity.
C. Determination of whether the client's financial statement assertions are fairly
stated.
D. Assurance of the consistent application of correct accounting procedures

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29. The audit objective that all the transactions and accounts presented in the
financial statements represent real assets, liabilities, revenues, and expenses is
related most closely to which of the PCAOB assertions?
A. Existence or occurrence.
B. Rights and obligations.
C. Completeness.
D. Presentation and disclosure.
30. The audit objective that all transactions are recorded in the proper period is
related most closely to which of the Audit Standards Board (ASB) transaction
assertions?
A. Occurrence.
B. Completeness.
C. Cutoff.
D. Accuracy.
31. The audit objective that all transactions are recorded in the proper account is
related most closely to which one of the ASB transaction assertions?
A. Occurrence.
B. Completeness.
C. Accuracy.
D. Classification.
32. The audit objective that all balances include items owned by the client is related
most closely to which one of the ASB balance assertions?
A. Existence.
B. Rights and obligations.
C. Completeness.
D. Valuation.

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33. The audit objective that all balances include all items that should be recorded in
that account is related most closely to which one of the ASB balance assertions?
A. Existence.
B. Rights and obligations.
C. Completeness.
D. Valuation.
34. The audit objective that footnotes in the financial statements should be clear and
expressed so that the information is easily conveyed to the readers of the
financial statements is related most closely with which of the ASB presentation
and disclosure assertions?
A. Occurrence.
B. Rights and obligations.
C. Comprehensibility.
D. Understandability.
35. The engineering department at Omni Company built a piece of equipment in the
company's own shop for use in the company's operations. The auditor reviewed
all work orders that were capitalized as part of the equipment costs. Which of the
following is the ASB transaction assertion most closely related to the auditor's
testing?
A. Occurrence.
B. Completeness.
C. Accuracy.
D. Classification.

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36. The engineering department at Omni Company built a piece of equipment in the
company's own shop for use in the company's operations. When looking at the
ending balance for the fixed asset account, the auditor examined all work orders,
purchased materials, labor cost reports, and applied overhead that were
capitalized as part of the equipment costs. Which of the following is the ASB
balance assertion most closely related to the auditor's testing?
A. Existence.
B. Completeness.
C. Rights and obligations.
D. Valuation.
37. Which of the following best describes the primary role and responsibility of the
independent external auditor?
A. Produce a company's annual financial statements and notes.
B. Express an opinion on the fairness of a company's annual financial statements
and footnotes.
C. Provide business consulting advice to audit clients.
D. Obtain an understanding of the client's internal control structure and give
management a report about control problems and deficiencies.
38. Which of the following best describes the main reason that independent auditors
report on management's financial statements?
A. Management fraud may exist, and it is likely to be detected by independent
auditors.
B. The management that prepares the statements and the persons who use the
statements may have conflicting interests.
C. Misstated account balances may be corrected as the result of the independent
audit work.
D. The management that prepares the statements may have a poorly designed
system of internal control.

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39. The auditor's judgment concerning the overall fairness of the presentation of
financial position, results of operations, and cash flows is applied within the
framework of
A. Quality control.
B. Generally accepted auditing standards, which include the concept of
materiality.
C. The auditor's evaluation of the audited company's internal control.
D. The applicable financial reporting framework (i.e., GAAP in the United States).
40. Assurance services involve all of the following except
A. Relevance as well as the reliability of information.
B. Nonfinancial information as well as traditional financial statements.
C. Providing absolute rather than reasonable assurance.
D. Electronic databases as well as printed reports.
41. Because of the risk of material misstatement, an audit of financial statements in
accordance with generally accepted auditing standards should be planned and
performed with an attitude of
A. Objective judgment.
B. Independent integrity.
C. Professional skepticism.
D. Impartial conservatism.
42. Which of the following best describes assurance services?
A. Independent professional services that report on the client's financial
statements.
B. Independent professional services that improve the quality of information for
decision makers.
C. Independent professional services that report on specific written management
assertions.
D. Independent professional services that improve the client's operations.

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43. Which of the following is not a PCAOB assertion about inventory related to
presentation and disclosure?
A. Inventory is properly classified as a current asset on the balance sheet.
B. Inventory is properly stated at its cost on the balance sheet.
C. Major inventory categories and their valuation bases are adequately disclosed
in notes.
D. All of the above are PCAOB presentation and disclosure assertions about
inventory.
44. Which of the following is not an ASB assertion about inventory related to
presentation and disclosure?
A. Inventory is properly classified as a current asset on the balance sheet.
B. Inventory is properly stated at cost on the balance sheet.
C. Major inventory categories and their valuation bases are adequately disclosed
in notes.
D. All of the above are ASB presentation and disclosure assertions about
inventory.
45. In performing an attestation engagement, a CPA typically
A. Supplies litigation support services.
B. Assesses control risk at a low level.
C. Expresses a conclusion on an assertion about some type of subject matter.
D. Provides management consulting advice.

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46. An attestation engagement is one in which a CPA is engaged to
A. Issue a report on subject matter or an assertion about the subject matter that is
the responsibility of another party.
B. Provide tax advice or prepare a tax return based on financial information the
CPA has not audited or reviewed.
C. Testify as an expert witness in accounting, auditing, or tax matters, given
certain stipulated facts.
D. Assemble prospective financial statements based on the assumptions of the
entity's management without expressing any assurance.
47. The underlying conditions that create demand by users for reliable information
include all of the following except
A. Transactions are numerous and complex.
B. Users lack professional skepticism.
C. Users are separated from accounting records by distance and time.
D. Financial decisions are important to investors and users.
E. Decisions are time sensitive.
48. Cutoff tests designed to detect credit sales made before the end of the year that
have been recorded in the subsequent year provide assurance about the PCAOB
assertion of
A. Presentation.
B. Completeness.
C. Rights.
D. Existence.

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49. Inquiries of warehouse personnel concerning possible obsolete or slow-moving
inventory items provide assurance about the PCAOB assertion of
A. Completeness.
B. Existence.
C. Presentation.
D. Valuation.
E. Rights and obligations.
50. Inquiries of warehouse personnel concerning possible obsolete or slow-moving
inventory items provide assurance about the ASB balance assertion of
A. Completeness.
B. Existence.
C. Presentation.
D. Valuation.
E. Rights and obligations.
51. The probability that the information circulated by a company will be false or
misleading is referred to as
A. Business risk.
B. Information risk.
C. Assurance risk.
D. Audit risk.

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52. The Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 requires that the key company officials certify
the financial statements. Certification means that the company CEO and CFO
must sign a statement indicating
A. They have read the financial statements.
B. They are not aware of any false or misleading statements (or any key omitted
disclosures)
C. They believe that the financial statements present an accurate picture of the
company's financial condition.
D. All of the above.
53. The process by which a CPA obtains a certificate and license in a state other than
the state in which the CPA's certificate was originally obtained is referred to as
A. Substantial equivalency.
B. Quid pro quo.
C. Relicensing.
D. Re-examination
54. The risk that an entity will fail to meet its objectives is referred to as
A. Business risk.
B. Information risk.
C. Assurance risk.
D. Audit risk.
55. The four basic requirements for becoming a CPA in most states relate to
A. Education, the CPA Examination, experience, and substantial equivalency.
B. The CPA Examination, experience, continuing professional education, and a
state certificate.
C. Continuing professional education, the CPA Examination, experience, and an
AICPA certificate.
D. Education, the CPA Examination, experience, and a state certificate.

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56. The study of business operations for the purpose of making recommendations
about the efficient use of resources, effective achievement of business objectives,
and compliance with company policies is referred to as
A. Environmental auditing.
B. Financial auditing.
C. Compliance auditing.
D. Operational auditing.
57. The accounting, auditing, and investigating agency of the U.S. Congress that is
headed by the U.S. Comptroller General is known as
A. The Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI).
B. The U.S. General Accountability Office (GAO).
C. The Internal Revenue Service (IRS).
D. The United States Legislative Auditors (USLA).
58. Which of the following would be considered an assurance engagement?
A. Giving an opinion on a prize promoter's claims about the amount of
sweepstakes prizes awarded in the past.
B. Giving an opinion on the conformity of the financial statements of a university
with generally accepted accounting principles.
C. Giving an opinion on the fair presentation of a newspaper's circulation data.
D. Giving assurance about the average drive length achieved by golfers with a
client's golf balls.
E. All of the above.

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59. It is always a good idea for auditors to begin an audit with the professional
skepticism characterized by the assumption that
A. A potential conflict of interest always exists between the auditor and the
management of the enterprise under audit.
B. In audits of financial statements, the auditor acts exclusively in the capacity of
an auditor.
C. The professional status of the independent auditor imposes commensurate
professional obligations.
D. Financial statements and financial data are verifiable.
60. In an attestation engagement, a CPA practitioner is engaged to
A. Compile a company's financial forecast based on management's assumptions
without expressing any form of assurance.
B. Prepare a written report containing a conclusion about the reliability of a
management assertion.
C. Prepare a tax return using information the CPA has not audited or reviewed.
D. Give expert testimony in court on particular facts in a corporate income tax
controversy.
61. A determination of cost savings obtained by outsourcing cafeteria services is
most likely to be an objective of
A. Environmental auditing.
B. Financial auditing.
C. Compliance auditing.
D. Operational auditing.

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