Test Bank For Core Concepts in Pharmacology, 3rd Edition

Name: Test Bank For Core Concepts in Pharmacology, 3rd Edition
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Boost your study sessions with Test Bank For Core Concepts in Pharmacology, 3rd Edition, a practical guide featuring exam questions and answers.

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Exam
Name___________________________________
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) The term pharmacology is defined as:
A) The study of medicine.
B) The use of medicine to treat disease.
C) The branch of medicine concerned with the treatment of disease and suffering.
D) The use of herbs, natural extracts, vitamins, minerals, or dietary supplements to treat
diseases.
1)
2) In addition to physicians, which of the following health care providers are able to prescribe
medications? Select all that apply.
A) Physicianʹs assistants B) Medical assistants
C) Advanced nurse practitioners D) Dentists
2)
3) The branch of medicine concerned with the treatment of disease and suffering is known as:
A) Therapeutics. B) Pathophysiology.
C) Pharmacology. D) Pharmacotherapeutics.
3)
4) Which of the following best describes the term pharmaceutics?
A) Herbs, natural extracts, vitamins, minerals, and dietary supplements
B) The science of preparing and dispensing drugs, and a very important part of
pharmacotherapy
C) Agents naturally produced in animal cells, in microorganisms, or by the body itself
D) The use of medicine to treat disease
4)
5) Which of the following are considered medically therapeutic? Select all that apply.
A) Natural alternative therapies B) Biologics
C) Traditional drugs D) Sunscreens and antiperspirants
5)
6) Therapeutic drugs are sometimes classified on the basis of how they are produced. Insulin would
fall into which category?
A) Traditional therapeutic drug B) Biologics
C) Natural therapy D) Alternative therapies
6)
7) Which of the following statements best describes how a traditional drug is different from a biologic
agent?
A) Biologics include herbs, natural extracts, vitamins, minerals, and dietary supplements.
B) Biologics and traditional drugs are identical chemically.
C) Traditional drugs are naturally produced by the body or in animal cells, where biologic
agents are chemically produced in a laboratory.
D) Traditional drugs are chemically produced in a laboratory, where biologic agents are
naturally produced by the body or in animal cells.
7)
1

8) Drugs that demonstrate wide margins of safety and are used over long periods of time are often
switched from:
A) Traditional drug therapy classification to biologics classification
B) Prescription-only to over-the-counter (OTC) drug.
C) One classification to a lower, less restrictive one.
D) Therapeutic to effective.
8)
9) Which of the following statements describe advantages of prescription drugs versus
over-the-counter (OTC) drugs? Select all that apply.
A) The practitioner can maximize therapy by ordering the proper medication for the clientʹs
condition.
B) There are fewer side effects of prescription drugs than of OTC drugs.
C) The cost of the drug is always less than the cost of an OTC drug.
D) The practitioner is able to control the dose and frequency of dosing of the drug.
9)
10) Reasons why a client might prefer to take an OTC drug are numerous. Which of the following
statements is a potential advantage of OTC drugs versus prescription drugs?
A) OTC drugs can react with foods, herbal products, and prescriptions, or with other OTC
drugs.
B) Choosing the proper medication for a specific problem can be challenging.
C) A client can obtain OTC drugs more easily than prescription drugs.
D) Self-treatment is sometimes ineffective.
10)
11) The science of preparing and dispensing drugs is known as:
A) Pharmacology. B) Therapeutics.
C) Traditional drug therapy. D) Pharmaceutics.
11)
12) A client expresses concerns about his newly prescribed medication. The nurse explains that the
safety and effectiveness of the medication have been proven, according to the statutes of which
law?
A) FDA Modernization Act B) Pure Food and Drug Act
C) Public Health Service Act D) Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act
12)
13) A client asks the nurse whether the claims made regarding a new medication are true or false. The
nurse tells the client the following act or amendment was passed in 1912 to prevent the sale of
drugs with false therapeutic claims that were intended to cheat the consumer:
A) Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act. B) FDA Modernization Act.
C) The Sherley Amendment. D) Pure Food and Drug Act.
13)
14) If the FDA discovers a serious problem with a medication that has been approved, the FDA will:
A) Issue a warning to practitioners to watch for side effects in clients taking the drug.
B) Require that the drug be withdrawn from the market and its use discontinued.
C) Continue to monitor the medication in post-marketing studies.
D) Require the medication to have additional clinical trials conducted.
14)
15) A certain drug, prescribed for treatment of a particular condition, is found to be beneficial in
treating a different problem. Which legislation allows drug companies to share this type of
information with health care practitioners?
A) Health Products and Food Branch B) Therapeutic Products Programme
C) Prescription Drug User Fee Act D) Food and Drugs Act
15)
2

16) A client asks the nurse if all herbal supplements undergo the same testing that prescription drugs
undergo. Which of the following statements would be the best response by the nurse?
A) ʺHerbal and dietary supplements may not be marketed without prior approval from the
FDA.ʺ
B) ʺAll medications and herbal supplements undergo the same testing before being made
available for purchase.ʺ
C) ʺHerbal products and dietary supplements are regulated by the Dietary Supplement Health
and Education Act of 1994. This act does not require the same research for herbal or dietary
supplements.ʺ
D) ʺThe Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (CFSAN) regulates use of herbal
supplements, which means the medication must be safe.ʺ
16)
17) Which government agency has control over which prescription or OTC drugs may be used for
therapy?
A) The Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (CFSAN)
B) The Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research (CBER)
C) The Center for Drug Evaluation and Research (CDER)
D) The National Institutes of Health (NIH)
17)
18) Which branch of the FDA is responsible for the use of biologics, including serums, vaccines, and
products found in the bloodstream?
A) The Center for Biologics Evaluation and Research (CBER)
B) The FDA does not have a branch responsible for the use of biologics.
C) The Center for Food Safety and Applied Nutrition (CFSAN)
D) The Center for Drug Evaluation and Research (CDER)
18)
19) A client has been selected as a participant in the approval process of a particular drug. The clientʹs
dose and any effects from the medication are being monitored. The phase of drug approval in
which this client is participating is the:
A) Post-marketing study. B) Post-clinical investigation.
C) Clinical phase trial. D) Preclinical investigation.
19)
20) Which phase of clinical research involves basic science research?
A) Preclinical investigation B) Submission of NDA
C) Post-marketing study D) Clinical phase trials
20)
21) Which of the following lists the stages of approval for therapeutic and biologic drugs in the correct
order?
A) NDA submission with review, preclinical investigation, clinical investigation, and
post-marketing studies
B) Preclinical investigation, NDA submission with review, clinical investigation, and
post-marketing studies
C) Preclinical investigation, clinical investigation, NDA submission with review, and
post-marketing studies
D) NDA submission with review, clinical investigation, preclinical investigation, and
post-marketing studies
21)
3

22) The nurse is aware of the increased potential for adverse drug—drug and drug—herbal
interactions, and explains this to the client in the following statement:
A) ʺPeople are using more herbs, so the risk for interaction is greater.ʺ
B) ʺManaged care has made a greater number of drugs available to consumers.ʺ
C) ʺDrugs are being developed at a faster rate than their risk can be assessed.ʺ
D) ʺThe restrictions placed by the FDA are stricter.ʺ
22)
23) Which division of Health Canada is responsible for ensuring that health products and foods
approved for sale to Canadians are safe and of high quality?
A) Therapeutic Products Directorate (TPD)
B) Health Products and Food Branch (HPFB)
C) Biologics and Genetic Therapies Directorate (BGTD)
D) Natural Health Products Directorate (NHPD)
23)
24) A client asks the nurse about the safety of medications from Canadian pharmacies. The nurse
responds that drugs sold in Canada:
A) Are not safe.
B) Are not governed by Canada.
C) Are not the same as those sold in the United States.
D) Must be marketed with an NOC and DIN.
24)
25) A public health nurse is seeking information on bioterrorist agents to present education regarding
security and defense in case of attack. Which of the following would be an appropriate resource?
A) U.S. Armed Forces B) U.S. National Guard
C) U.S. Department of Homeland Security D) FEMA
25)
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Exam
Name___________________________________
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) A student nurse asks what the difference between a therapeutic class and a pharmacologic class is.
The best response would be:
A) Therapeutic classification is how the medication produces an effect in the body, where
pharmacologic classification is how a medication works clinically.
B) Pharmacologic classification is how the medication produces an effect in the body, where
therapeutic classification is how a medication works clinically.
C) Therapeutic classification is how addictive a medication is, where pharmacologic
classification is how the medication produces an effect in the body.
D) There are no differences between therapeutic and pharmacologic classes.
1)
2) A drug is labeled ʺused for minor skin irritations.ʺ This is an example of which classification?
A) Function B) Usefulness C) Pharmacologic D) Therapeutic
2)
3) A nursing instructor is teaching fundamental pharmacological content. In helping the students
become comfortable with this material, the instructor suggests that they focus initially on
familiarizing themselves with the:
A) Trade names. B) Adverse effects.
C) Prototype. D) Generic names.
3)
4) The original, well-understood drug model from which other medications in a pharmacologic class
have been developed is known as:
A) The prototype drug. B) A generic drug.
C) A proprietary drug. D) A combination drug.
4)
5) Which of the following statements is true regarding prototype drugs?
A) A nurse can apply understanding of the effects of a prototype drug to other drugs in the
same class.
B) The mechanism of action is different for the prototype drug than for other drugs in the same
class.
C) The most commonly used drug in a specific class is always the most widely prescribed drug.
D) Understanding the effects of the prototype drug does not help the nurse to understand the
effects of other drugs in the same class.
5)
6) A generic drug takes 60 minutes to produce a therapeutic effect; the brand name drug takes the
same amount of time to produce the same effect. This is a measure of the drugʹs:
A) Efficacy. B) Therapeutic effect.
C) Adverse effect. D) Bioavailability.
6)
7) The physiologic ability of the drug to reach its target cells and produce its effect is known as:
A) Therapeutic effect. B) Efficacy.
C) Bioavailability. D) Adverse effect.
7)
8) Which of the following is a trade name?
A) Anticoagulant B) Loop diuretic
C) Benadryl D) Calcium channel blocker
8)
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9) When a new drug is developed, it cannot be made by other pharmaceutical companies for 17 years
after the new drug application (NDA) because:
A) It takes 17 years for all pharmaceutical companies to develop a generic version of the drug.
B) This allows the pharmaceutical company to earn back the money spent to develop the drug.
C) Animal testing must continue for 10 years, then 7 years of human clinical trials, for a drug to
be approved.
D) It will take 17 years of clinical trials to approve the drug.
9)
10) A client asks the nurse why the physician often refers to medications by the generic name instead
of by the brand name. The best response by the nurse would be:
A) There is only one generic name for each medication, but there are often many brand names.
B) The physician prefers to use a more technical-sounding name for medications.
C) The client needs to ask the physician to explain why medications have so many different
names.
D) The pharmacy will only accept a prescription written with the generic name.
10)
11) Which of the following is not a reason why generic names are preferred over chemical or trade
names?
A) Chemical names are often complicated and difficult to remember.
B) There might be multiple trade names for a drug.
C) The generic name can consistently be matched to the active ingredients.
D) The generic name is always a shortened version of the chemical name.
11)
12) Sometimes medications are placed on a negative formulary list, which means the pharmacist must:
A) Dispense either the generic or trade name medication.
B) Verify the order with the physician a second time before dispensing the trade name
medication.
C) Dispense only the generic medication.
D) Dispense only the trade name medication.
12)
13) A controlled substance is a drug that:
A) Is always called to the pharmacy by the practitioner.
B) Requires both a written prescription and a telephone call from the prescribing practitioner.
C) Is regulated under the Controlled Substances Act, and may have many restrictions placed on
ordering or refilling this medication.
D) Does not require a prescription to purchase.
13)
14) Some drugs are frequently abused, and cause overwhelming feeling that drives someone to use a
drug repeatedly, which is known as:
A) Psychological dependence. B) Dependence.
C) Addiction. D) Physical dependence.
14)
15) A drug that requires a written prescription for refill would belong to which category?
A) II B) I C) III D) IV
15)
16) Which of the following would be categorized as Schedule II drugs? Select all that apply.
A) Tylenol with codeine B) Morphine
C) Methadone D) Valium
16)
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17) A drug with limited or no therapeutic use would belong to which schedule?
A) I B) X C) III D) V
17)
18) Scheduled drugs are classified by their potential for abuse. Which of the following classifications
has the highest potential for abuse?
A) V B) III C) I D) II
18)
19) Scheduled drugs are classified by their potential for abuse. Which of the following classifications
has the lowest potential for abuse?
A) II B) I C) V D) III
19)
20) Drugs that have the potential for abuse are regulated by which act in Canada?
A) There are no such restrictions in the Narcotic Control Act.
B) The Controlled Drugs and Substance Act
C) Part III, Schedule G, of the Canadian Food and Drugs Act
D) Part IV, Schedule H of the Canadian Food and Drugs Act
20)
21) In Canada, medications are classified under a three-schedule system. Which of the following does
not fall under Schedule I?
A) Narcotic drugs B) All prescription drugs
C) All nonprescription drugs D) Controlled drugs
21)
22) A pregnant woman with a life-threatening condition must take medication that can cause harm to
her fetus. What is the safety category that this medication most likely represents?
A) A B) B C) C D) D
22)
23) Which of the following medications would have the greatest risk to a fetus if given to a pregnant
client?
A) Potassium chloride (K-Lor)
B) Ranitidine (Zantac)
C) Estrogen with progesterone (Ortho Novum)
D) Warfarin (Coumadin)
23)
24) Which of the following medications would have the least risk to a fetus if given to a pregnant
client?
A) Estrogen with progesterone (Ortho Novum)
B) Warfarin (Coumadin)
C) Potassium chloride (K-Lor)
D) Ranitidine (Zantac)
24)
25) A medication that is a teratogen is:
A) A non-narcotic pain reliever.
B) A controlled substance.
C) One that will harm a developing fetus or embryo.
D) A medication used to treat bacterial infections.
25)
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Exam
Name___________________________________
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) Prior to administering a medication to a client the nurse needs to understand which of the
following? Select all that apply.
A) The manufacturer of the medication
B) Name (generic and trade) and drug classification
C) What drug is ordered
D) Contraindications for this medication
1)
2) After administering a medication, the nurse notes that the client has itching and a runny nose. The
nurseʹs next action is to:
A) Notify the charge nurse. B) Monitor the client closely.
C) Assess vital signs. D) Document the findings.
2)
3) Following administration of a drug to a client the person who is most responsible for monitoring
the client for adverse reactions is:
A) The family of the client. B) The physical therapist.
C) The nurse. D) The nursing assistant.
3)
4) The six rights of drug administration are:
A) Right client, right medication, right dose, right route of administration, right time of
preparation, and right documentation.
B) Right client, right medication, right dose, right type of medication, right time of preparation
and right documentation.
C) Right client, right medication, right dose, right route of administration, right time of delivery,
and right documentation.
D) Right client, right dose, right route of administration, right time of delivery and right
documentation.
4)
5) Which of the following is not one of the three checks of drug administration?
A) Checking the drug with the medication administration record (MAR) or medication
information system when removing it from the medication drawer, refrigerator, or
controlled substance locker.
B) Checking the drug when preparing it, pouring it, taking it out of the unit dose container, or
connecting the IV tubing to the bag
C) Checking the drug after administering it to the patient
D) Checking the drug before administering it to the patient
5)
6) The nurse is speaking with a client regarding current medications. The client states she does not
always take the medications as prescribed. Which of the following are potential reasons for
noncompliance? Select all that apply.
A) Adverse effects such as headache, dizziness, nausea, diarrhea, or impotence often cause
noncompliance.
B) The client always takes medications as prescribed.
C) Patients sometimes forget doses of medications.
D) The drug may be too expensive or may not be approved by the patientʹs health insurance
plan.
6)
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7) A medication order that should be given immediately and only once is known as:
A) A single order. B) An ASAP order.
C) A prn order. D) A STAT order.
7)
8) A medication has been ordered to be given PO. The nurse understands the route of administration
to be:
A) Intramuscular. B) Vaginal. C) Oral. D) Rectal.
8)
9) The physician ordered amlodipine (Norvasc) 5mg tab PO bid. The nurse understands the
amlodipine (Norvasc) should be administered to the client:
A) One tablet orally once per day. B) One tablet orally three times per day.
C) One tablet orally twice per day. D) One tablet orally four times per day.
9)
10) The physician writes an order for a medication to be given SL tid. The nurse understands this
means the medication should be given:
A) Subcutaneous four times per day. B) Sublingual four times per day.
C) Sublingual three times per day. D) Subcutaneous three times per day.
10)
11) Which of the following drug administration abbreviations are matched correctly with their
definition? Select all that apply.
A) hs- hour of sleep/bedtime B) qid- three times per day
C) prn- when needed/necessary D) ac- after meals; after eating
11)
12) Which of the following drug administration abbreviations are matched correctly with their
definition? Select all that apply.
A) PO- pills only B) gtt- drop C) no- number D) qh- every hour
12)
13) A standing order is:
A) Usually carried out within 2 hours of the time the order is written by the physician, but the
exact timing is defined by each facility.
B) Is administered as required by the patientʹs condition.
C) To be given only once and at a specific time.
D) Written in advance of a situation, and should be carried out under specific circumstances.
13)
14) The medication is ordered as follows: Give 5 ml by mouth four times per day. The nurse instructs
the client that this dose is equivalent to:
A) Three teaspoons. B) One teaspoon.
C) One tablespoon. D) Five teaspoons.
14)
15) The nurse is recording intake for a client. The nurse knows that one cup equals:
A) 8 fluid drams or 30 ml. B) 4 fluid drams or 15 ml.
C) 500 ml or 1 pint. D) 240 ml or 8 ounces.
15)
16) One kilogram equals:
A) 2.2 pounds. B) 3.2 pounds. C) 1.2 pounds. D) 0.45 pounds.
16)
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17) A client has been prescribed a liquid medication to be taken 15 ml tid. The nurse instructs the client
to:
A) Carefully measure the medication using any teaspoon and take one teaspoon three times per
day.
B) Carefully measure using a medical dosing device and take 15 ml which equals one
tablespoon three times per day.
C) Carefully measure using a medical dosing device and take 15 ml which equals one teaspoon
three times per day.
D) Carefully measure the medication using any tablespoon available and take one tablespoon 3
times per day.
17)
18) A client is being discharged with an order to drink 2400 ml of fluid per day. The client asks the
nurse how many cups this equals. The nurse replies:
A) You should drink five 8 ounce glasses of fluid per day.
B) You should drink 1 pint of fluid per day.
C) You should drink ten 8 ounce glasses of fluid per day.
D) You should drink 2 pints of fluid per day.
18)
19) Enteral medication administration includes which of the following routes? Select all that apply.
A) Medications given orally B) Medications given subcutaneously
C) Medications given via nasogastric tube D) Medications given via gastrostomy tubes
19)
20) Which type of medication should not be given via nasogastric (NG) tube?
A) Tablets
B) Sustained-release medications
C) Liquid medications
D) All medications can be given via NG tube
20)
21) The physician orders a medication to be given via the buccal route. The nurse gives which of the
following instructions to the client prior to taking this medication?
A) The tablet is placed under the tongue and allowed to dissolve slowly.
B) This drug should be applied directly to the skin.
C) The tablet is placed in the oral cavity between the gum and the cheek.
D) The tablet should be crushed and given in either pudding or applesauce.
21)
22) Parenteral medication administration includes which of the following routes? Select all that apply.
A) Vaginal B) Oral
C) Intramuscular injection D) Intravenous infusion
22)
23) IM injections cannot be administered in which site?
A) Vastus lateralis site B) Deltoid site
C) Subscapular areas of the upper back D) Ventrogluteal site
23)
24) The nurse is preparing a syringe for an intramuscular injection. The nurse is to administer the
injection in the deltoid muscle and knows the maximum amount of medication for this site is:
A) 3 ml. B) 2 ml. C) 1 ml. D) 4 ml.
24)
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25) Which of the following is a disadvantage of administering medication via the subcutaneous or
intramuscular route?
A) This route allows medications to avoid digestive enzymes.
B) This route allows medications to avoid the first-pass effect in the liver.
C) This route allows only small volumes can be administered.
D) This route can be used in clients who are unable to take medications orally.
25)
26) Topical drugs given to deliver local effects produce the desired reaction of:
A) Absorption of the medication into the circulation.
B) Fewer side effects.
C) A specified rate of delivery.
D) Systemic absorption through the skin.
26)
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Exam
Name___________________________________
MULTIPLE CHOICE. Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) Pharmacokinetics is a term that describes:
A) What a drug does to the body. B) What the body does to a drug.
C) How drugs activate specific receptors. D) The efficacy of a drug.
1)
2) Pharmacokinetics includes four different processes. Which of the following lists the processes in
the order they take place?
A) Distribution, absorption, metabolism, and excretion
B) Absorption, metabolism, distribution, and excretion
C) Absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion
D) Metabolism, absorption, distribution, and excretion
2)
3) Which of the following is the first step in drug transport?
A) Absorption B) Distribution C) Metabolism D) Excretion
3)
4) The process by which drugs are transported after they have been absorbed or administered
directly into the bloodstream is known as:
A) Administration. B) Metabolism.
C) Excretion. D) Distribution.
4)
5) The main organ of excretion is the:
A) Liver. B) Kidney. C) Lung. D) Colon.
5)
6) Which of the following will slow the absorption of a drug?
A) Taking medication with water
B) Taking medication as prescribed
C) Taking medication earlier than prescribed
D) Taking medication with food
6)
7) When a medication binds to a plasma protein, the drug:
A) Has reached its target cells.
B) Is working at its full potential.
C) Is unable to reach its target cells.
D) Is in the process of being excreted by the body.
7)
8) A client takes two medications at the same time. The nurse knows the action of one drug could be
intensified because:
A) A client must never take two medications at the same time.
B) Both drugs compete for the plasma protein receptors, and one drug will displace the other.
C) Neither drug will bind to any plasma protein receptors, and the effect of the more potent
drug will be intensified.
D) The drugs bind together, and the effect of the more potent drug is intensified.
8)
9) Which of the following organs contains anatomical barriers that limit some drugs from gaining
access?
A) Heart B) Liver C) Kidney D) Brain
9)
1

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Test Bank For Core Concepts in Pharmacology, 3rd Edition

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