Test Bank for Gould's Pathophysiology for the Health Professions, 7th Edition (Chapters 1-28)
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Chapter 01: Introduction to Pathophysiology
VanMeter and Hubert: Gould’s Pathophysiology for the Health Professions, 7th Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which of the following would be the most likely cause of an iatrogenic disease?
a. An inherited disorder
b. A combination of specific etiological factors
c. An unwanted effect of a prescribed drug
d. Prolonged exposure to toxic chemicals in the environment
ANS: C
2. The manifestations of a disease are best defined as the
a. subjective feelings of discomfort during a chronic illness.
b. signs and symptoms of a disease.
c. factors that precipitate an acute episode of a chronic illness.
d. early indicators of the prodromal stage of infection.
ANS: B
3. The best definition of the term prognosis is the
a. precipitating factors causing an acute episode.
b. number of remissions to be expected during the course of a chronic illness.
c. predicted outcome or likelihood of recovery from a specific disease.
d. exacerbations occurring during chronic illness.
ANS: C
4. Which of the following is considered a systemic sign of disease?
a. Swelling of the knee
b. Fever
c. Pain in the neck
d. Red rash on the face
ANS: B
5. Etiology is defined as the study of the
a. causes of a disease.
b. course of a disease.
c. expected complications of a disease.
d. manifestations of a disease.
ANS: A
6. A type of cellular adaptation in which there is a decrease in cell size is referred to as
a. hypertrophy.
b. metaplasia.
c. anaplasia.
d. atrophy.
ANS: D
7. A change in a tissue marked by cells that vary in size and shape and show increased
mitotic figures would be called
VanMeter and Hubert: Gould’s Pathophysiology for the Health Professions, 7th Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which of the following would be the most likely cause of an iatrogenic disease?
a. An inherited disorder
b. A combination of specific etiological factors
c. An unwanted effect of a prescribed drug
d. Prolonged exposure to toxic chemicals in the environment
ANS: C
2. The manifestations of a disease are best defined as the
a. subjective feelings of discomfort during a chronic illness.
b. signs and symptoms of a disease.
c. factors that precipitate an acute episode of a chronic illness.
d. early indicators of the prodromal stage of infection.
ANS: B
3. The best definition of the term prognosis is the
a. precipitating factors causing an acute episode.
b. number of remissions to be expected during the course of a chronic illness.
c. predicted outcome or likelihood of recovery from a specific disease.
d. exacerbations occurring during chronic illness.
ANS: C
4. Which of the following is considered a systemic sign of disease?
a. Swelling of the knee
b. Fever
c. Pain in the neck
d. Red rash on the face
ANS: B
5. Etiology is defined as the study of the
a. causes of a disease.
b. course of a disease.
c. expected complications of a disease.
d. manifestations of a disease.
ANS: A
6. A type of cellular adaptation in which there is a decrease in cell size is referred to as
a. hypertrophy.
b. metaplasia.
c. anaplasia.
d. atrophy.
ANS: D
7. A change in a tissue marked by cells that vary in size and shape and show increased
mitotic figures would be called
Chapter 01: Introduction to Pathophysiology
VanMeter and Hubert: Gould’s Pathophysiology for the Health Professions, 7th Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which of the following would be the most likely cause of an iatrogenic disease?
a. An inherited disorder
b. A combination of specific etiological factors
c. An unwanted effect of a prescribed drug
d. Prolonged exposure to toxic chemicals in the environment
ANS: C
2. The manifestations of a disease are best defined as the
a. subjective feelings of discomfort during a chronic illness.
b. signs and symptoms of a disease.
c. factors that precipitate an acute episode of a chronic illness.
d. early indicators of the prodromal stage of infection.
ANS: B
3. The best definition of the term prognosis is the
a. precipitating factors causing an acute episode.
b. number of remissions to be expected during the course of a chronic illness.
c. predicted outcome or likelihood of recovery from a specific disease.
d. exacerbations occurring during chronic illness.
ANS: C
4. Which of the following is considered a systemic sign of disease?
a. Swelling of the knee
b. Fever
c. Pain in the neck
d. Red rash on the face
ANS: B
5. Etiology is defined as the study of the
a. causes of a disease.
b. course of a disease.
c. expected complications of a disease.
d. manifestations of a disease.
ANS: A
6. A type of cellular adaptation in which there is a decrease in cell size is referred to as
a. hypertrophy.
b. metaplasia.
c. anaplasia.
d. atrophy.
ANS: D
7. A change in a tissue marked by cells that vary in size and shape and show increased
mitotic figures would be called
VanMeter and Hubert: Gould’s Pathophysiology for the Health Professions, 7th Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which of the following would be the most likely cause of an iatrogenic disease?
a. An inherited disorder
b. A combination of specific etiological factors
c. An unwanted effect of a prescribed drug
d. Prolonged exposure to toxic chemicals in the environment
ANS: C
2. The manifestations of a disease are best defined as the
a. subjective feelings of discomfort during a chronic illness.
b. signs and symptoms of a disease.
c. factors that precipitate an acute episode of a chronic illness.
d. early indicators of the prodromal stage of infection.
ANS: B
3. The best definition of the term prognosis is the
a. precipitating factors causing an acute episode.
b. number of remissions to be expected during the course of a chronic illness.
c. predicted outcome or likelihood of recovery from a specific disease.
d. exacerbations occurring during chronic illness.
ANS: C
4. Which of the following is considered a systemic sign of disease?
a. Swelling of the knee
b. Fever
c. Pain in the neck
d. Red rash on the face
ANS: B
5. Etiology is defined as the study of the
a. causes of a disease.
b. course of a disease.
c. expected complications of a disease.
d. manifestations of a disease.
ANS: A
6. A type of cellular adaptation in which there is a decrease in cell size is referred to as
a. hypertrophy.
b. metaplasia.
c. anaplasia.
d. atrophy.
ANS: D
7. A change in a tissue marked by cells that vary in size and shape and show increased
mitotic figures would be called
a. metaplasia.
b. atrophy.
c. dysplasia.
d. hypertrophy.
ANS: C
8. A deficit of oxygen in the cells usually due to respiratory or circulatory problems is called
a. apoptosis.
b. ischemia.
c. hypertrophy.
d. necrosis.
ANS: B
9. When a group of cells in the body dies, the change is called
a. ischemia.
b. gangrene.
c. hypoxia.
d. necrosis.
ANS: D
10. Rigorous weightlifting/body building regimens may result in the skeletal muscle
cells undergoing
a. hypertrophy.
b. dysplasia.
c. atrophy.
d. regeneration.
ANS: A
11. The term cancer refers to
a. dysplasia.
b. hyperplasia.
c. metaplasia.
d. malignant neoplasm.
ANS: D
12. To which of the following does the term apoptosis refer?
a. Increased rate of mitosis by certain cells
b. Ischemic damage to cells
c. Liquefaction of necrotic tissue
d. Preprogrammed cell self-destruction
ANS: D
13. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
a. Alteration of DNA does not change cell function.
b. Damaged cells may be able to repair themselves.
c. All types of cells die at the same rate.
d. Mild ischemia causes immediate cell death.
ANS: B
14. Caseation necrosis refers to an area where
a. cell proteins have been denatured.
b. atrophy.
c. dysplasia.
d. hypertrophy.
ANS: C
8. A deficit of oxygen in the cells usually due to respiratory or circulatory problems is called
a. apoptosis.
b. ischemia.
c. hypertrophy.
d. necrosis.
ANS: B
9. When a group of cells in the body dies, the change is called
a. ischemia.
b. gangrene.
c. hypoxia.
d. necrosis.
ANS: D
10. Rigorous weightlifting/body building regimens may result in the skeletal muscle
cells undergoing
a. hypertrophy.
b. dysplasia.
c. atrophy.
d. regeneration.
ANS: A
11. The term cancer refers to
a. dysplasia.
b. hyperplasia.
c. metaplasia.
d. malignant neoplasm.
ANS: D
12. To which of the following does the term apoptosis refer?
a. Increased rate of mitosis by certain cells
b. Ischemic damage to cells
c. Liquefaction of necrotic tissue
d. Preprogrammed cell self-destruction
ANS: D
13. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
a. Alteration of DNA does not change cell function.
b. Damaged cells may be able to repair themselves.
c. All types of cells die at the same rate.
d. Mild ischemia causes immediate cell death.
ANS: B
14. Caseation necrosis refers to an area where
a. cell proteins have been denatured.
b. cells are liquefied by enzymes.
c. dead cells form a thick cheesy substance.
d. bacterial invasion has occurred.
ANS: C
15. Routine application of sun block to skin would be an example of
a. an iatrogenic cause of cancer.
b. a preventive measure.
c. a precipitating factor.
d. a predisposing condition.
ANS: B
16. A circumstance that causes a sudden acute episode of a chronic disease to occur is termed
a. latent stage.
b. predisposing factor.
c. incidence.
d. precipitating factor.
ANS: D
17. The term homeostasis refers to
a. the causative factors in a particular disease.
b. maintenance of a stable internal environment.
c. a condition that triggers an acute episode.
d. a collection of signs and symptoms.
ANS: B
18. Which term is used to describe a new and secondary or additional problem that arises after
the original disease has been established?
a. Symptoms
b. Occurrence
c. Manifestations
d. Complication
ANS: D
19. Pathophysiology involves the study of
a. the structure of the human body.
b. the functions of various organs in the body.
c. functional or structural changes resulting from disease processes.
d. various cell structures and related functions.
ANS: C
20. Which of the following is the best definition of epidemiology?
a. The science of tracking the occurrence and distribution of diseases
b. The relative number of deaths resulting from a particular disease
c. Identification of a specific disease through evaluation of signs and symptoms
d. The global search for emerging diseases
ANS: A
c. dead cells form a thick cheesy substance.
d. bacterial invasion has occurred.
ANS: C
15. Routine application of sun block to skin would be an example of
a. an iatrogenic cause of cancer.
b. a preventive measure.
c. a precipitating factor.
d. a predisposing condition.
ANS: B
16. A circumstance that causes a sudden acute episode of a chronic disease to occur is termed
a. latent stage.
b. predisposing factor.
c. incidence.
d. precipitating factor.
ANS: D
17. The term homeostasis refers to
a. the causative factors in a particular disease.
b. maintenance of a stable internal environment.
c. a condition that triggers an acute episode.
d. a collection of signs and symptoms.
ANS: B
18. Which term is used to describe a new and secondary or additional problem that arises after
the original disease has been established?
a. Symptoms
b. Occurrence
c. Manifestations
d. Complication
ANS: D
19. Pathophysiology involves the study of
a. the structure of the human body.
b. the functions of various organs in the body.
c. functional or structural changes resulting from disease processes.
d. various cell structures and related functions.
ANS: C
20. Which of the following is the best definition of epidemiology?
a. The science of tracking the occurrence and distribution of diseases
b. The relative number of deaths resulting from a particular disease
c. Identification of a specific disease through evaluation of signs and symptoms
d. The global search for emerging diseases
ANS: A
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21. Which of the following can cause cell injury or death?
1. Hypoxia
2. Exposure to excessive cold
3. Excessive pressure on a tissue
4. Chemical toxins
a. 1, 2
b. 2, 4
c. 1, 3, 4
d. 1, 2, 3, 4
ANS: D
22. All of the following are part of the Seven Steps to Health EXCEPT:
a. Follow cancer screening guidelines.
b. Use sun block agents whenever exposed.
c. Participate in strenuous exercise on a regular daily basis.
d. Choose high fiber, lower fat foods.
ANS: C
23. The term disease refers to
a. the period of recovery and return to a normal healthy state.
b. a deviation from the normal state of health and function.
c. the treatment measures used to promote recovery.
d. a basic collection of signs and symptoms.
ANS: B
24. A collection of signs and symptoms, often affecting more than one organ or system,
that usually occur together in response to a certain condition is referred to as a(an)
a. acute disease.
b. multiorgan disorder.
c. syndrome.
d. manifestation.
ANS: C
25. All of the following statements are correct about cell damage EXCEPT:
a. The initial stage of cell damage often causes an alteration in metabolic reactions.
b. If the factor causing the damage is removed quickly, the cell may be able
to recover and return to its normal state.
c. If the noxious factor remains for an extended period of time, the damage
becomes irreversible and the cell dies.
d. Initially, cell damage does not change cell metabolism, structure, or function.
ANS: D
26. Which of the following conditions distinguishes double blind studies used in health research?
a. Neither the members of the control group or the experimental group nor the
person administering the treatment knows who is receiving the experimental
therapy.
b. Both groups of research subjects and the person administering the treatment know
who is receiving the experimental therapy.
c. The research subjects do not know, but the person administering the
treatment knows who is receiving placebo or standard therapy.
d. Only members of the control group know they are receiving standard therapy.
1. Hypoxia
2. Exposure to excessive cold
3. Excessive pressure on a tissue
4. Chemical toxins
a. 1, 2
b. 2, 4
c. 1, 3, 4
d. 1, 2, 3, 4
ANS: D
22. All of the following are part of the Seven Steps to Health EXCEPT:
a. Follow cancer screening guidelines.
b. Use sun block agents whenever exposed.
c. Participate in strenuous exercise on a regular daily basis.
d. Choose high fiber, lower fat foods.
ANS: C
23. The term disease refers to
a. the period of recovery and return to a normal healthy state.
b. a deviation from the normal state of health and function.
c. the treatment measures used to promote recovery.
d. a basic collection of signs and symptoms.
ANS: B
24. A collection of signs and symptoms, often affecting more than one organ or system,
that usually occur together in response to a certain condition is referred to as a(an)
a. acute disease.
b. multiorgan disorder.
c. syndrome.
d. manifestation.
ANS: C
25. All of the following statements are correct about cell damage EXCEPT:
a. The initial stage of cell damage often causes an alteration in metabolic reactions.
b. If the factor causing the damage is removed quickly, the cell may be able
to recover and return to its normal state.
c. If the noxious factor remains for an extended period of time, the damage
becomes irreversible and the cell dies.
d. Initially, cell damage does not change cell metabolism, structure, or function.
ANS: D
26. Which of the following conditions distinguishes double blind studies used in health research?
a. Neither the members of the control group or the experimental group nor the
person administering the treatment knows who is receiving the experimental
therapy.
b. Both groups of research subjects and the person administering the treatment know
who is receiving the experimental therapy.
c. The research subjects do not know, but the person administering the
treatment knows who is receiving placebo or standard therapy.
d. Only members of the control group know they are receiving standard therapy.
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ANS: A
27. If the data collected from the research process confirm that the new treatment has
increased effectiveness and is safe, this is called
a. the placebo effect.
b. evidence-based research.
c. blind research studies.
d. approval for immediate distribution.
ANS: B
28. A short-term illness that develops very quickly with perhaps a high fever or severe pain
is called
a. acute.
b. latent.
c. chronic.
d. manifestation.
ANS: A
29. The term prognosis refers to the
a. period of recovery and return to a normal state.
b. expected outcome of the disease.
c. mortality and morbidity rates for a given population.
d. typical collection of signs and symptoms.
ANS: B
30. When prolonged ischemia occurs to an area of the heart, the resulting damage is referred to as
a. atrophy.
b. liquefactive necrosis.
c. apoptosis.
d. infarction.
ANS: D
31. During the evaluation process for a new therapy’s effectiveness and safety, a double
blind study may be conducted during
a. the first stage.
b. the second stage.
c. the third stage.
d. any of these stages.
ANS: C
32. Why are the predisposing factors for a specific disease important to health professionals?
a. To predict the prognosis
b. To determine treatments
c. To develop preventive measures
d. To develop morbidity statistics
ANS: C
33. Cell damage may be caused by exogenous sources such as
a. abnormal metabolic processes.
b. certain food additives.
27. If the data collected from the research process confirm that the new treatment has
increased effectiveness and is safe, this is called
a. the placebo effect.
b. evidence-based research.
c. blind research studies.
d. approval for immediate distribution.
ANS: B
28. A short-term illness that develops very quickly with perhaps a high fever or severe pain
is called
a. acute.
b. latent.
c. chronic.
d. manifestation.
ANS: A
29. The term prognosis refers to the
a. period of recovery and return to a normal state.
b. expected outcome of the disease.
c. mortality and morbidity rates for a given population.
d. typical collection of signs and symptoms.
ANS: B
30. When prolonged ischemia occurs to an area of the heart, the resulting damage is referred to as
a. atrophy.
b. liquefactive necrosis.
c. apoptosis.
d. infarction.
ANS: D
31. During the evaluation process for a new therapy’s effectiveness and safety, a double
blind study may be conducted during
a. the first stage.
b. the second stage.
c. the third stage.
d. any of these stages.
ANS: C
32. Why are the predisposing factors for a specific disease important to health professionals?
a. To predict the prognosis
b. To determine treatments
c. To develop preventive measures
d. To develop morbidity statistics
ANS: C
33. Cell damage may be caused by exogenous sources such as
a. abnormal metabolic processes.
b. certain food additives.
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c. genetic defects.
d. localized hypoxia.
ANS: B
34. Which of the following is usually included in a medical history?
1. Past illnesses or surgeries
2. Current illnesses, acute and chronic
3. Prescribed medication or other treatments
4. Nonprescription drugs and herbal remedies
5. Current allergies
a. 1, 3
b. 2, 4, 5
c. 1, 3, 4
d. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
ANS: D
35. A situation when there is a higher than expected number of cases of an infectious
disease within a given area is called a/an
a. epidemic.
b. exacerbation.
c. morbidity.
d. pandemic.
ANS: A
36. The term pathogenesis refers to
a. the development of a disease or sequence of events related to tissue
changes involved in the disease process.
b. the determination of the cause(s) involved in the development of a
malignant neoplasm.
c. the specific signs and symptoms involved in the change from an acute disease to
a chronic disease.
d. localized hypoxia.
ANS: B
34. Which of the following is usually included in a medical history?
1. Past illnesses or surgeries
2. Current illnesses, acute and chronic
3. Prescribed medication or other treatments
4. Nonprescription drugs and herbal remedies
5. Current allergies
a. 1, 3
b. 2, 4, 5
c. 1, 3, 4
d. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
ANS: D
35. A situation when there is a higher than expected number of cases of an infectious
disease within a given area is called a/an
a. epidemic.
b. exacerbation.
c. morbidity.
d. pandemic.
ANS: A
36. The term pathogenesis refers to
a. the development of a disease or sequence of events related to tissue
changes involved in the disease process.
b. the determination of the cause(s) involved in the development of a
malignant neoplasm.
c. the specific signs and symptoms involved in the change from an acute disease to
a chronic disease.
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d. the changes in cells of affected tissue that result in necrosis.
ANS: A
37. A therapy that has been approved for use and may show additional potential to treat
a different disease is termed “ ” use.
a. over-the-counter
b. off-label
c. additional
d. conditional
ANS: B
38. A potential unwanted outcome of a primary condition, such as paralysis following
the recovery from a stroke, is referred to as
a. complication.
b. convalescence.
c. sequelae.
d. postcondition.
ANS: C
39. An infectious disease that spreads over wide regions of the globe is called a(an)
a. pandemic.
b. endemic.
c. epidemic.
d. periodic.
ANS: A
40. The type of necrosis that occurs when cell proteins are altered or denatured is referred to as
a. liquefaction necrosis.
b. coagulative necrosis.
c. degenerative necrosis.
d. caseous necrosis.
ANS: B
ANS: A
37. A therapy that has been approved for use and may show additional potential to treat
a different disease is termed “ ” use.
a. over-the-counter
b. off-label
c. additional
d. conditional
ANS: B
38. A potential unwanted outcome of a primary condition, such as paralysis following
the recovery from a stroke, is referred to as
a. complication.
b. convalescence.
c. sequelae.
d. postcondition.
ANS: C
39. An infectious disease that spreads over wide regions of the globe is called a(an)
a. pandemic.
b. endemic.
c. epidemic.
d. periodic.
ANS: A
40. The type of necrosis that occurs when cell proteins are altered or denatured is referred to as
a. liquefaction necrosis.
b. coagulative necrosis.
c. degenerative necrosis.
d. caseous necrosis.
ANS: B
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Chapter 02: Fluid, Electrolyte, and Acid-Base Imbalances
VanMeter and Hubert: Gould’s Pathophysiology for the Health Professions, 7th
Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Choose the correct proportion of water to body weight to be expected in a healthy
male adult’s body:
a. 30%
b. 45%
c. 60%
d. 70%
ANS: C
2. Choose the correct proportion of blood (to body weight) in an adult male’s body:
a. 30%
b. 20%
c. 10%
d. 4%
ANS: D
3. Which of the following is NOT part of the extracellular fluid compartment (ECF)?
a. Blood
b. Cytoplasm
c. Cerebrospinal fluid
d. Transcellular fluid
ANS: B
4. Insensible fluid loss refers to water lost through
a. perspiration only.
b. feces only.
c. perspiration and expiration.
d. urine and feces.
ANS: C
5. The osmoreceptor cells controlling the thirst mechanism are located in the
a. medulla oblongata.
b. thalamus.
c. epithalamus.
d. hypothalamus.
ANS: D
6. When the osmotic pressure of the blood is elevated above normal, water would shift from the
a. blood into the cells.
b. interstitial compartment into the cells.
c. interstitial compartment into the blood.
VanMeter and Hubert: Gould’s Pathophysiology for the Health Professions, 7th
Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Choose the correct proportion of water to body weight to be expected in a healthy
male adult’s body:
a. 30%
b. 45%
c. 60%
d. 70%
ANS: C
2. Choose the correct proportion of blood (to body weight) in an adult male’s body:
a. 30%
b. 20%
c. 10%
d. 4%
ANS: D
3. Which of the following is NOT part of the extracellular fluid compartment (ECF)?
a. Blood
b. Cytoplasm
c. Cerebrospinal fluid
d. Transcellular fluid
ANS: B
4. Insensible fluid loss refers to water lost through
a. perspiration only.
b. feces only.
c. perspiration and expiration.
d. urine and feces.
ANS: C
5. The osmoreceptor cells controlling the thirst mechanism are located in the
a. medulla oblongata.
b. thalamus.
c. epithalamus.
d. hypothalamus.
ANS: D
6. When the osmotic pressure of the blood is elevated above normal, water would shift from the
a. blood into the cells.
b. interstitial compartment into the cells.
c. interstitial compartment into the blood.
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d. cells into the interstitial compartment.
ANS: C
7. Which of the following would result from a deficit of plasma proteins?
a. Increased osmotic pressure
b. Decreased osmotic pressure
c. Increased hydrostatic pressure
d. Decreased hydrostatic pressure
ANS: B
8. Which of the following would cause edema?
a. Decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure
b. Increased capillary osmotic pressure
c. Decreased capillary permeability
d. Increased capillary permeability
ANS: D
9. Which of the following would likely be related to an elevated hematocrit reading?
a. Fluid excess
b. Fluid deficit
c. Increased sodium level
d. Decreased erythrocytes
ANS: B
10. Which of the following is a typical sign of dehydration?
a. Rapid, strong pulse
b. Low hematocrit
c. Increased urine output
d. Rough oral mucosa
ANS: D
11. Which of the following terms refers to a combination of decreased circulating blood
volume combined with excess fluid in a body cavity?
a. Dehydration
b. Third-spacing
c. Hypovolemia
d. Water retention
ANS: B
12. Which of the following is the primary cation in the extracellular fluid?
a. Sodium
b. Potassium
c. Calcium
d. Iron
ANS: A
ANS: C
7. Which of the following would result from a deficit of plasma proteins?
a. Increased osmotic pressure
b. Decreased osmotic pressure
c. Increased hydrostatic pressure
d. Decreased hydrostatic pressure
ANS: B
8. Which of the following would cause edema?
a. Decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure
b. Increased capillary osmotic pressure
c. Decreased capillary permeability
d. Increased capillary permeability
ANS: D
9. Which of the following would likely be related to an elevated hematocrit reading?
a. Fluid excess
b. Fluid deficit
c. Increased sodium level
d. Decreased erythrocytes
ANS: B
10. Which of the following is a typical sign of dehydration?
a. Rapid, strong pulse
b. Low hematocrit
c. Increased urine output
d. Rough oral mucosa
ANS: D
11. Which of the following terms refers to a combination of decreased circulating blood
volume combined with excess fluid in a body cavity?
a. Dehydration
b. Third-spacing
c. Hypovolemia
d. Water retention
ANS: B
12. Which of the following is the primary cation in the extracellular fluid?
a. Sodium
b. Potassium
c. Calcium
d. Iron
ANS: A
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13. Which of the following is a common cause of hyponatremia?
a. Loss of the thirst mechanism
b. Excessive sweating
c. Excessive aldosterone secretion
d. Prolonged period of rapid, deep respirations
ANS: B
14. Which of the following is a common effect of both hypokalemia and hyperkalemia?
a. Skeletal muscle twitch and cramps
b. Oliguria
c. Elevated serum pH
d. Cardiac arrhythmias
ANS: D
15. Choose the correct effect of increased parathyroid hormone.
a. Increased movement of calcium ions into the bones
b. Increased activation of vitamin D
c. Increased absorption of calcium from the digestive tract
d. Decreased reabsorption of calcium in the kidneys
ANS: C
16. Which of the following results from hypocalcemia?
1. Low serum phosphate levels
2. Nausea and constipation
3. Skeletal muscle twitch and spasms
4. Weak cardiac contractions
a. 1, 2
b. 1, 4
c. 2, 3
d. 3, 4
ANS: D
17. Which of the following causes tetany?
a. Increased permeability of nerve membranes due to low serum calcium
b. Excess calcium ions in skeletal muscle due to excess parathyroid hormone (PTH)
c. Excess calcium ions inside somatic nerves as a result of neoplasms
d. Increased stimulation of the nerves in the cerebral cortex
ANS: A
18. Parestesia is an effect of
a. hyperkalemia.
b. hypokalemia.
c. hyponatremia.
d. hypernatremia.
ANS: B
19. In which of the following processes is the phosphate ion NOT a major component?
a. Loss of the thirst mechanism
b. Excessive sweating
c. Excessive aldosterone secretion
d. Prolonged period of rapid, deep respirations
ANS: B
14. Which of the following is a common effect of both hypokalemia and hyperkalemia?
a. Skeletal muscle twitch and cramps
b. Oliguria
c. Elevated serum pH
d. Cardiac arrhythmias
ANS: D
15. Choose the correct effect of increased parathyroid hormone.
a. Increased movement of calcium ions into the bones
b. Increased activation of vitamin D
c. Increased absorption of calcium from the digestive tract
d. Decreased reabsorption of calcium in the kidneys
ANS: C
16. Which of the following results from hypocalcemia?
1. Low serum phosphate levels
2. Nausea and constipation
3. Skeletal muscle twitch and spasms
4. Weak cardiac contractions
a. 1, 2
b. 1, 4
c. 2, 3
d. 3, 4
ANS: D
17. Which of the following causes tetany?
a. Increased permeability of nerve membranes due to low serum calcium
b. Excess calcium ions in skeletal muscle due to excess parathyroid hormone (PTH)
c. Excess calcium ions inside somatic nerves as a result of neoplasms
d. Increased stimulation of the nerves in the cerebral cortex
ANS: A
18. Parestesia is an effect of
a. hyperkalemia.
b. hypokalemia.
c. hyponatremia.
d. hypernatremia.
ANS: B
19. In which of the following processes is the phosphate ion NOT a major component?
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a. Bone metabolism
b. Metabolic processes involving adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
c. Blood clotting
d. Acid-base balance
ANS: C
20. Which of the following would be considered normal serum pH?
a. 4.5-8
b. 7.0
c. 7.4
d. 8
ANS: C
21. When many excess hydrogen ions accumulate in the blood, what happens to serum pH?
The pH
a. decreases.
b. increases.
c. remains constant.
d. varies based on metabolism.
ANS: A
22. What is the slowest but most effective control for acid-base balance?
a. Respiratory system
b. Buffer systems in the blood
c. Kidneys
d. Brain
ANS: C
23. Which of the following is essential in order to maintain serum pH within normal range?
a. Carbonic acid and bicarbonate ion must be present in equal quantities.
b. All excess carbonic acid must be excreted by the kidneys.
c. The concentration of bicarbonate ion must remain constant.
d. The ratio of carbonic acid to bicarbonate ion must be 1:20.
ANS: D
24. Which is the correct effect on the body of abnormally slow respirations?
a. Increased carbonic acid
b. Decreased carbonic acid
c. Increased bicarbonate ion
d. Decreased bicarbonate ion
ANS: A
25. Which condition is likely to cause metabolic acidosis?
a. Slow, shallow respirations
b. Prolonged diarrhea
c. Mild vomiting
d. Excessive fluid in the body
b. Metabolic processes involving adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
c. Blood clotting
d. Acid-base balance
ANS: C
20. Which of the following would be considered normal serum pH?
a. 4.5-8
b. 7.0
c. 7.4
d. 8
ANS: C
21. When many excess hydrogen ions accumulate in the blood, what happens to serum pH?
The pH
a. decreases.
b. increases.
c. remains constant.
d. varies based on metabolism.
ANS: A
22. What is the slowest but most effective control for acid-base balance?
a. Respiratory system
b. Buffer systems in the blood
c. Kidneys
d. Brain
ANS: C
23. Which of the following is essential in order to maintain serum pH within normal range?
a. Carbonic acid and bicarbonate ion must be present in equal quantities.
b. All excess carbonic acid must be excreted by the kidneys.
c. The concentration of bicarbonate ion must remain constant.
d. The ratio of carbonic acid to bicarbonate ion must be 1:20.
ANS: D
24. Which is the correct effect on the body of abnormally slow respirations?
a. Increased carbonic acid
b. Decreased carbonic acid
c. Increased bicarbonate ion
d. Decreased bicarbonate ion
ANS: A
25. Which condition is likely to cause metabolic acidosis?
a. Slow, shallow respirations
b. Prolonged diarrhea
c. Mild vomiting
d. Excessive fluid in the body
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ANS: B
26. What would a serum pH of 7.33 in a patient with kidney disease indicate?
a. Metabolic alkalosis
b. Metabolic acidosis
c. Respiratory alkalosis
d. Respiratory acidosis
ANS: B
27. Which serum value indicates decompensated metabolic acidosis?
a. pH is below normal range.
b. pH is above normal range.
c. Bicarbonate level decreases.
d. Bicarbonate level increases.
ANS: A
28. What is the effect on blood serum when excessive lactic acid accumulates in the body?
a. Bicarbonate ion levels decrease.
b. Bicarbonate ion levels increase.
c. Carbonic acid levels increase.
d. pH increases.
ANS: A
29. The direct effects of acidosis are manifested primarily in the functioning of the
a. digestive system.
b. urinary system.
c. nervous system.
d. respiratory system.
ANS: C
30. Compensation mechanisms in the body for dehydration would include
a. increased antidiuretic hormone (ADH).
b. decreased aldosterone.
c. slow, strong heart contraction.
d. peripheral vasodilation.
ANS: A
31. Which acid-base imbalance results from impaired expiration due to emphysema?
a. Metabolic acidosis
b. Metabolic alkalosis
c. Respiratory acidosis
d. Respiratory alkalosis
ANS: C
32. In patients with impaired expiration associated with emphysema, effective compensation
for the acid-base imbalance would be
26. What would a serum pH of 7.33 in a patient with kidney disease indicate?
a. Metabolic alkalosis
b. Metabolic acidosis
c. Respiratory alkalosis
d. Respiratory acidosis
ANS: B
27. Which serum value indicates decompensated metabolic acidosis?
a. pH is below normal range.
b. pH is above normal range.
c. Bicarbonate level decreases.
d. Bicarbonate level increases.
ANS: A
28. What is the effect on blood serum when excessive lactic acid accumulates in the body?
a. Bicarbonate ion levels decrease.
b. Bicarbonate ion levels increase.
c. Carbonic acid levels increase.
d. pH increases.
ANS: A
29. The direct effects of acidosis are manifested primarily in the functioning of the
a. digestive system.
b. urinary system.
c. nervous system.
d. respiratory system.
ANS: C
30. Compensation mechanisms in the body for dehydration would include
a. increased antidiuretic hormone (ADH).
b. decreased aldosterone.
c. slow, strong heart contraction.
d. peripheral vasodilation.
ANS: A
31. Which acid-base imbalance results from impaired expiration due to emphysema?
a. Metabolic acidosis
b. Metabolic alkalosis
c. Respiratory acidosis
d. Respiratory alkalosis
ANS: C
32. In patients with impaired expiration associated with emphysema, effective compensation
for the acid-base imbalance would be
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a. increased rate and depth of respiration.
b. decreased rate and depth of respiration.
c. increased urine pH and decreased serum bicarbonate.
d. decreased urine pH and increased serum bicarbonate.
ANS: D
33. An anxiety attack often causes hyperventilation leading to
a. increased PCO2.
b. decreased PCO2.
c. respiratory acidosis.
d. metabolic acidosis.
ANS: B
34. One of the factors involved in the increased need for water in infants is
a. proportionally smaller body surface area.
b. higher metabolic rate.
c. smaller respiratory capacity.
d. greater surface area of exposed mucous membranes.
ANS: B
35. Compensation for respiratory system depression due to anesthesia and sedation would be
a. decreased reabsorption of bicarbonate ions in the kidneys.
b. increased secretion of hydrogen ions into the filtrate.
c. increased respiratory rate and depth.
d. increased renin secretion.
ANS: B
36. A prolonged state of metabolic acidosis often leads to
a. hypokalemia.
b. hyperkalemia.
c. hyponatremia.
d. hypercalcemia.
ANS: B
37. Strenuous physical exercise on a hot day is likely to result in
a. hypokalemia.
b. hypernatremia.
c. hyperchloremia.
d. hypovolemia.
ANS: D
38. Place the following events in the correct sequence of events when ketoacids increase in
the blood of a diabetic patient. Not all options are used in the answers.
1. Serum pH decreases
2. Serum bicarbonate decreases
3. PCO2 decreases
4. Respiration decreases
b. decreased rate and depth of respiration.
c. increased urine pH and decreased serum bicarbonate.
d. decreased urine pH and increased serum bicarbonate.
ANS: D
33. An anxiety attack often causes hyperventilation leading to
a. increased PCO2.
b. decreased PCO2.
c. respiratory acidosis.
d. metabolic acidosis.
ANS: B
34. One of the factors involved in the increased need for water in infants is
a. proportionally smaller body surface area.
b. higher metabolic rate.
c. smaller respiratory capacity.
d. greater surface area of exposed mucous membranes.
ANS: B
35. Compensation for respiratory system depression due to anesthesia and sedation would be
a. decreased reabsorption of bicarbonate ions in the kidneys.
b. increased secretion of hydrogen ions into the filtrate.
c. increased respiratory rate and depth.
d. increased renin secretion.
ANS: B
36. A prolonged state of metabolic acidosis often leads to
a. hypokalemia.
b. hyperkalemia.
c. hyponatremia.
d. hypercalcemia.
ANS: B
37. Strenuous physical exercise on a hot day is likely to result in
a. hypokalemia.
b. hypernatremia.
c. hyperchloremia.
d. hypovolemia.
ANS: D
38. Place the following events in the correct sequence of events when ketoacids increase in
the blood of a diabetic patient. Not all options are used in the answers.
1. Serum pH decreases
2. Serum bicarbonate decreases
3. PCO2 decreases
4. Respiration decreases
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5. Respiration increases
6. Serum pH increases
7. Urine pH decreases
a. 1, 3, 7, 4, 2, 6
b. 5, 2, 7, 3, 4, 1
c. 2, 1, 5, 3, 7, 6
d. 3, 1, 2, 5, 7, 6
ANS: C
39. Which of the following is a manifestation of respiratory alkalosis?
a. Bradycardia and deep rapid breathing
b. Drowsiness and general lethargy
c. Increased nervous system irritability
d. Decreased urine pH
ANS: C
40. Prolonged diarrhea results in
a. loss of fluid and bicarbonate ions, leading to metabolic acidosis.
b. increased fluid and serum bicarbonate ions, leading to metabolic acidosis.
c. loss of chloride ions only, leading to metabolic alkalosis.
d. surplus bicarbonate ions, leading to respiratory alkalosis.
ANS: A
41. In the initial stage, vomiting results in
a. metabolic acidosis.
b. metabolic alkalosis.
c. respiratory alkalosis.
d. none of these.
ANS: B
42. Which two ions are most important for acid-base balance in the body?
a. K+, Na+
b. Cl– and HCO –
c. Ca++, Na+
d. Na+, Cl–
ANS: B
43. The bicarbonate-carbonic acid buffer system helps maintain serum pH. The balance of
the carbonic acid and bicarbonate ion levels are controlled by the
a. liver and pancreas.
b. lungs and kidneys.
c. lungs and plasma proteins.
d. kidneys and bone marrow.
ANS: B
44. Alkalosis increases irritability and spontaneous stimulation of nerves by
a. blocking normal nerve conduction.
3
6. Serum pH increases
7. Urine pH decreases
a. 1, 3, 7, 4, 2, 6
b. 5, 2, 7, 3, 4, 1
c. 2, 1, 5, 3, 7, 6
d. 3, 1, 2, 5, 7, 6
ANS: C
39. Which of the following is a manifestation of respiratory alkalosis?
a. Bradycardia and deep rapid breathing
b. Drowsiness and general lethargy
c. Increased nervous system irritability
d. Decreased urine pH
ANS: C
40. Prolonged diarrhea results in
a. loss of fluid and bicarbonate ions, leading to metabolic acidosis.
b. increased fluid and serum bicarbonate ions, leading to metabolic acidosis.
c. loss of chloride ions only, leading to metabolic alkalosis.
d. surplus bicarbonate ions, leading to respiratory alkalosis.
ANS: A
41. In the initial stage, vomiting results in
a. metabolic acidosis.
b. metabolic alkalosis.
c. respiratory alkalosis.
d. none of these.
ANS: B
42. Which two ions are most important for acid-base balance in the body?
a. K+, Na+
b. Cl– and HCO –
c. Ca++, Na+
d. Na+, Cl–
ANS: B
43. The bicarbonate-carbonic acid buffer system helps maintain serum pH. The balance of
the carbonic acid and bicarbonate ion levels are controlled by the
a. liver and pancreas.
b. lungs and kidneys.
c. lungs and plasma proteins.
d. kidneys and bone marrow.
ANS: B
44. Alkalosis increases irritability and spontaneous stimulation of nerves by
a. blocking normal nerve conduction.
3
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b. increasing the permeability of nerve membranes.
c. blocking movement of calcium ions.
d. decreasing phosphate ion levels.
ANS: B
45. Hypocalcemia causes weak cardiac contractions because
a. permeability of nerve membranes increases.
b. insufficient calcium ions are available for muscle contraction.
c. low phosphate ion levels prevent muscle contraction.
d. excessive amounts of calcium are stored in cardiac muscle.
ANS: B
46. Serum potassium levels are affected by
1. ADH.
2. aldosterone.
3. serum H+ levels.
4. insulin levels.
a. 2 only
b. 1, 2
c. 1, 3
d. 2, 3, 4
e. 1, 2, 3
ANS: D
47. Which of the following is the primary control of serum Na+ levels?
a. ADH
b. Aldosterone
c. Serum H+ levels
d. Serum K+ levels
ANS: B
48. The control center for thirst is located in the
a. kidneys.
b. thalamus.
c. medulla.
d. hypothalamus.
ANS: D
49. Which statements apply to atrial natriuretic peptide?
1. It is secreted by heart muscle cells.
2. It is a hormone secreted by the kidneys.
3. It helps to control water and sodium balance.
4. It is released in response to low blood pressure.
a. 1, 3
b. 1, 4
c. 2, 3
d. 2, 4
c. blocking movement of calcium ions.
d. decreasing phosphate ion levels.
ANS: B
45. Hypocalcemia causes weak cardiac contractions because
a. permeability of nerve membranes increases.
b. insufficient calcium ions are available for muscle contraction.
c. low phosphate ion levels prevent muscle contraction.
d. excessive amounts of calcium are stored in cardiac muscle.
ANS: B
46. Serum potassium levels are affected by
1. ADH.
2. aldosterone.
3. serum H+ levels.
4. insulin levels.
a. 2 only
b. 1, 2
c. 1, 3
d. 2, 3, 4
e. 1, 2, 3
ANS: D
47. Which of the following is the primary control of serum Na+ levels?
a. ADH
b. Aldosterone
c. Serum H+ levels
d. Serum K+ levels
ANS: B
48. The control center for thirst is located in the
a. kidneys.
b. thalamus.
c. medulla.
d. hypothalamus.
ANS: D
49. Which statements apply to atrial natriuretic peptide?
1. It is secreted by heart muscle cells.
2. It is a hormone secreted by the kidneys.
3. It helps to control water and sodium balance.
4. It is released in response to low blood pressure.
a. 1, 3
b. 1, 4
c. 2, 3
d. 2, 4
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ANS: A
50. What are the three mechanisms that control or compensate for serum pH?
a. Hypothalamus, metabolic changes by digestive system, lymphatic system filtration
b. Buffer pairs in blood, change in kidney excretion rate, change in respiration rate
c. Neural feedback, increase in heart rate, decrease in calcium intake
d. Modification of water intake, increased capillary permeability, decrease in
blood volume
ANS: B
51. Hypokalemia refers to a condition in which the serum has a very low level of which ion?
a. Sodium
b. Phosphate
c. Calcium
d. Potassium
ANS: D
52. In the blood and extracellular fluids, hypernatremia refers to
a. a deficient sodium level.
b. an excess phosphate level.
c. an excess sodium level.
d. an excessively low phosphate level.
ANS: C
53. Increased milk and/or antacid intake can contribute to development of “milk-
alkali syndrome,” which can cause which of the following?
a. Hyponatremia
b. Hyperkalemia
c. Hypercalcemia
d. Hypovolemia
ANS: C
54. Ingested vitamin D must be activated in the
a. liver.
b. kidney.
c. pancreas.
d. lung.
ANS: B
55. Neuromuscular hyperirritability may be a cause of
a. hypomagnesemia.
b. hypermagnesemia.
c. hypophosphatemia.
d. hyperphosphatemia.
ANS: A
50. What are the three mechanisms that control or compensate for serum pH?
a. Hypothalamus, metabolic changes by digestive system, lymphatic system filtration
b. Buffer pairs in blood, change in kidney excretion rate, change in respiration rate
c. Neural feedback, increase in heart rate, decrease in calcium intake
d. Modification of water intake, increased capillary permeability, decrease in
blood volume
ANS: B
51. Hypokalemia refers to a condition in which the serum has a very low level of which ion?
a. Sodium
b. Phosphate
c. Calcium
d. Potassium
ANS: D
52. In the blood and extracellular fluids, hypernatremia refers to
a. a deficient sodium level.
b. an excess phosphate level.
c. an excess sodium level.
d. an excessively low phosphate level.
ANS: C
53. Increased milk and/or antacid intake can contribute to development of “milk-
alkali syndrome,” which can cause which of the following?
a. Hyponatremia
b. Hyperkalemia
c. Hypercalcemia
d. Hypovolemia
ANS: C
54. Ingested vitamin D must be activated in the
a. liver.
b. kidney.
c. pancreas.
d. lung.
ANS: B
55. Neuromuscular hyperirritability may be a cause of
a. hypomagnesemia.
b. hypermagnesemia.
c. hypophosphatemia.
d. hyperphosphatemia.
ANS: A
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Chapter 03: Introduction to Basic Pharmacology and Other Common Therapies
VanMeter and Hubert: Gould’s Pathophysiology for the Health Professions, 7th
Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Documenting drug-induced responses of physiologic and biochemical systems is part of
a. pharmacokinetics.
b. pharmacodynamics.
c. pharmacotherapeutics.
d. toxicology.
ANS: B
2. The study of the body’s response to drugs, harmful effects, mechanisms of actions,
symptoms, treatment, and identification is the role of
a. pharmacokinetics.
b. pharmacodynamics.
c. pharmacotherapeutics.
d. toxicology.
ANS: C
3. Which of the following are considered to be the toxic effects of a drug?
a. Additional, mild, unwanted effects
b. Unusual, unexpected mild effects
c. Serious, possibly life-threatening effects
d. Reduction of the allergic response
ANS: C
4. Dry mouth and drowsiness after the administration of an antihistamine is considered to be a(n)
a. adverse effect.
b. toxic effect.
c. side effect.
d. hypersensitivity effect.
ANS: C
5. An unexpected or unusual response to a drug is called a(n)
a. iatrogenic reaction.
b. teratogenic effect.
c. toxic effect.
d. idiosyncratic reaction.
ANS: D
6. A drug dose refers to
a. the amount of a drug given at a single time.
b. the total amount of a drug given over a period of time.
c. the daily amount of a drug given.
VanMeter and Hubert: Gould’s Pathophysiology for the Health Professions, 7th
Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Documenting drug-induced responses of physiologic and biochemical systems is part of
a. pharmacokinetics.
b. pharmacodynamics.
c. pharmacotherapeutics.
d. toxicology.
ANS: B
2. The study of the body’s response to drugs, harmful effects, mechanisms of actions,
symptoms, treatment, and identification is the role of
a. pharmacokinetics.
b. pharmacodynamics.
c. pharmacotherapeutics.
d. toxicology.
ANS: C
3. Which of the following are considered to be the toxic effects of a drug?
a. Additional, mild, unwanted effects
b. Unusual, unexpected mild effects
c. Serious, possibly life-threatening effects
d. Reduction of the allergic response
ANS: C
4. Dry mouth and drowsiness after the administration of an antihistamine is considered to be a(n)
a. adverse effect.
b. toxic effect.
c. side effect.
d. hypersensitivity effect.
ANS: C
5. An unexpected or unusual response to a drug is called a(n)
a. iatrogenic reaction.
b. teratogenic effect.
c. toxic effect.
d. idiosyncratic reaction.
ANS: D
6. A drug dose refers to
a. the amount of a drug given at a single time.
b. the total amount of a drug given over a period of time.
c. the daily amount of a drug given.
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d. the weekly amount of a drug administered.
ANS: A
7. A study of the toxicity of a drug includes all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Physiochemical properties
b. Genetics
c. Routes of administration
d. Rates of absorption
ANS: B
8. What is the unique, simple, and official name assigned to a specific drug for worldwide use?
a. Trade name
b. Chemical name
c. Proprietary name
d. Generic name
ANS: D
9. Which is the route of administration by which the largest proportion of the drug dose is
likely lost before reaching the site of action?
a. Oral
b. Intramuscular
c. Sublingual
d. Intravenous
ANS: A
10. Ingesting a drug with a large meal may be likely to
a. immediately increase the blood level of the drug.
b. prevent gastric irritation.
c. ensure that the total dose is absorbed into the blood.
d. cause more rapid excretion of the drug.
ANS: B
11. What is the reaction called when two drugs interact to produce a result much greater than
the sum of individual effects?
a. Antagonism
b. Beneficial
c. Synergism
d. Potentiation
ANS: C
12. At which site are most drugs metabolized and prepared for excretion?
a. Liver
b. Kidneys
c. Circulating blood
d. Lymphoid tissue
ANS: A
ANS: A
7. A study of the toxicity of a drug includes all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Physiochemical properties
b. Genetics
c. Routes of administration
d. Rates of absorption
ANS: B
8. What is the unique, simple, and official name assigned to a specific drug for worldwide use?
a. Trade name
b. Chemical name
c. Proprietary name
d. Generic name
ANS: D
9. Which is the route of administration by which the largest proportion of the drug dose is
likely lost before reaching the site of action?
a. Oral
b. Intramuscular
c. Sublingual
d. Intravenous
ANS: A
10. Ingesting a drug with a large meal may be likely to
a. immediately increase the blood level of the drug.
b. prevent gastric irritation.
c. ensure that the total dose is absorbed into the blood.
d. cause more rapid excretion of the drug.
ANS: B
11. What is the reaction called when two drugs interact to produce a result much greater than
the sum of individual effects?
a. Antagonism
b. Beneficial
c. Synergism
d. Potentiation
ANS: C
12. At which site are most drugs metabolized and prepared for excretion?
a. Liver
b. Kidneys
c. Circulating blood
d. Lymphoid tissue
ANS: A
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13. In traditional Asian medicine, acupoints are usually located
a. over pain or other sensory receptors.
b. where blood vessels branch.
c. over joints.
d. on designated meridians.
ANS: D
14. Traditional drug or surgical therapy is incorporated with nontraditional methods by
a. chiropractors.
b. naturopaths.
c. homeopaths.
d. osteopaths.
ANS: D
15. Contraindications printed on the label of a drug identify
a. those circumstances under which the drug should probably not be used.
b. those typical side effects associated with this drug.
c. the dosage limits associated with the use of the drug.
d. the maximum shelf life of the medication.
ANS: A
16. After they are metabolized, most drugs are excreted through the
a. lungs.
b. pancreas.
c. kidneys.
d. large intestine.
ANS: C
17. A drug that binds with selected specific cell receptors may
1. stimulate activity in those cells.
2. inhibit activity in those cells.
3. change specificity and attach to other cells.
4. be disabled by macrophages.
a. 1, 2
b. 2, 3
c. 3, 4
d. 1, 3, 4
ANS: A
18.
a. over pain or other sensory receptors.
b. where blood vessels branch.
c. over joints.
d. on designated meridians.
ANS: D
14. Traditional drug or surgical therapy is incorporated with nontraditional methods by
a. chiropractors.
b. naturopaths.
c. homeopaths.
d. osteopaths.
ANS: D
15. Contraindications printed on the label of a drug identify
a. those circumstances under which the drug should probably not be used.
b. those typical side effects associated with this drug.
c. the dosage limits associated with the use of the drug.
d. the maximum shelf life of the medication.
ANS: A
16. After they are metabolized, most drugs are excreted through the
a. lungs.
b. pancreas.
c. kidneys.
d. large intestine.
ANS: C
17. A drug that binds with selected specific cell receptors may
1. stimulate activity in those cells.
2. inhibit activity in those cells.
3. change specificity and attach to other cells.
4. be disabled by macrophages.
a. 1, 2
b. 2, 3
c. 3, 4
d. 1, 3, 4
ANS: A
18.
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19. The form of therapy that involves assessment of physical function and works to restore any
problems and prevent any further dysfunction using methods such as appropriate exercises
and ultrasound is referred to as
a. registered massage therapy.
b. naturopathy.
c. physiotherapy.
d. reflexology.
ANS: C
20. A medical history should include all
1. legally prescribed drugs.
2. vitamin or mineral supplements.
3. any medication not requiring a prescription (over-the-counter items).
4. herbal treatments.
a. 1 only
b. 1, 3
c. 1, 2, 4
d. 1, 2, 3, 4
ANS: D
21. Antagonistic drugs may be used to
a. increase the effectiveness of selected drugs.
b. prolong the action of a drug.
c. act as an antidote when necessary.
d. speed up the excretion of a drug.
ANS: C
22. The full course of a prescribed antimicrobial drug should be completed so as to prevent
a. undesirable side effects.
b. development of resistant microbes.
c. an allergic response.
d. proper metabolism and excretion of drug.
ANS: B
23. Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS) is a technology often used in
a. chemotherapy.
b. physiotherapy.
c. occupational therapy.
d. massage therapy.
ANS: B
24. Which of the following therapies is considered an alternative therapy?
a. Acupuncture
b.
problems and prevent any further dysfunction using methods such as appropriate exercises
and ultrasound is referred to as
a. registered massage therapy.
b. naturopathy.
c. physiotherapy.
d. reflexology.
ANS: C
20. A medical history should include all
1. legally prescribed drugs.
2. vitamin or mineral supplements.
3. any medication not requiring a prescription (over-the-counter items).
4. herbal treatments.
a. 1 only
b. 1, 3
c. 1, 2, 4
d. 1, 2, 3, 4
ANS: D
21. Antagonistic drugs may be used to
a. increase the effectiveness of selected drugs.
b. prolong the action of a drug.
c. act as an antidote when necessary.
d. speed up the excretion of a drug.
ANS: C
22. The full course of a prescribed antimicrobial drug should be completed so as to prevent
a. undesirable side effects.
b. development of resistant microbes.
c. an allergic response.
d. proper metabolism and excretion of drug.
ANS: B
23. Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS) is a technology often used in
a. chemotherapy.
b. physiotherapy.
c. occupational therapy.
d. massage therapy.
ANS: B
24. Which of the following therapies is considered an alternative therapy?
a. Acupuncture
b.
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ANS: A
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Chapter 04: Pain
VanMeter and Hubert: Gould’s Pathophysiology for the Health Professions, 7th
Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The impulses related to acute pain are usually transmitted by
a. nociceptors.
b. myelinated A delta fibers.
c. unmyelinated C fibers.
d. any sensory fiber with a low pain threshold.
ANS: B
2. In which structure do pain impulses ascend the spinal cord?
a. Reticular formation
b. Corticospinal tract
c. Spinothalamic tract
d. Relevant dermatome
ANS: C
3. According to the gate-control theory, passage of pain impulses may be naturally blocked
a. at the synapse by entry of other sensory impulses.
b. by the stress response.
c. by administration of morphine directly into the spinal cord.
d. by referring the pain to other parts of the body.
ANS: A
4. What is the term used to describe the degree of pain that is endured before an individual
takes action?
a. Pain threshold
b. Referred pain
c. Phantom pain
d. Pain tolerance
ANS: D
5. What is the definition of endorphins?
a. Neurotransmitters at the nociceptors
b. Transmitters for sensory impulses
c. Opiate-like blocking agents in the central nervous system
d. Pain-causing chemical mediators
ANS: C
6. Pain perceived in the left arm during the course of a heart attack is an example of
a. referred pain.
b.
VanMeter and Hubert: Gould’s Pathophysiology for the Health Professions, 7th
Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. The impulses related to acute pain are usually transmitted by
a. nociceptors.
b. myelinated A delta fibers.
c. unmyelinated C fibers.
d. any sensory fiber with a low pain threshold.
ANS: B
2. In which structure do pain impulses ascend the spinal cord?
a. Reticular formation
b. Corticospinal tract
c. Spinothalamic tract
d. Relevant dermatome
ANS: C
3. According to the gate-control theory, passage of pain impulses may be naturally blocked
a. at the synapse by entry of other sensory impulses.
b. by the stress response.
c. by administration of morphine directly into the spinal cord.
d. by referring the pain to other parts of the body.
ANS: A
4. What is the term used to describe the degree of pain that is endured before an individual
takes action?
a. Pain threshold
b. Referred pain
c. Phantom pain
d. Pain tolerance
ANS: D
5. What is the definition of endorphins?
a. Neurotransmitters at the nociceptors
b. Transmitters for sensory impulses
c. Opiate-like blocking agents in the central nervous system
d. Pain-causing chemical mediators
ANS: C
6. Pain perceived in the left arm during the course of a heart attack is an example of
a. referred pain.
b.
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d. subjective pain response.
ANS: A
7. A headache that is related to changes in cerebral blood flow is classified as a/an
headache.
a. tension
b. sinus
c. migraine
d. intracranial
ANS: C
8. What is a common analgesic administered to control a moderate level of pain?
a. Meperidine
b. Acetaminophen
c. Codeine
d. Ibuprofen
ANS: C
9. Which of the following applies to spinal anesthesia?
a. It causes analgesia with loss of consciousness.
b. The drug is injected into cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) or the epidural space of
the spinal cord.
c. The drug stimulates release of endorphins in the spinal cord.
d. The transmission of pain impulses is blocked in a small area of the body.
ANS: B
10. Which of the following is a characteristic of acute pain but not of chronic pain?
a. Depression and debilitation
b. A perception of increased generalized pain and discomfort
c. Fatigue and lower pain tolerance
d. Severe but short term
ANS: D
11. What is the role of nociceptors? They are
a. pain receptors that are stimulated by thermal, chemical, or physical means.
b. spinal nerves that conduct impulses from specific areas of the skin.
c. responsible for the state of arousal with pain.
d. useful in localizing pain to a specific area of the body.
ANS: A
12. Intractable pain is best defined as
a. pain that is perceived as occurring in an amputated limb.
b.
ANS: A
7. A headache that is related to changes in cerebral blood flow is classified as a/an
headache.
a. tension
b. sinus
c. migraine
d. intracranial
ANS: C
8. What is a common analgesic administered to control a moderate level of pain?
a. Meperidine
b. Acetaminophen
c. Codeine
d. Ibuprofen
ANS: C
9. Which of the following applies to spinal anesthesia?
a. It causes analgesia with loss of consciousness.
b. The drug is injected into cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) or the epidural space of
the spinal cord.
c. The drug stimulates release of endorphins in the spinal cord.
d. The transmission of pain impulses is blocked in a small area of the body.
ANS: B
10. Which of the following is a characteristic of acute pain but not of chronic pain?
a. Depression and debilitation
b. A perception of increased generalized pain and discomfort
c. Fatigue and lower pain tolerance
d. Severe but short term
ANS: D
11. What is the role of nociceptors? They are
a. pain receptors that are stimulated by thermal, chemical, or physical means.
b. spinal nerves that conduct impulses from specific areas of the skin.
c. responsible for the state of arousal with pain.
d. useful in localizing pain to a specific area of the body.
ANS: A
12. Intractable pain is best defined as
a. pain that is perceived as occurring in an amputated limb.
b.
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13. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
a. The brain is more aware of pain impulses when the reticular activating system
is depressed.
b. Acute pain does not cause a reflex response at the spinal cord synapses.
c. Young infants typically respond to pain with tachycardia and increased
blood pressure.
d. Chronic pain is easier to tolerate without negative effects.
ANS: C
14. Ibuprofen is classified as an NSAID and is particularly useful in treating
a. severe pain.
b. pain caused by inflammation.
c. intracranial pain.
d. pain in young infants.
ANS: B
15. Which of the following analgesics acts to reduce pain at the peripheral site?
a. Acetaminophen
b. Morphine
c. Codeine
d. Intravenous general anesthesia
ANS: A
16. Cancer-related pain has been broken down into three basic categories: pain caused by the
advance of the disease and resultant damage to the body, pain that is the result of a
coexisting disease unrelated to the cancer, and
a. phantom pain as a result of amputation.
b. pain associated with the treatment of the disease.
c. pain caused by emotional stress and metabolic changes.
d. pain associated with damage to the peripheral nerves.
ANS: B
17. Pain that is caused by trauma or disease involving the peripheral nerves is referred to as
a. neuropathic pain.
b. central pain.
c. neurogenic pain.
d. referred pain.
ANS: A
18. Pain resulting from a profound, sudden loss of blood flow to an organ or tissues in a
specific area of the body is referred to as
a. chronic pain.
a. The brain is more aware of pain impulses when the reticular activating system
is depressed.
b. Acute pain does not cause a reflex response at the spinal cord synapses.
c. Young infants typically respond to pain with tachycardia and increased
blood pressure.
d. Chronic pain is easier to tolerate without negative effects.
ANS: C
14. Ibuprofen is classified as an NSAID and is particularly useful in treating
a. severe pain.
b. pain caused by inflammation.
c. intracranial pain.
d. pain in young infants.
ANS: B
15. Which of the following analgesics acts to reduce pain at the peripheral site?
a. Acetaminophen
b. Morphine
c. Codeine
d. Intravenous general anesthesia
ANS: A
16. Cancer-related pain has been broken down into three basic categories: pain caused by the
advance of the disease and resultant damage to the body, pain that is the result of a
coexisting disease unrelated to the cancer, and
a. phantom pain as a result of amputation.
b. pain associated with the treatment of the disease.
c. pain caused by emotional stress and metabolic changes.
d. pain associated with damage to the peripheral nerves.
ANS: B
17. Pain that is caused by trauma or disease involving the peripheral nerves is referred to as
a. neuropathic pain.
b. central pain.
c. neurogenic pain.
d. referred pain.
ANS: A
18. Pain resulting from a profound, sudden loss of blood flow to an organ or tissues in a
specific area of the body is referred to as
a. chronic pain.
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19. Which of the following is a characteristic of chronic pain?
a. It usually initiates a physiological stress response.
b. It always involves a strong emotional response such as high anxiety.
c. It is more difficult to diagnose and treat than is acute pain.
d. It involves tissue damage to a specific organ.
ANS: C
20. A headache that results from pressure on the meninges surrounding the brain is referred to
as a/an
a. intracranial headache.
b. intrameningeal headache.
c. migraine headache.
d. cerebral headache.
ANS: A
21. Opioids released within the central nervous system are secreted by
a. astrocytes.
b. motoneurons.
c. oligodendrocytes.
d. interneurons.
ANS: D
22. The release of neuropeptides due to a reduction in serotonin is often the cause of
a. migraine.
b. tension headache.
c. phantom pain.
d. visceral pain.
ANS: A
23. Trigger point injections may be used to help relieve pain in
a. acute pain.
b. phantom pain.
c. fibromyalgia.
d. arthritis.
ANS: C
24. A non-medication therapy that can be used in pain management and can be self-
administered is
a. trigger point injection.
b.
a. It usually initiates a physiological stress response.
b. It always involves a strong emotional response such as high anxiety.
c. It is more difficult to diagnose and treat than is acute pain.
d. It involves tissue damage to a specific organ.
ANS: C
20. A headache that results from pressure on the meninges surrounding the brain is referred to
as a/an
a. intracranial headache.
b. intrameningeal headache.
c. migraine headache.
d. cerebral headache.
ANS: A
21. Opioids released within the central nervous system are secreted by
a. astrocytes.
b. motoneurons.
c. oligodendrocytes.
d. interneurons.
ANS: D
22. The release of neuropeptides due to a reduction in serotonin is often the cause of
a. migraine.
b. tension headache.
c. phantom pain.
d. visceral pain.
ANS: A
23. Trigger point injections may be used to help relieve pain in
a. acute pain.
b. phantom pain.
c. fibromyalgia.
d. arthritis.
ANS: C
24. A non-medication therapy that can be used in pain management and can be self-
administered is
a. trigger point injection.
b.
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a. TENS.
b. trigger point injections.
c. bioelectric therapy.
d. surgical implants.
ANS: C
b. trigger point injections.
c. bioelectric therapy.
d. surgical implants.
ANS: C
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Chapter 05: Inflammation and Healing
VanMeter and Hubert: Gould’s Pathophysiology for the Health Professions, 7th
Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Tears are considered to be part of the
a. first line of defense.
b. second line of defense.
c. third line of defense.
d. specific defense.
ANS: A
2. A specific defense for the body is
a. phagocytosis.
b. sensitized T lymphocytes.
c. the inflammatory response.
d. intact skin and mucous membranes.
ANS: B
3. The inflammatory response is a nonspecific response to
a. phagocytosis of foreign material.
b. local vasodilation.
c. any tissue injury.
d. formation of purulent exudates.
ANS: C
4. Chemical mediators released during the inflammatory response include
a. albumin and fibrinogen.
b. growth factors and cell enzymes.
c. macrophages and neutrophils.
d. histamine and prostaglandins.
ANS: D
5. The unnecessary spread or prolongation of inflammation is mediated by
a. prostaglandins.
b. histamines.
c. resolvins.
d. serotonin.
ANS: C
6. Granulation tissue is best described as
a. highly vascular, very fragile, and very susceptible to infection.
b.
VanMeter and Hubert: Gould’s Pathophysiology for the Health Professions, 7th
Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Tears are considered to be part of the
a. first line of defense.
b. second line of defense.
c. third line of defense.
d. specific defense.
ANS: A
2. A specific defense for the body is
a. phagocytosis.
b. sensitized T lymphocytes.
c. the inflammatory response.
d. intact skin and mucous membranes.
ANS: B
3. The inflammatory response is a nonspecific response to
a. phagocytosis of foreign material.
b. local vasodilation.
c. any tissue injury.
d. formation of purulent exudates.
ANS: C
4. Chemical mediators released during the inflammatory response include
a. albumin and fibrinogen.
b. growth factors and cell enzymes.
c. macrophages and neutrophils.
d. histamine and prostaglandins.
ANS: D
5. The unnecessary spread or prolongation of inflammation is mediated by
a. prostaglandins.
b. histamines.
c. resolvins.
d. serotonin.
ANS: C
6. Granulation tissue is best described as
a. highly vascular, very fragile, and very susceptible to infection.
b.
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ANS: A
7. Edema associated with inflammation results directly from
a. increased fluid and protein in the interstitial compartment.
b. increased phagocytes in the affected area.
c. decreased capillary permeability.
d. general vasoconstriction.
ANS: A
8. The warmth and redness related to the inflammatory response results from
a. increased interstitial fluid.
b. production of complement.
c. a large number of white blood cells (WBCs) entering the area.
d. increased blood flow into the area.
ANS: D
9. What is the correct order of the following events in the inflammatory response
immediately after tissue injury?
1. Increased permeability of blood vessels
2. Dilation of blood vessels
3. Transient vasoconstriction
4. Migration of leukocytes to the area
5. Hyperemia
a. 5, 3, 2, 1, 4
b. 1, 2, 4, 5, 3
c. 2, 3, 5, 4, 1
d. 3, 2, 5, 1, 4
ANS: D
10. The process of phagocytosis involves the
a. ingestion of foreign material and cell debris by leukocytes.
b. shift of fluid and protein out of capillaries.
c. formation of a fibrin mesh around the infected area.
d. movement of erythrocytes through the capillary wall.
ANS: A
11. Systemic effects of severe inflammation include
a. erythema and warmth.
b. loss of movement at the affected joint.
c. fatigue, anorexia, and mild fever.
d. abscess formation.
ANS: C
12. The term leukocytosis means
7. Edema associated with inflammation results directly from
a. increased fluid and protein in the interstitial compartment.
b. increased phagocytes in the affected area.
c. decreased capillary permeability.
d. general vasoconstriction.
ANS: A
8. The warmth and redness related to the inflammatory response results from
a. increased interstitial fluid.
b. production of complement.
c. a large number of white blood cells (WBCs) entering the area.
d. increased blood flow into the area.
ANS: D
9. What is the correct order of the following events in the inflammatory response
immediately after tissue injury?
1. Increased permeability of blood vessels
2. Dilation of blood vessels
3. Transient vasoconstriction
4. Migration of leukocytes to the area
5. Hyperemia
a. 5, 3, 2, 1, 4
b. 1, 2, 4, 5, 3
c. 2, 3, 5, 4, 1
d. 3, 2, 5, 1, 4
ANS: D
10. The process of phagocytosis involves the
a. ingestion of foreign material and cell debris by leukocytes.
b. shift of fluid and protein out of capillaries.
c. formation of a fibrin mesh around the infected area.
d. movement of erythrocytes through the capillary wall.
ANS: A
11. Systemic effects of severe inflammation include
a. erythema and warmth.
b. loss of movement at the affected joint.
c. fatigue, anorexia, and mild fever.
d. abscess formation.
ANS: C
12. The term leukocytosis means
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d. significant change in the proportions of WBCs.
ANS: A
13. Which of the following statements applies to fever?
a. Viral infection is usually present.
b. Heat-loss mechanisms have been stimulated.
c. It is caused by a signal to the thalamus.
d. It results from release of pyrogens into the circulation.
ANS: D
14. Mechanisms to bring an elevated body temperature down to the normal level include
a. general cutaneous vasodilation.
b. generalized shivering.
c. increased heart rate.
d. increased metabolic rate.
ANS: A
15. Replacement of damaged tissue by similar functional cells is termed
a. fibrosis.
b. regeneration.
c. resolution.
d. repair by scar tissue.
ANS: B
16. Scar tissue consists primarily of
a. granulation tissue.
b. epithelial cells.
c. collagen fibers.
d. new capillaries and smooth muscle fibers.
ANS: C
17. Which of the following promotes rapid healing?
a. Closely approximated edges of a wound
b. Presence of foreign material
c. Exposure to radiation
d. Vasoconstriction in the involved area
ANS: A
18. Glucocorticoids are used to treat inflammation because they directly
a. promote the release of prostaglandins at the site.
b.
ANS: A
13. Which of the following statements applies to fever?
a. Viral infection is usually present.
b. Heat-loss mechanisms have been stimulated.
c. It is caused by a signal to the thalamus.
d. It results from release of pyrogens into the circulation.
ANS: D
14. Mechanisms to bring an elevated body temperature down to the normal level include
a. general cutaneous vasodilation.
b. generalized shivering.
c. increased heart rate.
d. increased metabolic rate.
ANS: A
15. Replacement of damaged tissue by similar functional cells is termed
a. fibrosis.
b. regeneration.
c. resolution.
d. repair by scar tissue.
ANS: B
16. Scar tissue consists primarily of
a. granulation tissue.
b. epithelial cells.
c. collagen fibers.
d. new capillaries and smooth muscle fibers.
ANS: C
17. Which of the following promotes rapid healing?
a. Closely approximated edges of a wound
b. Presence of foreign material
c. Exposure to radiation
d. Vasoconstriction in the involved area
ANS: A
18. Glucocorticoids are used to treat inflammation because they directly
a. promote the release of prostaglandins at the site.
b.
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19. Patients taking glucocorticoids for long periods of time are likely to develop all of
the following EXCEPT
a. decreased bone density.
b. wasting of skeletal muscle.
c. opportunistic infections.
d. increased leukocyte production.
ANS: D
20. Which of the following drugs relieves fever and some types of pain but is NOT
an anti-inflammatory agent?
a. Acetaminophen
b. Prednisone
c. Aspirin
d. Ibuprofen
ANS: A
21. A burn area in which the epidermis and part of the dermis is destroyed is classified as
a. full-thickness.
b. deep partial-thickness.
c. superficial partial-thickness.
d. first-degree.
ANS: B
22. A woman has burns on the anterior surfaces of her right arm, chest, and right leg.
The percentage of body surface area burned is approximately
a. 13.5%.
b. 18%.
c. 22.5%.
d.
the following EXCEPT
a. decreased bone density.
b. wasting of skeletal muscle.
c. opportunistic infections.
d. increased leukocyte production.
ANS: D
20. Which of the following drugs relieves fever and some types of pain but is NOT
an anti-inflammatory agent?
a. Acetaminophen
b. Prednisone
c. Aspirin
d. Ibuprofen
ANS: A
21. A burn area in which the epidermis and part of the dermis is destroyed is classified as
a. full-thickness.
b. deep partial-thickness.
c. superficial partial-thickness.
d. first-degree.
ANS: B
22. A woman has burns on the anterior surfaces of her right arm, chest, and right leg.
The percentage of body surface area burned is approximately
a. 13.5%.
b. 18%.
c. 22.5%.
d.
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