Test Bank For Microbiology: A Systems Approach, 3rd Edition

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Chapter 001 The Main Themes of Microbiology
Multiple Choice Questions
1. When humans manipulate the genes of microorganisms the process is called
A. Bioremediation
B. Genetic engineering
C. Epidemiology
D. Immunology
E. Taxonomy
2. Which of the following is not considered a microorganism?
A. Mosquito
B. Protozoa
C. Bacteria
D. Viruses
E. Fungi
3. All microorganisms are best defined as organisms that
A. Cause human disease
B. Lack a cell nucleus
C. Are infectious particles
D. Are too small to be seen with the unaided eye
E. Can only be found growing in laboratories
4. Which activity is an example of biotechnology?
A. Bacteria in the soil secreting an antibiotic to kill competitors
B. A microbiologist using the microscope to study bacteria
C. Egyptians using moldy bread on wounds
D. Eschericia coli producing human insulin
E. Public health officials monitoring diseases in a community
5. Living things ordinarily too small to be seen with the unaided eye are termed
A. Bacteria
B. Viruses
C. Parasites
D. Microorganisms
E. None of the choices is correct
6. The study of the immune response to infection caused by microorganisms is
A. Hypersensitivity
B. Epidemiology
C. Immunology
D. Morbidity
E. Geomicrobiology
7. Which of the following does not indicate microbe involvement in energy and nutrient flow?
A. Formation of oxygen by an oxygenic photosynthesis
B. Formation of greenhouse gases
C. Formation of soil
D. Digestion of complex carbohydrates in animal diets
E. Decomposition of dead matter and wastes

8. The microorganisms that recycle nutrients by breaking down dead matter and wastes are called
A. Decomposers
B. Prokaryotes
C. Pathogens
D. Eukaryotes
E. Fermenters
9. The microorganisms that do not have a nucleus in their cells are called
A. Decomposers
B. Prokaryotes
C. Pathogens
D. Eukaryotes
E. Fermenters
10. The first prokaryotes appeared about ___ billion years ago.
A. 5
B. 4
C. 3
D. 2
E. 1
11. Which of the following is not a human use of microorganisms?
A. Baking bread
B. Treating water and sewage
C. Breaking down chocolate
D. Mass producing antibiotics
E. Cleaning up oil spills
12. Using microbes to detoxify a site contaminated with heavy metals is an example of
A. Biotechnology
B. Bioremediation
C. Decomposition
D. Immunology
E. Epidemiology
13. Disease-causing microorganisms are called
A. Decomposers
B. Prokaryotes
C. Pathogens
D. Eukaryotes
E. Fermenters
14. The number one worldwide infectious diseases are
A. AIDS related diseases
B. Diarrhea diseases
C. Malaria diseases
D. Measles
E. Respiratory diseases
15. Which of the following is a unique characteristic of viruses that distinguishes them from the other major
groups of microorganisms?
A. Cause human disease
B. Lack a nucleus
C. Cannot be seen without a microscope
D. Contain genetic material
E. Lack cell structure

16. Helminths are
A. Bacteria
B. Protozoa
C. Molds
D. Parasitic worms
E. Infectious particles
17. Organisms called parasites are
A. Always classified in the kingdom Monera
B. Always harmful to their host
C. The decomposers in ecosystems
D. Always a virus
E. Free-living
18. Which group of microorganisms is composed only of hereditary material wrapped in a protein covering?
A. Viruses
B. Bacteria
C. Parasites
D. Fungi
E. Yeasts
19. The Dutch merchant who made and used quality magnifying lenses to see and record microorganisms
was
A. Francesco Redi
B. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
C. Louis Pasteur
D. Joseph Lister
E. Robert Koch
20. Which of the following is not a process in the scientific method?
A. Belief in a preconceived idea
B. Formulate a hypothesis
C. Systematic observation
D. Laboratory experimentation
E. Development of a theory
21. Experimentation
A. Is designed to refute an hypothesis
B. Is designed to support an hypothesis
C. Provides a means to gather subjective data
D. Provides a means to gather objective data
E. Is the first step in the scientific method
22. A scientist that constructs a hypothesis and then tests its validity by outlining predicted events of the
hypothesis followed by experiments to test for those events is using the _____ approach.
A. Koch
B. Scientific method
C. Spontaneous generation
D. Taxonomic
E. None of the choices is correct
23. The scientific method includes all of the following except
A. Hypothesis
B. Experimentation
C. Observation
D. Control group
E. Theory

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24. Koch's postulates are criteria used to establish that
A. Microbes are found on dust particles
B. A specific microbe is the cause of a specific disease
C. Life forms can only arise from preexisting life forms
D. A specific microbe should be classified in a specific kingdom
E. Microbes can be used to clean up toxic spills
25. The surgeon who advocated using disinfectants on hands and in the air prior to surgery was
A. Joseph Lister
B. Ignaz Semmelweis
C. Robert Koch
D. Louis Pasteur
E. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
26. Sterile refers to
A. Pathogen free
B. Absence of spores
C. Absence of any life forms and viral particles
D. Pasteurized
E. Homogenized
27. Which scientist showed that anthrax was caused by the bacterium, Bacillus anthracis?
A. Joseph Lister
B. Ignaz Semmelweis
C. Robert Koch
D. Louis Pasteur
E. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
28. Taxonomy does not involve
A. Nomenclature
B. Classification
C. Taxa
D. Identification
E. Common name
29. Which scientific field is involved in the identification, classification and naming of organisms?
A. Nomenclature
B. Taxonomy
C. Phylogeny
D. Woesean classification
E. None of the choices is correct
30. The orderly arrangement of organisms into a hierarchy of taxa is called
A. Classification
B. Identification
C. Nomenclature
D. Experimentation
E. Biotechnology
31. Which of the following is a taxon that contains all the other taxa listed?
A. Species
B. Phylum
C. Kingdom
D. Genus
E. Family

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32. The smallest and most significant taxon is
A. Genus
B. Species
C. Kingdom
D. Family
E. Phylum
33. Select the correct descending taxonomic hierarchy (left to right).
A. Family, order, class
B. Family, genus, species
C. Genus, species, family
D. Class, phylum, order
E. Kingdom, domain, phylum
34. Which of the following is a scientific name?
A. Gram positive streptococcus
B. Staphlococcus
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Anthrax
E. Streptobacilli
35. When assigning a scientific name to an organism,
A. The species name is capitalized
B. The species name is placed first
C. The species name can be abbreviated
D. Both genus and species names are capitalized
E. Both genus and species names are italicized or underlined
36. The study of evolutionary relationships among organisms is called
A. Biotechnology
B. Genetics
C. Recombinant DNA
D. Phylogeny
E. Taxonomy
37. Which area of biology states that living things undergo gradual structural and functional changes over
long periods of time?
A. Morphology
B. Phylogeny
C. Evolution
D. Genetics
E. None of the choices is correct
38. A scientist studying the sequence of nucleotides in the rRNA of a bacterial species is working on
A. Determining evolutionary relatedness
B. Bioremediation
C. Recombinant DNA
D. Nomenclature
E. Determining if that species is the cause of a new disease
39. The scientist/s that proposed that organisms be assigned to one of 3 domains is/are
A. Robert Koch and Louis Pasteur
B. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
C. Carl Woese and George Fox
D. Robert Whittaker
E. Francesco Redi

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40. In Whittaker's system, the protozoa and algae are classified in the kingdom
A. Monera
B. Protist
C. Fungi
D. Plant
E. Animal
41. Which kingdom does not contain any eukaryotes?
A. Monera
B. Protist
C. Fungi
D. Plant
E. Animal
42. Who developed the first rabies vaccine in 1885?
A. Pasteur
B. Lister
C. Leeuwenhoek
D. Redi
43. Which scientific name is written correctly?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. staphylococcus aureus
C. Staphylococcus Aureus
D. Staphylococcus aureus
44. Traditional approaches to taxonomy involved observation of visible morphological characteristics.
Today, however, new molecular methods include the examination of:
A. DNA
B. rRNA
C. proteins
D. All of these
True / False Questions
45. A scientist studying helminths is working with bacteria.
True False
46. Members of the kingdom Fungi are photosynthetic.
True False
47. The fossil record has established that prokaryotes existed on earth for approximately 2 billion years
before eukaryotes appeared.
True False
48. Many chronic conditions are found to be associated with microbial agents.
True False
49. All microorganisms are parasites.
True False
50. The scientific method involves formulating a tentative explanation, called the hypothesis, to account for
what has been observed or measured.
True False
51. A hypothesis must be tested many times before it can be considered a theory.
True False

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52. The term sterile means free of all life forms.
True False
53. Members of the same species share many more characteristics compared to those shared by members of
the same kingdom.
True False
54. Once an organism is assigned to a particular taxonomic hierarchy, it is permanent and cannot be
revised.
True False
55. Viruses are not classified in any of Whittaker's 5 kingdoms.
True False
56. The names of the three proposed Domains are: Bacteria, Protista, Eukarya.
True False
57. One distinguishing characteristic of the archaebacteria is that they live in extreme environments.
True False
58. Microbes have been found existing in salty, acidic lakes.
True False
59. Researchers are trying to show if microbes can live in Antarctica glaciers perhaps they can live on planets
with similar conditions.
True False

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Chapter 001 The Main Themes of Microbiology Key
Multiple Choice Questions
1. When humans manipulate the genes of microorganisms the process is called
A. Bioremediation
B. Genetic engineering
C. Epidemiology
D. Immunology
E. Taxonomy
Learning Objective: 1.02 Identify multiple types of professions using microbiology.
2. Which of the following is not considered a microorganism?
A. Mosquito
B. Protozoa
C. Bacteria
D. Viruses
E. Fungi
Learning Objective: 1.01 List the various types of microorganisms.
3. All microorganisms are best defined as organisms that
A. Cause human disease
B. Lack a cell nucleus
C. Are infectious particles
D. Are too small to be seen with the unaided eye
E. Can only be found growing in laboratories
Learning Objective: 1.01 List the various types of microorganisms.
4. Which activity is an example of biotechnology?
A. Bacteria in the soil secreting an antibiotic to kill competitors
B. A microbiologist using the microscope to study bacteria
C. Egyptians using moldy bread on wounds
D. Eschericia coli producing human insulin
E. Public health officials monitoring diseases in a community
Learning Objective: 1.01 List the various types of microorganisms.
Learning Objective: 1.02 Identify multiple types of professions using microbiology.
Learning Objective: 1.03 Describe the role and impact of microbes on the earth.
Learning Objective: 1.05 Explain the ways that humans manipulate organisms for their own uses.
5. Living things ordinarily too small to be seen with the unaided eye are termed
A. Bacteria
B. Viruses
C. Parasites
D. Microorganisms
E. None of the choices is correct
Learning Objective: 1.01 List the various types of microorganisms.
Learning Objective: 1.09 Compare and contrast the relative sizes of the different microbes.
6. The study of the immune response to infection caused by microorganisms is
A. Hypersensitivity
B. Epidemiology
C. Immunology
D. Morbidity
E. Geomicrobiology
Learning Objective: 1.02 Identify multiple types of professions using microbiology.

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7. Which of the following does not indicate microbe involvement in energy and nutrient flow?
A. Formation of oxygen by an oxygenic photosynthesis
B. Formation of greenhouse gases
C. Formation of soil
D. Digestion of complex carbohydrates in animal diets
E. Decomposition of dead matter and wastes
Learning Objective: 1.01 List the various types of microorganisms.
8. The microorganisms that recycle nutrients by breaking down dead matter and wastes are called
A. Decomposers
B. Prokaryotes
C. Pathogens
D. Eukaryotes
E. Fermenters
Learning Objective: 1.03 Describe the role and impact of microbes on the earth.
9. The microorganisms that do not have a nucleus in their cells are called
A. Decomposers
B. Prokaryotes
C. Pathogens
D. Eukaryotes
E. Fermenters
Learning Objective: 1.07 Differentiate between prokaryotic and eukaryotic microorganisms.
10. The first prokaryotes appeared about ___ billion years ago.
A. 5
B. 4
C. 3
D. 2
E. 1
Learning Objective: 1.07 Differentiate between prokaryotic and eukaryotic microorganisms.
11. Which of the following is not a human use of microorganisms?
A. Baking bread
B. Treating water and sewage
C. Breaking down chocolate
D. Mass producing antibiotics
E. Cleaning up oil spills
Learning Objective: 1.03 Describe the role and impact of microbes on the earth.
12. Using microbes to detoxify a site contaminated with heavy metals is an example of
A. Biotechnology
B. Bioremediation
C. Decomposition
D. Immunology
E. Epidemiology
Learning Objective: 1.03 Describe the role and impact of microbes on the earth.
13. Disease-causing microorganisms are called
A. Decomposers
B. Prokaryotes
C. Pathogens
D. Eukaryotes
E. Fermenters
Learning Objective: 1.06 Summarize the relative burden of human disease caused by microbes.

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14. The number one worldwide infectious diseases are
A. AIDS related diseases
B. Diarrhea diseases
C. Malaria diseases
D. Measles
E. Respiratory diseases
Learning Objective: 1.06 Summarize the relative burden of human disease caused by microbes.
15. Which of the following is a unique characteristic of viruses that distinguishes them from the other
major groups of microorganisms?
A. Cause human disease
B. Lack a nucleus
C. Cannot be seen without a microscope
D. Contain genetic material
E. Lack cell structure
Learning Objective: 1.08 Identify a 3rd type of microorganism.
16. Helminths are
A. Bacteria
B. Protozoa
C. Molds
D. Parasitic worms
E. Infectious particles
Learning Objective: 1.01 List the various types of microorganisms.
17. Organisms called parasites are
A. Always classified in the kingdom Monera
B. Always harmful to their host
C. The decomposers in ecosystems
D. Always a virus
E. Free-living
Learning Objective: 1.01 List the various types of microorganisms.
18. Which group of microorganisms is composed only of hereditary material wrapped in a protein
covering?
A. Viruses
B. Bacteria
C. Parasites
D. Fungi
E. Yeasts
Learning Objective: 1.01 List the various types of microorganisms.
Learning Objective: 1.08 Identify a 3rd type of microorganism.
19. The Dutch merchant who made and used quality magnifying lenses to see and record microorganisms
was
A. Francesco Redi
B. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
C. Louis Pasteur
D. Joseph Lister
E. Robert Koch
Learning Objective: 1.10 Make a timeline of the development of microbiology from the 1600s to today.
20. Which of the following is not a process in the scientific method?
A. Belief in a preconceived idea
B. Formulate a hypothesis
C. Systematic observation
D. Laboratory experimentation
E. Development of a theory
Learning Objective: 1.12 Explain what is important about the scientific method.

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21. Experimentation
A. Is designed to refute an hypothesis
B. Is designed to support an hypothesis
C. Provides a means to gather subjective data
D. Provides a means to gather objective data
E. Is the first step in the scientific method
Learning Objective: 1.12 Explain what is important about the scientific method.
22. A scientist that constructs a hypothesis and then tests its validity by outlining predicted events of the
hypothesis followed by experiments to test for those events is using the _____ approach.
A. Koch
B. Scientific method
C. Spontaneous generation
D. Taxonomic
E. None of the choices is correct
Learning Objective: 1.12 Explain what is important about the scientific method.
23. The scientific method includes all of the following except
A. Hypothesis
B. Experimentation
C. Observation
D. Control group
E. Theory
Learning Objective: 1.12 Explain what is important about the scientific method.
24. Koch's postulates are criteria used to establish that
A. Microbes are found on dust particles
B. A specific microbe is the cause of a specific disease
C. Life forms can only arise from preexisting life forms
D. A specific microbe should be classified in a specific kingdom
E. Microbes can be used to clean up toxic spills
Learning Objective: none
25. The surgeon who advocated using disinfectants on hands and in the air prior to surgery was
A. Joseph Lister
B. Ignaz Semmelweis
C. Robert Koch
D. Louis Pasteur
E. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
Learning Objective: 1.10 Make a timeline of the development of microbiology from the 1600s to today.
26. Sterile refers to
A. Pathogen free
B. Absence of spores
C. Absence of any life forms and viral particles
D. Pasteurized
E. Homogenized
Learning Objective: 1.03 Describe the role and impact of microbes on the earth.
Learning Objective: 1.10 Make a timeline of the development of microbiology from the 1600s to today.
Learning Objective: 1.12 Explain what is important about the scientific method.
27. Which scientist showed that anthrax was caused by the bacterium, Bacillus anthracis?
A. Joseph Lister
B. Ignaz Semmelweis
C. Robert Koch
D. Louis Pasteur
E. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
Learning Objective: 1.10 Make a timeline of the development of microbiology from the 1600s to today.

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28. Taxonomy does not involve
A. Nomenclature
B. Classification
C. Taxa
D. Identification
E. Common name
Learning Objective: 1.13 Differentiate between the terms nomenclature
Learning Objective: taxonomy and classification.
29. Which scientific field is involved in the identification, classification and naming of organisms?
A. Nomenclature
B. Taxonomy
C. Phylogeny
D. Woesean classification
E. None of the choices is correct
Learning Objective: 1.13 Differentiate between the terms nomenclature
Learning Objective: taxonomy and classification.
30. The orderly arrangement of organisms into a hierarchy of taxa is called
A. Classification
B. Identification
C. Nomenclature
D. Experimentation
E. Biotechnology
Learning Objective: 1.13 Differentiate between the terms nomenclature
Learning Objective: taxonomy and classification.
31. Which of the following is a taxon that contains all the other taxa listed?
A. Species
B. Phylum
C. Kingdom
D. Genus
E. Family
Learning Objective: 1.13 Differentiate between the terms nomenclature
Learning Objective: taxonomy and classification.
32. The smallest and most significant taxon is
A. Genus
B. Species
C. Kingdom
D. Family
E. Phylum
Learning Objective: 1.13 Differentiate between the terms nomenclature
Learning Objective: taxonomy and classification.
33. Select the correct descending taxonomic hierarchy (left to right).
A. Family, order, class
B. Family, genus, species
C. Genus, species, family
D. Class, phylum, order
E. Kingdom, domain, phylum
Learning Objective: 1.13 Differentiate between the terms nomenclature
Learning Objective: 1.14 Create a mnemonic device for remembering the taxonomic categories.
Learning Objective: taxonomy and classification.
34. Which of the following is a scientific name?
A. Gram positive streptococcus
B. Staphlococcus
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Anthrax
E. Streptobacilli
Learning Objective: 1.15 Correctly write the binomial name for a microorganism.

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35. When assigning a scientific name to an organism,
A. The species name is capitalized
B. The species name is placed first
C. The species name can be abbreviated
D. Both genus and species names are capitalized
E. Both genus and species names are italicized or underlined
Learning Objective: 1.15 Correctly write the binomial name for a microorganism.
36. The study of evolutionary relationships among organisms is called
A. Biotechnology
B. Genetics
C. Recombinant DNA
D. Phylogeny
E. Taxonomy
Learning Objective: 1.04 Differentiate between evolution and the theory of evolution.
37. Which area of biology states that living things undergo gradual structural and functional changes over
long periods of time?
A. Morphology
B. Phylogeny
C. Evolution
D. Genetics
E. None of the choices is correct
Learning Objective: 1.04 Differentiate between evolution and the theory of evolution.
38. A scientist studying the sequence of nucleotides in the rRNA of a bacterial species is working on
A. Determining evolutionary relatedness
B. Bioremediation
C. Recombinant DNA
D. Nomenclature
E. Determining if that species is the cause of a new disease
Learning Objective: 1.04 Differentiate between evolution and the theory of evolution.
39. The scientist/s that proposed that organisms be assigned to one of 3 domains is/are
A. Robert Koch and Louis Pasteur
B. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
C. Carl Woese and George Fox
D. Robert Whittaker
E. Francesco Redi
Learning Objective: 1.16 Draw a diagram of the three major domains.
40. In Whittaker's system, the protozoa and algae are classified in the kingdom
A. Monera
B. Protist
C. Fungi
D. Plant
E. Animal
Learning Objective: none
41. Which kingdom does not contain any eukaryotes?
A. Monera
B. Protist
C. Fungi
D. Plant
E. Animal
Learning Objective: none

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42. Who developed the first rabies vaccine in 1885?
A. Pasteur
B. Lister
C. Leeuwenhoek
D. Redi
Learning Objective: 1.10 Make a timeline of the development of microbiology from the 1600s to today.
43. Which scientific name is written correctly?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. staphylococcus aureus
C. Staphylococcus Aureus
D. Staphylococcus aureus
Learning Objective: 1.15 Correctly write the binomial name for a microorganism.
44. Traditional approaches to taxonomy involved observation of visible morphological characteristics.
Today, however, new molecular methods include the examination of:
A. DNA
B. rRNA
C. proteins
D. All of these
Learning Objective: 1.17 Explain the difference between traditional and molecular approaches to taxonomy.
True / False Questions
45. A scientist studying helminths is working with bacteria.
FALSE
Learning Objective: 1.01 List the various types of microorganisms.
46. Members of the kingdom Fungi are photosynthetic.
FALSE
Learning Objective: none
47. The fossil record has established that prokaryotes existed on earth for approximately 2 billion years
before eukaryotes appeared.
TRUE
Learning Objective: none
48. Many chronic conditions are found to be associated with microbial agents.
TRUE
Learning Objective: 1.03 Describe the role and impact of microbes on earth.
49. All microorganisms are parasites.
FALSE
Learning Objective: 1.01 List the various types of microorganisms.
Learning Objective: 1.03 Describe the role and impact of microbes on the earth.
50. The scientific method involves formulating a tentative explanation, called the hypothesis, to account
for what has been observed or measured.
TRUE
Learning Objective: none
51. A hypothesis must be tested many times before it can be considered a theory.
TRUE
Learning Objective: 1.12 Explain what is important about the scientific method.
52. The term sterile means free of all life forms.
TRUE
Learning Objective: 1.12 Explain what is important about the scientific method.
Learning Objective: none

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53. Members of the same species share many more characteristics compared to those shared by members
of the same kingdom.
TRUE
Learning Objective: 1.13 Differentiate between the terms nomenclature
Learning Objective: 1.14 Create a mnemonic device for remembering the taxonomic categories.
Learning Objective: taxonomy and classification.
54. Once an organism is assigned to a particular taxonomic hierarchy, it is permanent and cannot be
revised.
FALSE
Learning Objective: none
55. Viruses are not classified in any of Whittaker's 5 kingdoms.
TRUE
Learning Objective: none
56. The names of the three proposed Domains are: Bacteria, Protista, Eukarya.
FALSE
Learning Objective: 1.16 Draw a diagram of the 3 major domains.
57. One distinguishing characteristic of the archaebacteria is that they live in extreme environments.
TRUE
Learning Objective: none
58. Microbes have been found existing in salty, acidic lakes.
TRUE
Learning Objective: 1.11 List some recent Microbiology discoveries of great impact.
59. Researchers are trying to show if microbes can live in Antarctica glaciers perhaps they can live on
planets with similar conditions.
TRUE
Learning Objective: 1.11 List some recent Microbiology discoveries of great impact.

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Chapter 001 The Main Themes of Microbiology Summary
Category # of Questions
Learning Objective: 1.01 List the various types of microorganisms. 10
Learning Objective: 1.02 Identify multiple types of professions using microbiology. 3
Learning Objective: 1.03 Describe the role and impact of microbes on earth. 1
Learning Objective: 1.03 Describe the role and impact of microbes on the earth. 6
Learning Objective: 1.04 Differentiate between evolution and the theory of evolution. 3
Learning Objective: 1.05 Explain the ways that humans manipulate organisms for their own uses. 1
Learning Objective: 1.06 Summarize the relative burden of human disease caused by microbes. 2
Learning Objective: 1.07 Differentiate between prokaryotic and eukaryotic microorganisms. 2
Learning Objective: 1.08 Identify a 3rd type of microorganism. 2
Learning Objective: 1.09 Compare and contrast the relative sizes of the different microbes. 1
Learning Objective: 1.10 Make a timeline of the development of microbiology from the 1600s to today. 5
Learning Objective: 1.11 List some recent Microbiology discoveries of great impact. 2
Learning Objective: 1.12 Explain what is important about the scientific method. 7
Learning Objective: 1.13 Differentiate between the terms nomenclature 7
Learning Objective: 1.14 Create a mnemonic device for remembering the taxonomic categories. 2
Learning Objective: 1.15 Correctly write the binomial name for a microorganism. 3
Learning Objective: 1.16 Draw a diagram of the 3 major domains. 1
Learning Objective: 1.16 Draw a diagram of the three major domains. 1
Learning Objective: 1.17 Explain the difference between traditional and molecular approaches to taxonomy. 1
Learning Objective: none 10
Learning Objective: taxonomy and classification. 7

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Chapter 002 The Chemistry of Biology
Multiple Choice Questions
1. Anything that occupies space and has mass is called
A. Atomic
B. Living
C. Matter
D. Energy
E. Space
2. The electrons of an atom are
A. Always equal to the number of neutrons in an atom
B. Found in the nucleus
C. Used to determine atomic number
D. Positively charged
E. Moving in pathways called orbitals
3. The electrons of an atom are
A. Always equal to the number of protons
B. Used to determine the atomic weight
C. Carrying a positive charge
D. Used to determine the atomic number
E. Always in full orbitals
4. All of the following pertain to the atom carbon-14 except
A. Has 6 protons
B. Has 6 electrons
C. Has 14 neutrons
D. Is an isotope of carbon
E. All of the choices pertain to carbon-14
5. The subatomic particles that surround the nucleus are the
A. Electrons
B. Protons
C. Neutrons
D. Protons and neutrons
E. Protons and electrons
6. Isotopes are atoms of the same element that differ in their
A. Neutron number
B. Electron number
C. Proton number
D. Atomic number
E. Chemical properties
7. What is the maximum number of electrons in the second energy shell of an atom?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 18
E. 32

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8. What is the maximum number of electrons in the first energy shell of an atom?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 18
E. 32
9. Protons and neutrons make up the atom's central core referred to as its
A. Valence number
B. Isotope
C. Nucleus
D. Center of gravity
E. None of the choices are correct
10. The valence number is the
A. Number of protons
B. Number of neutrons
C. Atomic weight
D. Number of inner most electrons
E. Number of outer most electrons
11. Two or more atoms bonded together are called a/an
A. Ion
B. Isotope
C. Element
D. Electrolyte
E. Molecule
12. What would be the valence number of electrons in the sulfur (S) atom?
A. 2
B. 6
C. 8
D. 16
E. 32
13. Polar molecules are composed of covalently bonded
A. Identical atoms
B. Carbon atoms
C. Ions
D. Atoms of different electro negativity
E. Atoms of identical electro negativity
14. Polar molecules
A. Have an equal charge distribution
B. Have an unequal charge distribution
C. Are insoluble in water
D. Always contain carbon
E. Always involve oxygen
15. Covalent bonds
A. Result from losing electrons
B. Are always polar
C. Are always non-polar
D. Result from sharing electrons
E. Result from gaining electrons

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16. Cations are a(n)
A. Charged subatomic particles
B. Atoms that have gained electrons
C. Atoms that have gained neutrons
D. Capable of forming ionic bonds with anions
E. Atoms without protons
17. A reaction where an electron is lost is called
A. Oxidation
B. Reduction
C. Ionization
D. Decomposition
E. Dissolution
18. An atom has gained an electron. It has been
A. Oxidized
B. Reduced
C. Ionized
D. Deionized
E. Neutralized
19. Ionic bonds
A. Result from sharing electrons
B. Result from transferring electrons
C. Results from like charge attraction
D. Are the weakest chemical bonds
E. Always involve carbon
20. Hydrogen bonds
A. Result from attractive forces between molecules with polar covalent bonds
B. Result from attractive forces between molecules with polar ionic bonds
C. Result from attractive forces between molecules with non-polar covalent bonds
D. Result from attractive forces between molecules with non-polar ionic bonds
E. Are the strongest bonds between molecules
21. Atoms that gain or lose electrons become charged particles called
A. Cations
B. Anions
C. Ions
D. Isotopes
E. All of the choices are correct
22. Substances that release ions when dissolved in water and conduct electricity are
A. Covalent
B. Nonpolar
C. Electrons
D. Electrolytes
E. Solvents
23. Which of the following represents a synthesis reaction?
A. AB ® A + B
B. A + B ® AB
C. AB + XY ® AX + BY
D. AB + XY « AX + BY
E. None of the choices are correct

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24. Which of the following represents a reversible reaction?
A. AB ® A + B
B. A + B ® AB
C. AB + XY ® AX + BY
D. AB + XY « AX + BY
E. None of the choices are correct
25. The important solvent associated with living things is
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Sodium chloride
C. Ethyl alcohol
D. Benzene
E. Water
26. Ionic compounds are
A. Hydrophobic
B. Hydrophilic
C. Are acidic in solution
D. Are basic in solution
E. Always form salts in solution
27. A solution is composed of one or more substances called _____ that are uniformly dispersed in a
dissolving medium called a _____.
A. Solvent, solute
B. Solute, solvent
C. Neither solvent, solute nor solute, solvent
D. Both solvent, solute and solute, solvent
28. Which term does not belong in this list?
A. Lactic acid
B. Vinegar
C. Hydrogen ion donor
D. PH 8
E. Acidic
29. A solution of pH 7 compared to a solution of pH 9
A. Is more basic
B. Has no OH- ions
C. Has more H+ ions
D. Has a higher pH
E. All of the choices are correct
30. A solution of pH 7 compared to a solution of pH 9
A. 2 times more acidic
B. 20 times more acidic
C. 20 times more basic
D. 100 times more acidic
E. 100 times more basic
31. Which of the following functional groups is mismatched to the organic compound?
A. Phosphate-carbohydrates
B. Sulfhydryl-proteins
C. Amino-proteins
D. Hydroxyl-alcohols
E. Carboxyl-fatty acids

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32. Organic chemicals always have a basic framework of the element _____ bonded to other atoms.
A. Carbon
B. Nitrogen
C. Oxygen
D. Hydrogen
E. Phosphorous
33. Most biochemical macromolecules are polymers, which are
A. Chains of hydrophobic molecules
B. Chains of electrolytic molecules
C. Chains of repeating monomers
D. Chains of repeating carbohydrates
E. Chains of hydrogen bonds
34. All of the following are monosaccharides except
A. Glucose
B. Glycogen
C. Fructose
D. Ribose
E. Deoxyribose
35. Which of the following would have glycosidic bonds?
A. Triglycerides
B. Monosaccharides
C. Polypeptides
D. Polysaccharides
E. ATP
36. All of the following are polysaccharides except
A. Dextran in some bacterial slime layers
B. Agar used to make solid culture media
C. A cell's glycocalyx
D. Cellulose in certain cell walls
E. Prostaglandins in inflammation
37. C6H12O6 + C6H12O6 ® C12 H22O11 + H2O represents
A. Formation of a peptide bond
B. A decomposition reaction
C. Denaturation
D. Formation of a polysaccharide
E. Dehydration synthesis
38. Starch is the primary storage food for all of the following except
A. Green plants
B. Algae
C. Animals
D. Some fungi
E. All of these store food as starch
39. All of the following are lipids except
A. Cholesterol
B. Starch
C. Phospholipid
D. Wax
E. Triglyceride

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40. What part of a phospholipid forms hydrophobic tails?
A. Fatty acids
B. Glycerol
C. Phosphate
D. Alcohol
E. All of the choices are correct
41. A fat is called _____ if all carbons of the fatty acid chain are single bonded to 2 other carbons and 2
hydrogens.
A. Unsaturated
B. Polyunsaturated
C. Monounsaturated
D. Saturated
E. None of the choices are correct
42. The lipid group that serves as energy storage molecules are
A. Prostaglandins
B. Waxes
C. Phospholipids
D. Steroids
E. Triglycerides
43. The lipid group that is the major component of cell membranes are the
A. Prostaglandins
B. Waxes
C. Phospholipids
D. Steroids
E. Triglycerides
44. The building blocks of an enzyme are
A. Nucleotides
B. Glycerol and fatty acids
C. Monosaccharides
D. Phosphate, glycerol, fatty acids
E. Amino acids
45. An amino acid contains all of the following except
A. An amino group
B. A carboxyl group
C. A variable R group
D. An a carbon
E. A nitrogen base
46. Which is not true about enzymes?
A. Found in all cells
B. Are catalysts
C. Participate in the cell's chemical reactions
D. Can be denaturated by heat and other agents
E. Have high-energy bonds between phosphates
47. Which amino acid contains sulfur atoms that form covalent disulfide bonds in its tertiary structure?
A. Valine
B. Cysteine
C. Serine
D. Alanine
E. Tyrosine

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48. What type of bonds are formed by dehydration synthesis between adjacent amino acids?
A. Glycosilic
B. Ester
C. Peptide
D. Disulfide
E. Phosphate
49. The a – helix is a type of _____ protein structure.
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Quaternary
E. None of these
50. One nucleotide contains
A. One phosphate
B. One pentose sugar
C. One nitrogen base
D. All of the choices are correct
E. None of the choices are correct
51. Which pertains to DNA but not to RNA?
A. Contains ribose
B. Contains adenine
C. Contains thymine
D. Contains uracil
E. Contains nucleotides
52. ATP is best described as
A. An enzyme
B. A double helix
C. An electron carrier
D. The energy molecule of cells
E. All of the choices are correct
53. A student forgot to label a beaker containing a DNA solution and a beaker containing a glucose solution.
If chemical analysis was performed to identify the contents of each beaker, which of the following would
be found in the beaker of DNA but not in the beaker with glucose?
A. Amino acids
B. Hydrogen and oxygen atoms
C. Nitrogen and phosphorus
D. Fatty acids
E. Carbon atoms
54. Purines and pyrimidines are components in the building block units of all
A. Nucleic acids
B. Carbohydrates
C. Polysaccharides
D. Amino acids
E. Enzymes
55. Which of the following is not a pyrimidine?
A. Uracil
B. Adenine
C. Thymine
D. Cytosine
E. All of these are pyrimidines

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56. During protein synthesis, ____ RNA is made to be a copy of a gene from the DNA.
A. Transfer
B. Messenger
C. Ribosomal
D. All of the choices are correct
57. Characteristics of shared by all cells include:
A. a membrane serving as a cell boundary
B. the possession of genetic information
C. the presence of cellular fluid
D. All of these
58. An example of an amphipathic molecule found in living cells is:
A. glucose
B. phospholipid
C. protein
D. nucleic acids
59. The purine___ always binds with the pyrimidine__ in DNA and RNA.
A. guanine, cytosine
B. cytosine, guanine
C. adenine, guanine
D. thymine, guanine
60. You are asked to make a 1M solution of Sodium Bicarbonate or Baking Soda (NaHCO3 ) for a DNA
extraction lab. How many gram(s) of sodium bicarbonate (NaHCO3 ) should be added to 1L of water to
make the required solution? Use the table of atomic masses to help you.
A. 29 g
B. 62 g
C. 84 g
D. 91.1 g
E. Element Atomic mass
H 1.00
C 12.00
O 16.00
Na 23.00
K 39.1
True / False Questions
61. Elements have predictable chemical properties.
True False
62. Electrons that participate in chemical bonding are typically located closest to the nucleus.
True False
63. Water molecules are non-polar molecules.
True False
64. Polar molecules have more reactivity compared to non-polar molecules.
True False
65. A covalent bond is formed between an anion and a cation.
True False
66. Only charged atoms can form ionic bonds.
True False

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67. The concentration of a solution expresses the amount of solvent present.
True False
68. If solution A has a lower pH compared to solution B, then solution A is more acidic than solution B.
True False
69. The only part of an amino acid that differs from other amino acids is its R group.
True False
70. All proteins are enzymes.
True False
71. The most important outcome of polypeptide intra-chain bonding and folding is the unique shape of the
protein.
True False
72. Nucleic acids have primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary levels of organization.
True False

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Chapter 002 The Chemistry of Biology Key
Multiple Choice Questions
1. Anything that occupies space and has mass is called
A. Atomic
B. Living
C. Matter
D. Energy
E. Space
Learning Objective: 2.01 Explain the relationship between atoms and elements.
2. The electrons of an atom are
A. Always equal to the number of neutrons in an atom
B. Found in the nucleus
C. Used to determine atomic number
D. Positively charged
E. Moving in pathways called orbitals
Learning Objective: 2.01 Explain the relationship between atoms and elements.
3. The electrons of an atom are
A. Always equal to the number of protons
B. Used to determine the atomic weight
C. Carrying a positive charge
D. Used to determine the atomic number
E. Always in full orbitals
Learning Objective: 2.01 Explain the relationship between atoms and elements
4. All of the following pertain to the atom carbon-14 except
A. Has 6 protons
B. Has 6 electrons
C. Has 14 neutrons
D. Is an isotope of carbon
E. All of the choices pertain to carbon-14
Learning Objective: 2.01 Explain the relationship between atoms and elements
5. The subatomic particles that surround the nucleus are the
A. Electrons
B. Protons
C. Neutrons
D. Protons and neutrons
E. Protons and electrons
Learning Objective: 2.01 Explain the relationship between atoms and elements
6. Isotopes are atoms of the same element that differ in their
A. Neutron number
B. Electron number
C. Proton number
D. Atomic number
E. Chemical properties
Learning Objective: 2.01 Explain the relationship between atoms and elements

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7. What is the maximum number of electrons in the second energy shell of an atom?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 18
E. 32
Learning Objective: 2.01 Explain the relationship between atoms and elements
8. What is the maximum number of electrons in the first energy shell of an atom?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 18
E. 32
Learning Objective: 2.01 Explain the relationship between atoms and elements
9. Protons and neutrons make up the atom's central core referred to as its
A. Valence number
B. Isotope
C. Nucleus
D. Center of gravity
E. None of the choices are correct
Learning Objective: 2.01 Explain the relationship between atoms and elements
10. The valence number is the
A. Number of protons
B. Number of neutrons
C. Atomic weight
D. Number of inner most electrons
E. Number of outer most electrons
Learning Objective: 2.01 Explain the relationship between atoms and elements
11. Two or more atoms bonded together are called a/an
A. Ion
B. Isotope
C. Element
D. Electrolyte
E. Molecule
Learning Objective: 2.02 List and define 4 types of chemical bonds.
12. What would be the valence number of electrons in the sulfur (S) atom?
A. 2
B. 6
C. 8
D. 16
E. 32
Learning Objective: 2.02 List and define 4 types of chemical bonds.
13. Polar molecules are composed of covalently bonded
A. Identical atoms
B. Carbon atoms
C. Ions
D. Atoms of different electro negativity
E. Atoms of identical electro negativity
Learning Objective: 2.02 List and define 4 types of chemical bonds.

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14. Polar molecules
A. Have an equal charge distribution
B. Have an unequal charge distribution
C. Are insoluble in water
D. Always contain carbon
E. Always involve oxygen
Learning Objective: none
15. Covalent bonds
A. Result from losing electrons
B. Are always polar
C. Are always non-polar
D. Result from sharing electrons
E. Result from gaining electrons
Learning Objective: 2.02 List and define 4 types of chemical bonds.
16. Cations are a(n)
A. Charged subatomic particles
B. Atoms that have gained electrons
C. Atoms that have gained neutrons
D. Capable of forming ionic bonds with anions
E. Atoms without protons
Learning Objective: 2.02 List and define 4 types of chemical bonds.
17. A reaction where an electron is lost is called
A. Oxidation
B. Reduction
C. Ionization
D. Decomposition
E. Dissolution
Learning Objective: none
18. An atom has gained an electron. It has been
A. Oxidized
B. Reduced
C. Ionized
D. Deionized
E. Neutralized
Learning Objective: 2.02 List and define 4 types of chemical bonds.
19. Ionic bonds
A. Result from sharing electrons
B. Result from transferring electrons
C. Results from like charge attraction
D. Are the weakest chemical bonds
E. Always involve carbon
Learning Objective: none
20. Hydrogen bonds
A. Result from attractive forces between molecules with polar covalent bonds
B. Result from attractive forces between molecules with polar ionic bonds
C. Result from attractive forces between molecules with non-polar covalent bonds
D. Result from attractive forces between molecules with non-polar ionic bonds
E. Are the strongest bonds between molecules
Learning Objective: 2.02 List and define 4 types of chemical bonds.

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21. Atoms that gain or lose electrons become charged particles called
A. Cations
B. Anions
C. Ions
D. Isotopes
E. All of the choices are correct
Learning Objective: 2.02 List and define 4 types of chemical bonds.
22. Substances that release ions when dissolved in water and conduct electricity are
A. Covalent
B. Nonpolar
C. Electrons
D. Electrolytes
E. Solvents
Learning Objective: 2.03 Differentiate between a solute and a solvent.
23. Which of the following represents a synthesis reaction?
A. AB ® A + B
B. A + B ® AB
C. AB + XY ® AX + BY
D. AB + XY « AX + BY
E. None of the choices are correct
Learning Objective: none
24. Which of the following represents a reversible reaction?
A. AB ® A + B
B. A + B ® AB
C. AB + XY ® AX + BY
D. AB + XY « AX + BY
E. None of the choices are correct
Learning Objective: none
25. The important solvent associated with living things is
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Sodium chloride
C. Ethyl alcohol
D. Benzene
E. Water
Learning Objective: 2.03 Differentiate between a solute and a solvent.
26. Ionic compounds are
A. Hydrophobic
B. Hydrophilic
C. Are acidic in solution
D. Are basic in solution
E. Always form salts in solution
Learning Objective: none
27. A solution is composed of one or more substances called _____ that are uniformly dispersed in a
dissolving medium called a _____.
A. Solvent, solute
B. Solute, solvent
C. Neither solvent, solute nor solute, solvent
D. Both solvent, solute and solute, solvent
Learning Objective: 2.03 Differentiate between a solute and a solvent.

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28. Which term does not belong in this list?
A. Lactic acid
B. Vinegar
C. Hydrogen ion donor
D. PH 8
E. Acidic
Learning Objective: 2.04 Give a brief definition of pH.
29. A solution of pH 7 compared to a solution of pH 9
A. Is more basic
B. Has no OH- ions
C. Has more H+ ions
D. Has a higher pH
E. All of the choices are correct
Learning Objective: 2.04 Give a brief definition of pH.
30. A solution of pH 7 compared to a solution of pH 9
A. 2 times more acidic
B. 20 times more acidic
C. 20 times more basic
D. 100 times more acidic
E. 100 times more basic
Learning Objective: 2.04 Give a brief definition of pH.
31. Which of the following functional groups is mismatched to the organic compound?
A. Phosphate-carbohydrates
B. Sulfhydryl-proteins
C. Amino-proteins
D. Hydroxyl-alcohols
E. Carboxyl-fatty acids
Learning Objective: none
32. Organic chemicals always have a basic framework of the element _____ bonded to other atoms.
A. Carbon
B. Nitrogen
C. Oxygen
D. Hydrogen
E. Phosphorous
Learning Objective: none
33. Most biochemical macromolecules are polymers, which are
A. Chains of hydrophobic molecules
B. Chains of electrolytic molecules
C. Chains of repeating monomers
D. Chains of repeating carbohydrates
E. Chains of hydrogen bonds
Learning Objective: none
34. All of the following are monosaccharides except
A. Glucose
B. Glycogen
C. Fructose
D. Ribose
E. Deoxyribose
Learning Objective: 2.05 Name the 4 main families of biochemicals.

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Test Bank For Microbiology: A Systems Approach, 3rd Edition

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