Test Bank for Foundations In Microbiology, 9th Edition
Simplify your revision with Test Bank for Foundations In Microbiology, 9th Edition, packed with helpful practice questions.
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ch01
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. Disease-causing microorganisms are called
A. decomposers.
B. prokaryotes.
C. pathogens.
D. eukaryotes.
E. fermenters.
2. The microorganisms that recycle nutrients by breaking down dead matter and wastes are called
A. decomposers.
B. prokaryotes.
C. pathogens.
D. eukaryotes.
E. fermenters.
3. The microorganisms that do not have a nucleus in their cells are called
A. decomposers.
B. prokaryotes.
C. pathogens.
D. eukaryotes.
E. fermenters.
4.
When humans manipulate the genes of microorganisms the process is called
3-7-2013
A. bioremediation.
B. genetic engineering.
C. epidemiology.
D. immunology.
E. taxonomy.
5. Which of the following are not considered microorganisms?
A. mosquitoes
B. protozoa
C. bacteria
D. viruses
E. fungi
6. All microorganisms are best defined as organisms that
A. cause human disease.
B. lack a cell nucleus.
C. are infectious particles.
D. are too small to be seen with the unaided eye.
E. can only be found growing in laboratories.
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. Disease-causing microorganisms are called
A. decomposers.
B. prokaryotes.
C. pathogens.
D. eukaryotes.
E. fermenters.
2. The microorganisms that recycle nutrients by breaking down dead matter and wastes are called
A. decomposers.
B. prokaryotes.
C. pathogens.
D. eukaryotes.
E. fermenters.
3. The microorganisms that do not have a nucleus in their cells are called
A. decomposers.
B. prokaryotes.
C. pathogens.
D. eukaryotes.
E. fermenters.
4.
When humans manipulate the genes of microorganisms the process is called
3-7-2013
A. bioremediation.
B. genetic engineering.
C. epidemiology.
D. immunology.
E. taxonomy.
5. Which of the following are not considered microorganisms?
A. mosquitoes
B. protozoa
C. bacteria
D. viruses
E. fungi
6. All microorganisms are best defined as organisms that
A. cause human disease.
B. lack a cell nucleus.
C. are infectious particles.
D. are too small to be seen with the unaided eye.
E. can only be found growing in laboratories.
ch01
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. Disease-causing microorganisms are called
A. decomposers.
B. prokaryotes.
C. pathogens.
D. eukaryotes.
E. fermenters.
2. The microorganisms that recycle nutrients by breaking down dead matter and wastes are called
A. decomposers.
B. prokaryotes.
C. pathogens.
D. eukaryotes.
E. fermenters.
3. The microorganisms that do not have a nucleus in their cells are called
A. decomposers.
B. prokaryotes.
C. pathogens.
D. eukaryotes.
E. fermenters.
4.
When humans manipulate the genes of microorganisms the process is called
3-7-2013
A. bioremediation.
B. genetic engineering.
C. epidemiology.
D. immunology.
E. taxonomy.
5. Which of the following are not considered microorganisms?
A. mosquitoes
B. protozoa
C. bacteria
D. viruses
E. fungi
6. All microorganisms are best defined as organisms that
A. cause human disease.
B. lack a cell nucleus.
C. are infectious particles.
D. are too small to be seen with the unaided eye.
E. can only be found growing in laboratories.
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. Disease-causing microorganisms are called
A. decomposers.
B. prokaryotes.
C. pathogens.
D. eukaryotes.
E. fermenters.
2. The microorganisms that recycle nutrients by breaking down dead matter and wastes are called
A. decomposers.
B. prokaryotes.
C. pathogens.
D. eukaryotes.
E. fermenters.
3. The microorganisms that do not have a nucleus in their cells are called
A. decomposers.
B. prokaryotes.
C. pathogens.
D. eukaryotes.
E. fermenters.
4.
When humans manipulate the genes of microorganisms the process is called
3-7-2013
A. bioremediation.
B. genetic engineering.
C. epidemiology.
D. immunology.
E. taxonomy.
5. Which of the following are not considered microorganisms?
A. mosquitoes
B. protozoa
C. bacteria
D. viruses
E. fungi
6. All microorganisms are best defined as organisms that
A. cause human disease.
B. lack a cell nucleus.
C. are infectious particles.
D. are too small to be seen with the unaided eye.
E. can only be found growing in laboratories.
7. Which activity is an example of biotechnology?
A. bacteria in the soil secreting an antibiotic to kill
competitors
B. a microbiologist using the microscope to study bacteria
C. humans using yeast to make beer and
wine
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis in the lungs causing tuberculosis
E. public health officials monitoring diseases in a community
8. Which of the following is a unique characteristic of viruses that distinguishes them from the other major
groups of microorganisms?
A. cause human disease
B. lack a nucleus
C. cannot be seen without a microscope
D. contain genetic material
E. lack cell structure
9. The Dutch merchant who made and used quality magnifying lenses to see and record microorganisms
was
A. Francesco Redi.
B. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek.
C. Louis Pasteur.
D. Joseph Lister.
E. Robert Koch.
10. Pasteur used swan-neck flasks in his experiments to prove that
A. air had "vital forces" capable of spontaneous generation.
B. microbial fermentation could be used to make wine.
C. dust in air was a source of living microorganisms.
D. microorganisms could cause disease.
E. microorganisms could be grown in laboratory infusions.
11. Which of the following is not a process in the scientific method?
A. belief in a preconceived idea
B. formulate a hypothesis
C. systematic observation
D. laboratory experimentation
E. development of a theory
12. Spontaneous generation is the belief that
A. germs cause infectious diseases.
B. microbes are diverse and ubiquitous.
C. microbes placed in an infusion can grow in it.
D. aseptic techniques reduce microbes in medical settings.
E. living things arise from nonliving matter.
13. Koch's postulates are criteria used to establish that
A. microbes are found on dust particles.
B. a specific microbe is the cause of a specific disease.
C. life forms can only arise from preexisting life forms.
D. a specific microbe should be classified in a specific kingdom.
E. microbes can be used to clean up toxic spills.
A. bacteria in the soil secreting an antibiotic to kill
competitors
B. a microbiologist using the microscope to study bacteria
C. humans using yeast to make beer and
wine
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis in the lungs causing tuberculosis
E. public health officials monitoring diseases in a community
8. Which of the following is a unique characteristic of viruses that distinguishes them from the other major
groups of microorganisms?
A. cause human disease
B. lack a nucleus
C. cannot be seen without a microscope
D. contain genetic material
E. lack cell structure
9. The Dutch merchant who made and used quality magnifying lenses to see and record microorganisms
was
A. Francesco Redi.
B. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek.
C. Louis Pasteur.
D. Joseph Lister.
E. Robert Koch.
10. Pasteur used swan-neck flasks in his experiments to prove that
A. air had "vital forces" capable of spontaneous generation.
B. microbial fermentation could be used to make wine.
C. dust in air was a source of living microorganisms.
D. microorganisms could cause disease.
E. microorganisms could be grown in laboratory infusions.
11. Which of the following is not a process in the scientific method?
A. belief in a preconceived idea
B. formulate a hypothesis
C. systematic observation
D. laboratory experimentation
E. development of a theory
12. Spontaneous generation is the belief that
A. germs cause infectious diseases.
B. microbes are diverse and ubiquitous.
C. microbes placed in an infusion can grow in it.
D. aseptic techniques reduce microbes in medical settings.
E. living things arise from nonliving matter.
13. Koch's postulates are criteria used to establish that
A. microbes are found on dust particles.
B. a specific microbe is the cause of a specific disease.
C. life forms can only arise from preexisting life forms.
D. a specific microbe should be classified in a specific kingdom.
E. microbes can be used to clean up toxic spills.
7. Which activity is an example of biotechnology?
A. bacteria in the soil secreting an antibiotic to kill
competitors
B. a microbiologist using the microscope to study bacteria
C. humans using yeast to make beer and
wine
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis in the lungs causing tuberculosis
E. public health officials monitoring diseases in a community
8. Which of the following is a unique characteristic of viruses that distinguishes them from the other major
groups of microorganisms?
A. cause human disease
B. lack a nucleus
C. cannot be seen without a microscope
D. contain genetic material
E. lack cell structure
9. The Dutch merchant who made and used quality magnifying lenses to see and record microorganisms
was
A. Francesco Redi.
B. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek.
C. Louis Pasteur.
D. Joseph Lister.
E. Robert Koch.
10. Pasteur used swan-neck flasks in his experiments to prove that
A. air had "vital forces" capable of spontaneous generation.
B. microbial fermentation could be used to make wine.
C. dust in air was a source of living microorganisms.
D. microorganisms could cause disease.
E. microorganisms could be grown in laboratory infusions.
11. Which of the following is not a process in the scientific method?
A. belief in a preconceived idea
B. formulate a hypothesis
C. systematic observation
D. laboratory experimentation
E. development of a theory
12. Spontaneous generation is the belief that
A. germs cause infectious diseases.
B. microbes are diverse and ubiquitous.
C. microbes placed in an infusion can grow in it.
D. aseptic techniques reduce microbes in medical settings.
E. living things arise from nonliving matter.
13. Koch's postulates are criteria used to establish that
A. microbes are found on dust particles.
B. a specific microbe is the cause of a specific disease.
C. life forms can only arise from preexisting life forms.
D. a specific microbe should be classified in a specific kingdom.
E. microbes can be used to clean up toxic spills.
A. bacteria in the soil secreting an antibiotic to kill
competitors
B. a microbiologist using the microscope to study bacteria
C. humans using yeast to make beer and
wine
D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis in the lungs causing tuberculosis
E. public health officials monitoring diseases in a community
8. Which of the following is a unique characteristic of viruses that distinguishes them from the other major
groups of microorganisms?
A. cause human disease
B. lack a nucleus
C. cannot be seen without a microscope
D. contain genetic material
E. lack cell structure
9. The Dutch merchant who made and used quality magnifying lenses to see and record microorganisms
was
A. Francesco Redi.
B. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek.
C. Louis Pasteur.
D. Joseph Lister.
E. Robert Koch.
10. Pasteur used swan-neck flasks in his experiments to prove that
A. air had "vital forces" capable of spontaneous generation.
B. microbial fermentation could be used to make wine.
C. dust in air was a source of living microorganisms.
D. microorganisms could cause disease.
E. microorganisms could be grown in laboratory infusions.
11. Which of the following is not a process in the scientific method?
A. belief in a preconceived idea
B. formulate a hypothesis
C. systematic observation
D. laboratory experimentation
E. development of a theory
12. Spontaneous generation is the belief that
A. germs cause infectious diseases.
B. microbes are diverse and ubiquitous.
C. microbes placed in an infusion can grow in it.
D. aseptic techniques reduce microbes in medical settings.
E. living things arise from nonliving matter.
13. Koch's postulates are criteria used to establish that
A. microbes are found on dust particles.
B. a specific microbe is the cause of a specific disease.
C. life forms can only arise from preexisting life forms.
D. a specific microbe should be classified in a specific kingdom.
E. microbes can be used to clean up toxic spills.
14. Which of the following is a taxon that contains all the other taxa listed?
A. Species
B. Phylum
C. Kingdom
D. Genus
E. Family
15. Which of the following is a scientific name?
A. bacteria
B. Protista
C. species
D. Bacillus subtilis
E. bacilli
16. Taxonomy does not involve
A. nomenclature.
B. classification.
C. taxa.
D. identification.
E. Koch's postulates.
17. The smallest and most significant taxon is
A. Genus.
B. Species.
C. Kingdom.
D. Family.
E. Phylum.
18. The study of evolutionary relationships among organisms is called
A. biotechnology.
B. genetics.
C. recombinant DNA.
D. phylogeny.
E. taxonomy.
19. A scientist studying the sequence of nucleotides in the rRNA of a bacterial species is working on
A. determining evolutionary relatedness.
B. bioremediation.
C. recombinant DNA.
D. nomenclature.
E. determining if that species is the cause of a new disease.
20. A scientist discovers a new microbial species. It is a single-celled eukaryote without cell walls. In which
kingdom will it likely be classified?
A. Monera
B. Protista
C. Fungi
D. Animalia
E. Plantae
21. A scientist collects grass clippings to find the source of an outbreak of tularemia is an example of
working in the field of
A. food microbiology.
B. epidemiology.
C. agricultural microbiology.
D. genetic engineering.
E. biotechnology.
A. Species
B. Phylum
C. Kingdom
D. Genus
E. Family
15. Which of the following is a scientific name?
A. bacteria
B. Protista
C. species
D. Bacillus subtilis
E. bacilli
16. Taxonomy does not involve
A. nomenclature.
B. classification.
C. taxa.
D. identification.
E. Koch's postulates.
17. The smallest and most significant taxon is
A. Genus.
B. Species.
C. Kingdom.
D. Family.
E. Phylum.
18. The study of evolutionary relationships among organisms is called
A. biotechnology.
B. genetics.
C. recombinant DNA.
D. phylogeny.
E. taxonomy.
19. A scientist studying the sequence of nucleotides in the rRNA of a bacterial species is working on
A. determining evolutionary relatedness.
B. bioremediation.
C. recombinant DNA.
D. nomenclature.
E. determining if that species is the cause of a new disease.
20. A scientist discovers a new microbial species. It is a single-celled eukaryote without cell walls. In which
kingdom will it likely be classified?
A. Monera
B. Protista
C. Fungi
D. Animalia
E. Plantae
21. A scientist collects grass clippings to find the source of an outbreak of tularemia is an example of
working in the field of
A. food microbiology.
B. epidemiology.
C. agricultural microbiology.
D. genetic engineering.
E. biotechnology.
22. Helminths are
A. bacteria.
B. protozoa.
C. molds.
D. parasitic worms.
E. infectious particles.
23. All of the following pertain to photosynthesis, except
A. it occurs only in members of the kingdom Plantae.
B. carbon dioxide is converted to organic material.
C. it contributes to the oxygen content in the atmosphere.
D. it is fueled by light.
E. it is important to each ecosystem's flow of energy and food.
24. Organisms called parasites are
A. always classified in the kingdom Monera.
B. always harmful to their host.
C. the decomposers in ecosystems.
D. always viruses.
E. free-living.
25. The surgeon who advocated using disinfectants on hands and in the air prior to surgery was
A. Joseph Lister.
B. Ignaz Semmelweis.
C. Robert Koch.
D. Louis Pasteur.
E. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek.
26. Which scientist showed that anthrax was caused by the bacterium Bacillus anthracis?
A. Joseph Lister
B. Ignaz Semmelweis
C. Robert Koch
D. Louis Pasteur
E. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
27. Select the correct descending taxonomic hierarchy (left to right):
A. family, order, class
B. family, genus, species
C. genus, species, family
D. class, phylum, order
E. kingdom, domain, phylum
28. When assigning a scientific name to an organism,
A. the species name is capitalized.
B. the species name is placed first.
C. the species name can be abbreviated.
D. both genus and species names are capitalized.
E. both genus and species names are italicized or underlined.
29. The scientist(s) that proposed assigning organisms to one of three domains is(are):
A. Robert Koch and Louis Pasteur.
B. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek.
C. Carl Woese and George Fox.
D. Robert Whittaker.
E. Francesco Redi.
A. bacteria.
B. protozoa.
C. molds.
D. parasitic worms.
E. infectious particles.
23. All of the following pertain to photosynthesis, except
A. it occurs only in members of the kingdom Plantae.
B. carbon dioxide is converted to organic material.
C. it contributes to the oxygen content in the atmosphere.
D. it is fueled by light.
E. it is important to each ecosystem's flow of energy and food.
24. Organisms called parasites are
A. always classified in the kingdom Monera.
B. always harmful to their host.
C. the decomposers in ecosystems.
D. always viruses.
E. free-living.
25. The surgeon who advocated using disinfectants on hands and in the air prior to surgery was
A. Joseph Lister.
B. Ignaz Semmelweis.
C. Robert Koch.
D. Louis Pasteur.
E. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek.
26. Which scientist showed that anthrax was caused by the bacterium Bacillus anthracis?
A. Joseph Lister
B. Ignaz Semmelweis
C. Robert Koch
D. Louis Pasteur
E. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
27. Select the correct descending taxonomic hierarchy (left to right):
A. family, order, class
B. family, genus, species
C. genus, species, family
D. class, phylum, order
E. kingdom, domain, phylum
28. When assigning a scientific name to an organism,
A. the species name is capitalized.
B. the species name is placed first.
C. the species name can be abbreviated.
D. both genus and species names are capitalized.
E. both genus and species names are italicized or underlined.
29. The scientist(s) that proposed assigning organisms to one of three domains is(are):
A. Robert Koch and Louis Pasteur.
B. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek.
C. Carl Woese and George Fox.
D. Robert Whittaker.
E. Francesco Redi.
30. In Whittaker's system, the protozoa and algae are classified in the kingdom
A. Monera.
B. Protista.
C. Mycetae.
D. Plantae.
E. Animalia.
31. Which kingdom does not contain any eukaryotes?
A. Monera
B. Protista
C. Mycetae
D. Plantae
E. Animalia
32. Which of the following are the main decomposers of the earth?
A. bacteria and fungi
B. bacteria and
viruses
C. algae and viruses
D. protists and fungi
E. all organisms are decomposers
33. The most common infectious cause of death worldwide is
A. HIV/AIDS.
B. stroke.
C. heart disease.
D. cancer.
E. malaria.
34. Which of the following diseases is transmitted by mosquitoes?
A. diarrheal diseases
B. tuberculosis
C. malaria
D. septicemia
E. influenza
35. All of the following are correct about prokaryotes, except
A. they are smaller than eukaryotes.
B. they lack a nucleus.
C. they are less complex than eukaryotes.
D. they have organelles.
E. they are found nearly everywhere.
36. All of the following contribute to the rise of emerging diseases, except
A. the decrease in drug resistant bacteria.
B. human encroachment on wild habitats.
C. changes in agricultural practices.
D. populations are more mobile.
37. Which scientist discovered heat resistant bacterial spores?
A. Joseph Lister
B. Ignaz Semmelweis
C. Robert Koch
D. Ferdinand Cohn
E. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
A. Monera.
B. Protista.
C. Mycetae.
D. Plantae.
E. Animalia.
31. Which kingdom does not contain any eukaryotes?
A. Monera
B. Protista
C. Mycetae
D. Plantae
E. Animalia
32. Which of the following are the main decomposers of the earth?
A. bacteria and fungi
B. bacteria and
viruses
C. algae and viruses
D. protists and fungi
E. all organisms are decomposers
33. The most common infectious cause of death worldwide is
A. HIV/AIDS.
B. stroke.
C. heart disease.
D. cancer.
E. malaria.
34. Which of the following diseases is transmitted by mosquitoes?
A. diarrheal diseases
B. tuberculosis
C. malaria
D. septicemia
E. influenza
35. All of the following are correct about prokaryotes, except
A. they are smaller than eukaryotes.
B. they lack a nucleus.
C. they are less complex than eukaryotes.
D. they have organelles.
E. they are found nearly everywhere.
36. All of the following contribute to the rise of emerging diseases, except
A. the decrease in drug resistant bacteria.
B. human encroachment on wild habitats.
C. changes in agricultural practices.
D. populations are more mobile.
37. Which scientist discovered heat resistant bacterial spores?
A. Joseph Lister
B. Ignaz Semmelweis
C. Robert Koch
D. Ferdinand Cohn
E. Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
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38. Which of the following is the correct way to type the scientific name of this bacterium?
A. Staph Aureus
B. Staphylococcus Aureus
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Staphylococcus Aureus
E. S. Aureus
39. Where are you most likely to find bacteria belonging to the domain Archaea?
A. a human's large intestine
B. in a hot spring
C. a pond
D. a sewage treatment plant
E. a beer production facility
40. When microbes are introduced into the environment to restore stability, the process is called
A. bioremediation.
B. genetic engineering.
C. epidemiology.
D. immunology.
E. taxonomy.
41. Which of the following diseases probably involves microbial infection?
A. gastric ulcers
B. female infertility
C. coronary artery disease
D. cervical cancer
E. All of the choices are correct.
42. Cyanide is a chemical used to dissolve gold and is harmful to the environment and organisms living there.
A couple of biochemists came up with the idea of using the bacteria in the genus Pseudomonas to break
down the cyanide used by a gold mining company. This use of bacteria is a good example of ____.
A. Bioremediation
B. Immunology
C. Astromicrobiology
D. British physiology
E. Epidemiology
43. Which of the following branches of Microbiology is utilized in diagnosing or treating someone who is
broken out in hives and experiencing respiratory distress due to an exposure to a microbial toxin?
A. Agricultural Microbiology
B. Epidemiology
C. Biotechnology
D. Immunology
E. Industrial Microbiology
44. Bacteria and fungi are important in bioremediation. These decomposers are also called ___.
A. Strict aerobes
B. Strict anaerobes
C. Saprobes
D. Predators
E. Parasites
45. Members of the same species share many more characteristics compared to those shared by members of
the same kingdom.
True False
A. Staph Aureus
B. Staphylococcus Aureus
C. Staphylococcus aureus
D. Staphylococcus Aureus
E. S. Aureus
39. Where are you most likely to find bacteria belonging to the domain Archaea?
A. a human's large intestine
B. in a hot spring
C. a pond
D. a sewage treatment plant
E. a beer production facility
40. When microbes are introduced into the environment to restore stability, the process is called
A. bioremediation.
B. genetic engineering.
C. epidemiology.
D. immunology.
E. taxonomy.
41. Which of the following diseases probably involves microbial infection?
A. gastric ulcers
B. female infertility
C. coronary artery disease
D. cervical cancer
E. All of the choices are correct.
42. Cyanide is a chemical used to dissolve gold and is harmful to the environment and organisms living there.
A couple of biochemists came up with the idea of using the bacteria in the genus Pseudomonas to break
down the cyanide used by a gold mining company. This use of bacteria is a good example of ____.
A. Bioremediation
B. Immunology
C. Astromicrobiology
D. British physiology
E. Epidemiology
43. Which of the following branches of Microbiology is utilized in diagnosing or treating someone who is
broken out in hives and experiencing respiratory distress due to an exposure to a microbial toxin?
A. Agricultural Microbiology
B. Epidemiology
C. Biotechnology
D. Immunology
E. Industrial Microbiology
44. Bacteria and fungi are important in bioremediation. These decomposers are also called ___.
A. Strict aerobes
B. Strict anaerobes
C. Saprobes
D. Predators
E. Parasites
45. Members of the same species share many more characteristics compared to those shared by members of
the same kingdom.
True False
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46. Viruses are not classified in any of Whittaker's 5 kingdoms.
True False
47. Members of the kingdom Fungi are photosynthetic.
True False
48. A scientist studying helminths is working with bacteria.
True False
49. The fossil record has established that prokaryotes existed on earth for approximately 2 billion years
before eukaryotes appeared.
True False
50. It has been over 25 years since a new infectious disease has emerged in the world.
True False
51. The term sterile means free of all life forms.
True False
52. All microorganisms are parasites.
True False
53. During a scientific experiment, the control group is used to directly test or measure the consequences of a
variable in the study.
True False
54. The scientific method involves formulating a tentative explanation, called the hypothesis, to account for
what has been observed or measured.
True False
55. Once an organism is assigned to a particular taxonomic hierarchy, it is permanent and cannot be revised.
True False
56. A hypothesis must be tested before it can be considered a theory.
True False
57. The names of the three proposed Domains are: Bacteria, Protista, Eukarya.
True False
58. One distinguishing characteristic of the archaebacteria is that they live in extreme environments.
True False
59. The scientific field called _____ is involved in the identification, classification, and naming of organisms.
________________________________________
60. _____ is the area of biology that states that living things undergo gradual structural and functional
changes over long periods of time.
________________________________________
61. Living things ordinarily too small to be seen with the unaided eye are termed _____.
________________________________________
62. _____ are the group of microorganisms composed only of hereditary material wrapped in a protein
covering.
________________________________________
63. A scientist that constructs a hypothesis and then tests its validity by outlining predicted events of the
hypothesis followed by experiments to test for those events is using the _____ approach.
________________________________________
True False
47. Members of the kingdom Fungi are photosynthetic.
True False
48. A scientist studying helminths is working with bacteria.
True False
49. The fossil record has established that prokaryotes existed on earth for approximately 2 billion years
before eukaryotes appeared.
True False
50. It has been over 25 years since a new infectious disease has emerged in the world.
True False
51. The term sterile means free of all life forms.
True False
52. All microorganisms are parasites.
True False
53. During a scientific experiment, the control group is used to directly test or measure the consequences of a
variable in the study.
True False
54. The scientific method involves formulating a tentative explanation, called the hypothesis, to account for
what has been observed or measured.
True False
55. Once an organism is assigned to a particular taxonomic hierarchy, it is permanent and cannot be revised.
True False
56. A hypothesis must be tested before it can be considered a theory.
True False
57. The names of the three proposed Domains are: Bacteria, Protista, Eukarya.
True False
58. One distinguishing characteristic of the archaebacteria is that they live in extreme environments.
True False
59. The scientific field called _____ is involved in the identification, classification, and naming of organisms.
________________________________________
60. _____ is the area of biology that states that living things undergo gradual structural and functional
changes over long periods of time.
________________________________________
61. Living things ordinarily too small to be seen with the unaided eye are termed _____.
________________________________________
62. _____ are the group of microorganisms composed only of hereditary material wrapped in a protein
covering.
________________________________________
63. A scientist that constructs a hypothesis and then tests its validity by outlining predicted events of the
hypothesis followed by experiments to test for those events is using the _____ approach.
________________________________________
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64. Discuss what might be three different beneficial consequences and three different detrimental
consequences of killing all microorganisms on the earth.
65. Discuss five of the reasons why infectious diseases are increasing in number around the world.
66. Describe the experiment that Louis Pasteur did with swan-necked-shaped tubes to disprove spontaneous
generation.
consequences of killing all microorganisms on the earth.
65. Discuss five of the reasons why infectious diseases are increasing in number around the world.
66. Describe the experiment that Louis Pasteur did with swan-necked-shaped tubes to disprove spontaneous
generation.
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ch01 Key
1. C
2. A
3. B
4. B
5. A
6. D
7. C
8. E
9. B
10. C
11. A
12. E
13. B
14. C
15. D
16. E
17. B
18. D
19. A
20. B
21. B
22. D
23. A
24. B
25. A
26. C
27. B
28. E
29. C
30. B
31. A
32. A
33. A
34. C
35. D
36. A
1. C
2. A
3. B
4. B
5. A
6. D
7. C
8. E
9. B
10. C
11. A
12. E
13. B
14. C
15. D
16. E
17. B
18. D
19. A
20. B
21. B
22. D
23. A
24. B
25. A
26. C
27. B
28. E
29. C
30. B
31. A
32. A
33. A
34. C
35. D
36. A
Loading page 10...
37. D
38. C
39. B
40. A
41. E
42. A
43. D
44. C
45. TRUE
46. TRUE
47. FALSE
48. FALSE
49. TRUE
50. FALSE
51. TRUE
52. FALSE
53. FALSE
54. TRUE
55. FALSE
56. TRUE
57. FALSE
58. TRUE
59. taxonomy
60. Evolution
61. microorganisms
62. Viruses
63. deductive
64.
65.
66.
38. C
39. B
40. A
41. E
42. A
43. D
44. C
45. TRUE
46. TRUE
47. FALSE
48. FALSE
49. TRUE
50. FALSE
51. TRUE
52. FALSE
53. FALSE
54. TRUE
55. FALSE
56. TRUE
57. FALSE
58. TRUE
59. taxonomy
60. Evolution
61. microorganisms
62. Viruses
63. deductive
64.
65.
66.
Loading page 11...
ch01 Summary
Category # of Questions
ASM Objective: 01.01 Cells, organelles (e.g., mitochondria and chloroplasts) and all major metabolic pathways evolved from early
prokaryotic cells.
1
ASM Objective: 01.04 The traditional concept of species is not readily applicable to microbes due to asexual reproduction and the
frequent occurrence of horizontal gene transfer.
1
ASM Objective: 01.05 The evolutionary relatedness of organisms is best reflected in phylogenetic trees. 18
ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including brig
ht field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron).
5
ASM Objective: 02.02 Bacteria have unique cell structures that can be targets for antibiotics, immunity, and phage infection. 1
ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critic
al capabilities.
2
ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same process
es as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different.
6
ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their uniq
ue structures and genomes.
2
ASM Objective: 03.01 Bacteria and Archaea exhibit extensive, and often unique, metabolic diversity (e.g., nitrogen fixation, metha
ne production, anoxygenic photosynthesis).
2
ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their
metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations).
5
ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteris
tics.
1
ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. 3
ASM Objective: 04.04 The synthesis of viral genetic material and proteins is dependent on host cells. 1
ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. 1
ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems. 3
ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. 5
ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral
or detrimental ways.
16
ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cyc
les and plant and/or animal microflora).
3
ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. 4
ASM Objective: 07.01a Ability to apply the process of science: Demonstrate an ability to formulate hypotheses and design experi
ments based on the scientific method.
6
ASM Objective: 07.01b Ability to apply the process of science: Analyze and interpret results from a variety of microbiological met
hods and apply these methods to analogous situations.
1
ASM Objective: 07.03a Ability to communicate and collaborate with other disciplines: Effectively communicate fundamental conc
epts of microbiology in written and oral format.
2
ASM Objective: 08.01 Properly prepare and view specimens for examination using microscopy (bright field and, if possible, phase
contrast).
2
ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). 1
ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution 19
ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function 12
ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways 9
ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow 1
ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems 22
ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms 7
ASM Topic: Module 07 Scientific Thinking 9
ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills 3
General Viral Properties 1
Learning Outcome: 01.01 Define microbiology and microorganisms, and identify the major organisms included in the science of m
icrobiology.
11
Learning Outcome: 01.02 Name and define the primary areas included in microbiological studies. 4
Learning Outcome: 01.03 Describe the basic characteristics of prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic cells and their evolutionary origins. 4
Learning Outcome: 01.04 State several ways that microbes are involved in the earths ecosystems. 6
Learning Outcome: 01.05 Describe the cellular makeup of microorganisms and their size range, and indicate how viruses differ fro
m cellular microbes.
4
Learning Outcome: 01.06 Discuss the ways microorganisms can be used to create solutions for environmental problems and indust
rial products.
5
Category # of Questions
ASM Objective: 01.01 Cells, organelles (e.g., mitochondria and chloroplasts) and all major metabolic pathways evolved from early
prokaryotic cells.
1
ASM Objective: 01.04 The traditional concept of species is not readily applicable to microbes due to asexual reproduction and the
frequent occurrence of horizontal gene transfer.
1
ASM Objective: 01.05 The evolutionary relatedness of organisms is best reflected in phylogenetic trees. 18
ASM Objective: 02.01 The structure and function of microorganisms have been revealed by the use of microscopy (including brig
ht field, phase contrast, fluorescent, and electron).
5
ASM Objective: 02.02 Bacteria have unique cell structures that can be targets for antibiotics, immunity, and phage infection. 1
ASM Objective: 02.03 Bacteria and Archaea have specialized structures (e.g., flagella, endospores, and pili) that often confer critic
al capabilities.
2
ASM Objective: 02.04 While microscopic eukaryotes (for example, fungi, protozoa, and algae) carry out some of the same process
es as bacteria, many of the cellular properties are fundamentally different.
6
ASM Objective: 02.05 The replication cycles of viruses (lytic and lysogenic) differ among viruses and are determined by their uniq
ue structures and genomes.
2
ASM Objective: 03.01 Bacteria and Archaea exhibit extensive, and often unique, metabolic diversity (e.g., nitrogen fixation, metha
ne production, anoxygenic photosynthesis).
2
ASM Objective: 03.02 The interactions of microorganisms among themselves and with their environment are determined by their
metabolic abilities (e.g., quorum sensing, oxygen consumption, nitrogen transformations).
5
ASM Objective: 03.03 The survival and growth of any microorganism in a given environment depends on its metabolic characteris
tics.
1
ASM Objective: 03.04 The growth of microorganisms can be controlled by physical, chemical, mechanical, or biological means. 3
ASM Objective: 04.04 The synthesis of viral genetic material and proteins is dependent on host cells. 1
ASM Objective: 04.05 Cell genomes can be manipulated to alter cell function. 1
ASM Objective: 05.01 Microorganisms are ubiquitous and live in diverse and dynamic ecosystems. 3
ASM Objective: 05.03 Microorganisms and their environment interact with and modify each other. 5
ASM Objective: 05.04 Microorganisms, cellular and viral, can interact with both human and nonhuman hosts in beneficial, neutral
or detrimental ways.
16
ASM Objective: 06.01 Microbes are essential for life as we know it and the processes that support life (e.g., in biogeochemical cyc
les and plant and/or animal microflora).
3
ASM Objective: 06.03 Humans utilize and harness microorganisms and their products. 4
ASM Objective: 07.01a Ability to apply the process of science: Demonstrate an ability to formulate hypotheses and design experi
ments based on the scientific method.
6
ASM Objective: 07.01b Ability to apply the process of science: Analyze and interpret results from a variety of microbiological met
hods and apply these methods to analogous situations.
1
ASM Objective: 07.03a Ability to communicate and collaborate with other disciplines: Effectively communicate fundamental conc
epts of microbiology in written and oral format.
2
ASM Objective: 08.01 Properly prepare and view specimens for examination using microscopy (bright field and, if possible, phase
contrast).
2
ASM Objective: 08.03 Use appropriate methods to identify microorganisms (media-based, molecular and serological). 1
ASM Topic: Module 01 Evolution 19
ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function 12
ASM Topic: Module 03 Metabolic Pathways 9
ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow 1
ASM Topic: Module 05 Systems 22
ASM Topic: Module 06 Impact of Microorganisms 7
ASM Topic: Module 07 Scientific Thinking 9
ASM Topic: Module 08 Microbiology Skills 3
General Viral Properties 1
Learning Outcome: 01.01 Define microbiology and microorganisms, and identify the major organisms included in the science of m
icrobiology.
11
Learning Outcome: 01.02 Name and define the primary areas included in microbiological studies. 4
Learning Outcome: 01.03 Describe the basic characteristics of prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic cells and their evolutionary origins. 4
Learning Outcome: 01.04 State several ways that microbes are involved in the earths ecosystems. 6
Learning Outcome: 01.05 Describe the cellular makeup of microorganisms and their size range, and indicate how viruses differ fro
m cellular microbes.
4
Learning Outcome: 01.06 Discuss the ways microorganisms can be used to create solutions for environmental problems and indust
rial products.
5
Loading page 12...
Learning Outcome: 01.07 Review the roles of microorganisms as parasites and pathogens that cause infection and disease. 9
Learning Outcome: 01.08 Define what is meant by emerging and reemerging diseases. 3
Learning Outcome: 01.09 Outline the major events in the history of microbiology, including the major contributors to the early dev
elopment of microscopy, medical advances, aseptic techniques, and the germ theory of disease.
8
Learning Outcome: 01.10 Explain the main features of the scientific method, and differentiate between inductive and deductive rea
soning and between hypothesis and theory.
6
Learning Outcome: 01.11 Define taxonomy and its supporting terms classification, nomenclature, and identification. 4
Learning Outcome: 01.12 Explain how the levels of a taxonomic scheme relate to each other. Give the names of the levels, and pla
ce them in a hierarchy.
6
Learning Outcome: 01.13 Describe the goals of nomenclature and how the binomial system is structured. Know how to correctly w
rite a scientific name.
5
Learning Outcome: 01.14 Discuss the fundamentals of evolution, evidence used to verify evolutionary trends, and its use in studyi
ng organisms.
4
Learning Outcome: 01.15 Explain the concepts behind the organization of the two main trees of life, and indicate where the major
groups of microorganisms fall on these trees.
4
Learning Outcome: 01.16 Explain the bases for classification, taxonomy, and nomenclature. 5
Learning Outcome: 01.17 Recall the order of taxa and the system of notation used in creating scientific name 1
Talaro - Chapter 01 66
Topic: Basics of Genetic Engineering 1
Topic: Cellular Organization 2
Topic: Epidemiology 2
Topic: Food Microbiology 1
Topic: Helminths 2
Topic: History of Microbiology 13
Topic: Hypersensitivities 1
Topic: Microbial Roles 21
Topic: Recombinant DNA Technology 1
Topic: Taxonomy of Microorganisms 27
Topic: Viral structure 1
Learning Outcome: 01.08 Define what is meant by emerging and reemerging diseases. 3
Learning Outcome: 01.09 Outline the major events in the history of microbiology, including the major contributors to the early dev
elopment of microscopy, medical advances, aseptic techniques, and the germ theory of disease.
8
Learning Outcome: 01.10 Explain the main features of the scientific method, and differentiate between inductive and deductive rea
soning and between hypothesis and theory.
6
Learning Outcome: 01.11 Define taxonomy and its supporting terms classification, nomenclature, and identification. 4
Learning Outcome: 01.12 Explain how the levels of a taxonomic scheme relate to each other. Give the names of the levels, and pla
ce them in a hierarchy.
6
Learning Outcome: 01.13 Describe the goals of nomenclature and how the binomial system is structured. Know how to correctly w
rite a scientific name.
5
Learning Outcome: 01.14 Discuss the fundamentals of evolution, evidence used to verify evolutionary trends, and its use in studyi
ng organisms.
4
Learning Outcome: 01.15 Explain the concepts behind the organization of the two main trees of life, and indicate where the major
groups of microorganisms fall on these trees.
4
Learning Outcome: 01.16 Explain the bases for classification, taxonomy, and nomenclature. 5
Learning Outcome: 01.17 Recall the order of taxa and the system of notation used in creating scientific name 1
Talaro - Chapter 01 66
Topic: Basics of Genetic Engineering 1
Topic: Cellular Organization 2
Topic: Epidemiology 2
Topic: Food Microbiology 1
Topic: Helminths 2
Topic: History of Microbiology 13
Topic: Hypersensitivities 1
Topic: Microbial Roles 21
Topic: Recombinant DNA Technology 1
Topic: Taxonomy of Microorganisms 27
Topic: Viral structure 1
Loading page 13...
ch02
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. Anything that occupies space and has mass is called
A. an electron.
B. living.
C. matter.
D. energy.
E. space.
2. The electrons of an atom are
A. always equal to the number of neutrons in an atom.
B. found in the nucleus.
C. used to determine atomic number.
D. positively charged.
E. moving in pathways called orbitals.
3. All of the following pertain to 146C except it
A. has 6 protons.
B. has 6 electrons.
C. has 14 neutrons.
D. is an isotope of carbon.
E. mass number is 14.
4. The subatomic particles that surround the nucleus are the
A. electrons.
B. protons.
C. neutrons.
D. protons and neutrons.
E. protons and electrons.
5. Cations are
A. charged subatomic particles.
B. atoms that have gained electrons.
C. radioactive isotopes.
D. capable of forming ionic bonds with anions.
E. atoms without protons.
6. Isotopes are atoms of the same element that differ in their
A. neutron number.
B. electron number.
C. proton number.
D. atomic number.
E. chemical properties.
7. What is the maximum number of electrons in the second energy shell of an atom?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 18
E. 32
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. Anything that occupies space and has mass is called
A. an electron.
B. living.
C. matter.
D. energy.
E. space.
2. The electrons of an atom are
A. always equal to the number of neutrons in an atom.
B. found in the nucleus.
C. used to determine atomic number.
D. positively charged.
E. moving in pathways called orbitals.
3. All of the following pertain to 146C except it
A. has 6 protons.
B. has 6 electrons.
C. has 14 neutrons.
D. is an isotope of carbon.
E. mass number is 14.
4. The subatomic particles that surround the nucleus are the
A. electrons.
B. protons.
C. neutrons.
D. protons and neutrons.
E. protons and electrons.
5. Cations are
A. charged subatomic particles.
B. atoms that have gained electrons.
C. radioactive isotopes.
D. capable of forming ionic bonds with anions.
E. atoms without protons.
6. Isotopes are atoms of the same element that differ in their
A. neutron number.
B. electron number.
C. proton number.
D. atomic number.
E. chemical properties.
7. What is the maximum number of electrons in the second energy shell of an atom?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 18
E. 32
Loading page 14...
8. Two or more atoms bonded together are called a/an
A. ion.
B. isotope.
C. element.
D. electrolyte.
E. molecule.
9. What would be the valence number of electrons in the sulfur atom 3216S?
A. 2
B. 6
C. 8
D. 16
E. 32
10. Polar molecules are composed of covalently bonded
A. identical atoms.
B. carbon atoms.
C. ions.
D. atoms of different electronegativity.
E. atoms of identical electronegativity.
11. Reactions involving electron release are called ______ reactions.
A. oxidation.
B. reduction.
C. ionization.
D. decomposition.
E. dissolution.
12. Which of the following represents a synthesis reaction?
A. AB → A + B
B. A + B → AB
C. AB + XY → AX +
BY
D. AB + XY ↔ AX + BY
E. None of the choices are correct.
13. The important solvent associated with living things is
A. carbon dioxide.
B. sodium chloride.
C. ethyl alcohol.
D. benzene.
E. water.
14. Which term does not belong in this list?
A. lactic acid
B. vinegar
C. hydrogen ion donor
D. pH 8
E. acidic
15. A solution of pH 7 compared to a solution of pH 9
A. is more basic.
B. has no OH- ions.
C. has more H+ ions.
D. has a higher pH.
E. All of the choices are correct.
A. ion.
B. isotope.
C. element.
D. electrolyte.
E. molecule.
9. What would be the valence number of electrons in the sulfur atom 3216S?
A. 2
B. 6
C. 8
D. 16
E. 32
10. Polar molecules are composed of covalently bonded
A. identical atoms.
B. carbon atoms.
C. ions.
D. atoms of different electronegativity.
E. atoms of identical electronegativity.
11. Reactions involving electron release are called ______ reactions.
A. oxidation.
B. reduction.
C. ionization.
D. decomposition.
E. dissolution.
12. Which of the following represents a synthesis reaction?
A. AB → A + B
B. A + B → AB
C. AB + XY → AX +
BY
D. AB + XY ↔ AX + BY
E. None of the choices are correct.
13. The important solvent associated with living things is
A. carbon dioxide.
B. sodium chloride.
C. ethyl alcohol.
D. benzene.
E. water.
14. Which term does not belong in this list?
A. lactic acid
B. vinegar
C. hydrogen ion donor
D. pH 8
E. acidic
15. A solution of pH 7 compared to a solution of pH 9
A. is more basic.
B. has no OH- ions.
C. has more H+ ions.
D. has a higher pH.
E. All of the choices are correct.
Loading page 15...
16. What do H2O, NaCl, CO2, and HCl all have in common?
A. all are salts
B. all are acids
C. all are gases
D. all are inorganic
E. all are solutes
17. Which of the following functional groups is mismatched to the organic compound?
A. phosphate - carbohydrates
B. sulfhydryl - proteins
C. amino - proteins
D. hydroxyl - alcohols
E. carboxyl - fatty acids
18. The building blocks of an enzyme are
A. nucleotides.
B. glycerol and fatty acids.
C. monosaccharides.
D. phosphate, glycerol, fatty acids.
E. amino acids.
19. All of the following are monosaccharides except
A. glucose.
B. glycogen.
C. fructose.
D. ribose.
E. deoxyribose.
20. All of the following are lipids except:
A. cholesterol
B. starch
C. phospholipid
D. wax
E. triglyceride
21. A monosaccharide with 5 carbon atoms will have _____ hydrogen atoms and _____ oxygen atoms.
A. 10, 5
B. 5, 10
C. 5, 5
D. 10, 10
E. 2, 1
22. One nucleotide contains
A. one phosphate.
B. one pentose.
C. one nitrogen base.
D. All of the choices are correct.
E. None of the choices are correct.
23. Which of the following would have glycosidic bonds?
A. triglycerides
B. monosaccharides
C. polypeptides
D. polysaccharides
E. ATP
A. all are salts
B. all are acids
C. all are gases
D. all are inorganic
E. all are solutes
17. Which of the following functional groups is mismatched to the organic compound?
A. phosphate - carbohydrates
B. sulfhydryl - proteins
C. amino - proteins
D. hydroxyl - alcohols
E. carboxyl - fatty acids
18. The building blocks of an enzyme are
A. nucleotides.
B. glycerol and fatty acids.
C. monosaccharides.
D. phosphate, glycerol, fatty acids.
E. amino acids.
19. All of the following are monosaccharides except
A. glucose.
B. glycogen.
C. fructose.
D. ribose.
E. deoxyribose.
20. All of the following are lipids except:
A. cholesterol
B. starch
C. phospholipid
D. wax
E. triglyceride
21. A monosaccharide with 5 carbon atoms will have _____ hydrogen atoms and _____ oxygen atoms.
A. 10, 5
B. 5, 10
C. 5, 5
D. 10, 10
E. 2, 1
22. One nucleotide contains
A. one phosphate.
B. one pentose.
C. one nitrogen base.
D. All of the choices are correct.
E. None of the choices are correct.
23. Which of the following would have glycosidic bonds?
A. triglycerides
B. monosaccharides
C. polypeptides
D. polysaccharides
E. ATP
Loading page 16...
24. All of the following are polysaccharides, except:
A. dextran in some bacterial slime layers
B. agar used to make solid culture media
C. a cell's glycocalyx
D. cellulose in certain cell walls
E. prostaglandins in inflammation
25. What part of a phospholipid forms hydrophobic tails?
A. fatty acids
B. glycerol
C. phosphate
D. alcohol
E. All of the choices are correct.
26. An amino acid contains all of the following except:
A.
an amino group
B. a carboxyl group
C. a variable R group
D. a carbon atom
E. a nitrogenous base
27. Which pertains to DNA but not to RNA?
A. contains ribose
B. contains adenine
C. contains thymine
D. contains uracil
E. contains nucleotides
28. ATP is best described as
A. an enzyme.
B. a double helix.
C. an electron carrier.
D. the energy molecule of cells.
E. All of the choices are correct.
29. Which is not true about enzymes?
A. found in all cells
B. are catalysts
C. participate in the cell's chemical reactions
D. can be denaturated by heat and other agents
E. have high-energy bonds between phosphates
30. Which amino acid contains sulfur atoms that form covalent disulfide bonds in its tertiary structure?
A. valine
B. cysteine
C. serine
D. alanine
E. tyrosine
31. The nucleic acid that delivers the correct amino acid for protein synthesis is
A. rRNA.
B. DNA.
C. tRNA.
D. mRNA.
E. ATP.
A. dextran in some bacterial slime layers
B. agar used to make solid culture media
C. a cell's glycocalyx
D. cellulose in certain cell walls
E. prostaglandins in inflammation
25. What part of a phospholipid forms hydrophobic tails?
A. fatty acids
B. glycerol
C. phosphate
D. alcohol
E. All of the choices are correct.
26. An amino acid contains all of the following except:
A.
an amino group
B. a carboxyl group
C. a variable R group
D. a carbon atom
E. a nitrogenous base
27. Which pertains to DNA but not to RNA?
A. contains ribose
B. contains adenine
C. contains thymine
D. contains uracil
E. contains nucleotides
28. ATP is best described as
A. an enzyme.
B. a double helix.
C. an electron carrier.
D. the energy molecule of cells.
E. All of the choices are correct.
29. Which is not true about enzymes?
A. found in all cells
B. are catalysts
C. participate in the cell's chemical reactions
D. can be denaturated by heat and other agents
E. have high-energy bonds between phosphates
30. Which amino acid contains sulfur atoms that form covalent disulfide bonds in its tertiary structure?
A. valine
B. cysteine
C. serine
D. alanine
E. tyrosine
31. The nucleic acid that delivers the correct amino acid for protein synthesis is
A. rRNA.
B. DNA.
C. tRNA.
D. mRNA.
E. ATP.
Loading page 17...
32. The purine bases in nucleic acids include
A. thymine and cytosine.
B. guanine and adenine.
C. cytosine and guanine.
D. adenine and thymine.
E. ribose and deoxyribose.
33. A weak, attractive force between nearby molecules is called a/an
A. hydrogen bond.
B. covalent bond.
C. ionic bond.
D. peptide bond.
E. glycosidic bond.
34. A student forgot to label a beaker containing a DNA solution and a beaker containing a glucose solution.
If chemical analysis was performed to identify the contents of each beaker, which of the following would
be found in the beaker of DNA but not in the beaker with glucose?
A. amino acids
B. hydrogen and oxygen atoms
C. nitrogen and phosphorus
D. fatty acids
E. carbon atoms
35. C6H12O6 + C6H12O6→ C12 H22O11 + H2O represents
A. formation of a peptide bond.
B. a decomposition reaction.
C. denaturation.
D. formation of a polysaccharide.
E. dehydration synthesis.
36. The atomic number equals the number of __________ an atom possesses.
A. neutrons
B. protons
C. protons plus electrons
D. neutrons plus protons
E. electrons plus protons
37. If carbon has an atomic number of 6 and an atomic mass of 14, how many neutrons does it have?
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 14
E. impossible to determine
38. The neutrons of an atom are
A. always equal to the number of protons in an atom.
B. found in the nucleus.
C. used to determine atomic number.
D. positively charged.
E. moving in pathways called orbitals.
39. Which of the following represents an exchange reaction?
A. AB → A + B
B. A + B → AB
C. X + Y → XYD
D. AB + XY ↔ AX + BY
E. None of the choices are correct.
A. thymine and cytosine.
B. guanine and adenine.
C. cytosine and guanine.
D. adenine and thymine.
E. ribose and deoxyribose.
33. A weak, attractive force between nearby molecules is called a/an
A. hydrogen bond.
B. covalent bond.
C. ionic bond.
D. peptide bond.
E. glycosidic bond.
34. A student forgot to label a beaker containing a DNA solution and a beaker containing a glucose solution.
If chemical analysis was performed to identify the contents of each beaker, which of the following would
be found in the beaker of DNA but not in the beaker with glucose?
A. amino acids
B. hydrogen and oxygen atoms
C. nitrogen and phosphorus
D. fatty acids
E. carbon atoms
35. C6H12O6 + C6H12O6→ C12 H22O11 + H2O represents
A. formation of a peptide bond.
B. a decomposition reaction.
C. denaturation.
D. formation of a polysaccharide.
E. dehydration synthesis.
36. The atomic number equals the number of __________ an atom possesses.
A. neutrons
B. protons
C. protons plus electrons
D. neutrons plus protons
E. electrons plus protons
37. If carbon has an atomic number of 6 and an atomic mass of 14, how many neutrons does it have?
A. 6
B. 7
C. 8
D. 14
E. impossible to determine
38. The neutrons of an atom are
A. always equal to the number of protons in an atom.
B. found in the nucleus.
C. used to determine atomic number.
D. positively charged.
E. moving in pathways called orbitals.
39. Which of the following represents an exchange reaction?
A. AB → A + B
B. A + B → AB
C. X + Y → XYD
D. AB + XY ↔ AX + BY
E. None of the choices are correct.
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40. Jim needs to prepare one liter of a 4% NaCl solution. How much NaCl should he weigh out?
A. 0.4 grams
B. 4.0 grams
C. 40 grams
D. 400 grams
E. None of the choices are correct.
41. How many times more acidic is a solution with a pH of 3 than a solution with a pH of 6?
A. 3
B. 10
C. 1000
D. 36
E. 63
42. Which of the following carbohydrates is found in dairy products?
A. lactose
B. sucrose
C. maltose
D. glucose
E. fructose
43. Which of the following is the stored form of carbohydrates in animals?
A. glycogen
B. maltose
C. starch
D. cellulose
E. galactose
44. All of the following are correct about triglycerides, except:
A. they are insoluble in water
B. they are a concentrated source of energy
C. when they are unsaturated they are solid
D. they dissolve in nonpolar solvents
E. they are digested by lipases
45. The type of chemical bond linking amino acids together is a(n):
A. glycosidic bond
B. peptide bond
C. ester bond
D. ionic bond
E. hydrogen bond
46. The alpha helix and beta pleated sheet are examples of:
A. primary structures
B. secondary structures
C. tertiary structures
D. quaternary structures
E. gamma structures
47. The polynucleotide strands of DNA are linked along their length by __________ bonds between the
bases.
A. covalent
B. ionic
C. Van der Waals
D. double
E. hydrogen
A. 0.4 grams
B. 4.0 grams
C. 40 grams
D. 400 grams
E. None of the choices are correct.
41. How many times more acidic is a solution with a pH of 3 than a solution with a pH of 6?
A. 3
B. 10
C. 1000
D. 36
E. 63
42. Which of the following carbohydrates is found in dairy products?
A. lactose
B. sucrose
C. maltose
D. glucose
E. fructose
43. Which of the following is the stored form of carbohydrates in animals?
A. glycogen
B. maltose
C. starch
D. cellulose
E. galactose
44. All of the following are correct about triglycerides, except:
A. they are insoluble in water
B. they are a concentrated source of energy
C. when they are unsaturated they are solid
D. they dissolve in nonpolar solvents
E. they are digested by lipases
45. The type of chemical bond linking amino acids together is a(n):
A. glycosidic bond
B. peptide bond
C. ester bond
D. ionic bond
E. hydrogen bond
46. The alpha helix and beta pleated sheet are examples of:
A. primary structures
B. secondary structures
C. tertiary structures
D. quaternary structures
E. gamma structures
47. The polynucleotide strands of DNA are linked along their length by __________ bonds between the
bases.
A. covalent
B. ionic
C. Van der Waals
D. double
E. hydrogen
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48. Which of the following examples are NOT hydrophobic?
A. Glucose
B. Vegetable oil
C. Butter
D. Cholesterol
E. Choices B, C, and D are correct
49. A covalent bond is formed between an anion and a cation.
True False
50. Electrons that participate in chemical bonding are typically located closest to the nucleus.
True False
51. Only charged atoms can form ionic bonds.
True False
52. Water molecules are nonpolar molecules.
True False
53. Polar molecules have more reactivity compared to nonpolar molecules.
True False
54. Elements have predictable chemical properties.
True False
55. The concentration of a solution expresses the amount of solvent present.
True False
56. If solution A has a lower pH compared to solution B, then solution A is more acidic than solution B.
True False
57. The only part of an amino acid that differs from other amino acids is its R group.
True False
58. All proteins are enzymes.
True False
59. Replication is the cellular mechanism for making a copy of its DNA.
True False
60. Nucleic acids have primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary levels of organization.
True False
61. The total number of protons and neutrons of an element establishes its _____ number.
________________________________________
62. Atoms that gain or lose electrons become charged particles called _____.
________________________________________
63. Protons and neutrons make up the atom's central core referred to as its _____.
________________________________________
64. A solution is composed of one or more substances called _____ that are uniformly dispersed in a
dissolving medium called a _____.
________________________________________
65. Organic chemicals always have a basic framework of the element _____ bonded to other atoms.
________________________________________
66. _____ bonds are formed by dehydration synthesis between adjacent amino acids.
________________________________________
A. Glucose
B. Vegetable oil
C. Butter
D. Cholesterol
E. Choices B, C, and D are correct
49. A covalent bond is formed between an anion and a cation.
True False
50. Electrons that participate in chemical bonding are typically located closest to the nucleus.
True False
51. Only charged atoms can form ionic bonds.
True False
52. Water molecules are nonpolar molecules.
True False
53. Polar molecules have more reactivity compared to nonpolar molecules.
True False
54. Elements have predictable chemical properties.
True False
55. The concentration of a solution expresses the amount of solvent present.
True False
56. If solution A has a lower pH compared to solution B, then solution A is more acidic than solution B.
True False
57. The only part of an amino acid that differs from other amino acids is its R group.
True False
58. All proteins are enzymes.
True False
59. Replication is the cellular mechanism for making a copy of its DNA.
True False
60. Nucleic acids have primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary levels of organization.
True False
61. The total number of protons and neutrons of an element establishes its _____ number.
________________________________________
62. Atoms that gain or lose electrons become charged particles called _____.
________________________________________
63. Protons and neutrons make up the atom's central core referred to as its _____.
________________________________________
64. A solution is composed of one or more substances called _____ that are uniformly dispersed in a
dissolving medium called a _____.
________________________________________
65. Organic chemicals always have a basic framework of the element _____ bonded to other atoms.
________________________________________
66. _____ bonds are formed by dehydration synthesis between adjacent amino acids.
________________________________________
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67. A fat is called _____ if all carbons of the fatty acid chain are single bonded to 2 other carbons and 2
hydrogens.
________________________________________
68. Purines and pyrimidines are components in the building block units of all _____.
________________________________________
69. During protein synthesis, _____ RNA is made to be a copy of a gene from the DNA.
________________________________________
70. In _____ reproduction, offspring arise from the division of a single parent cell into two identical progeny
cells.
________________________________________
71. Certain antibiotics are effective against bacteria that cause human infections because they target
prokaryotic ribosomes. Discuss, in detail, how the drug attacking a pathogen's ribosomes will affect the
cell. Discuss at least 3 specific detrimental results.
72. Explain what radioisotopes are, and describe how they can be used to monitor the uptake of a specific
biochemical by a microbial culture.
73. Compare and contrast the chemical and functional characteristics of DNA and RNA molecules.
hydrogens.
________________________________________
68. Purines and pyrimidines are components in the building block units of all _____.
________________________________________
69. During protein synthesis, _____ RNA is made to be a copy of a gene from the DNA.
________________________________________
70. In _____ reproduction, offspring arise from the division of a single parent cell into two identical progeny
cells.
________________________________________
71. Certain antibiotics are effective against bacteria that cause human infections because they target
prokaryotic ribosomes. Discuss, in detail, how the drug attacking a pathogen's ribosomes will affect the
cell. Discuss at least 3 specific detrimental results.
72. Explain what radioisotopes are, and describe how they can be used to monitor the uptake of a specific
biochemical by a microbial culture.
73. Compare and contrast the chemical and functional characteristics of DNA and RNA molecules.
Loading page 21...
74. Identify and provide specific examples of the classes of macromolecules that are associated with life.
Loading page 22...
ch02 Key
1. C
2. E
3. C
4. A
5. D
6. A
7. C
8. E
9. B
10. D
11. A
12. B
13. E
14. D
15. C
16. D
17. A
18. E
19. B
20. B
21. A
22. D
23. D
24. E
25. A
26. E
27. C
28. D
29. E
30. B
31. C
32. B
33. A
34. C
35. E
36. B
1. C
2. E
3. C
4. A
5. D
6. A
7. C
8. E
9. B
10. D
11. A
12. B
13. E
14. D
15. C
16. D
17. A
18. E
19. B
20. B
21. A
22. D
23. D
24. E
25. A
26. E
27. C
28. D
29. E
30. B
31. C
32. B
33. A
34. C
35. E
36. B
Loading page 23...
37. C
38. B
39. D
40. C
41. C
42. A
43. A
44. C
45. B
46. B
47. E
48. A
49. FALSE
50. FALSE
51. TRUE
52. FALSE
53. TRUE
54. TRUE
55. FALSE
56. TRUE
57. TRUE
58. FALSE
59. TRUE
60. FALSE
61. mass
62. ions
63. nucleus
64. solutes or solvent
65. carbon
66. Peptide
67. saturated
68. nucleic acids
69. messenger
70. asexual
71.
72.
73.
74.
38. B
39. D
40. C
41. C
42. A
43. A
44. C
45. B
46. B
47. E
48. A
49. FALSE
50. FALSE
51. TRUE
52. FALSE
53. TRUE
54. TRUE
55. FALSE
56. TRUE
57. TRUE
58. FALSE
59. TRUE
60. FALSE
61. mass
62. ions
63. nucleus
64. solutes or solvent
65. carbon
66. Peptide
67. saturated
68. nucleic acids
69. messenger
70. asexual
71.
72.
73.
74.
Loading page 24...
Loading page 25...
ch02 Summary
Category # of Questions
ASM Objective: 02.02 Bacteria have unique cell structures that can be targets for antibiotics, immunity, and phage infection. 1
ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translatio
n differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes.
6
ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function 72
ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow 7
Learning Outcome: 02.01 Describe the properties of atoms and identify the relationships of the particles that they contain. 7
Learning Outcome: 02.02 Characterize elements and their isotopes. 4
Learning Outcome: 02.03 Explain the differences between atomic number, mass number, and atomic weight. 3
Learning Outcome: 02.04 List the major elements that are associated with life. 1
Learning Outcome: 02.05 Describe electron orbitals and energy shells and how they are filled. 4
Learning Outcome: 02.06 Explain how elements make chemical bonds to form molecules and compounds. 5
Learning Outcome: 02.07 State the relationship among an atom, molecule, and compound. 1
Learning Outcome: 02.08 Identify the differences between covalent, ionic, and hydrogen bonds. 4
Learning Outcome: 02.09 Summarize the concepts of valence, polarity, and diatomic elements. 6
Learning Outcome: 02.10 Describe ionization and distinguish between anions and cations. 4
Learning Outcome: 02.11 Compare oxidation and reduction and their effects. 1
Learning Outcome: 02.12 Classify different forms of chemical shorthand and types of reactions. 3
Learning Outcome: 02.13 Explain solutes, solvents, and hydration. 4
Learning Outcome: 02.14 Differentiate between hydrophilic and hydrophobic. 1
Learning Outcome: 02.15 Describe the pH scale and how it was derived; define acid, base, and neutral levels. 4
Learning Outcome: 02.16 Describe the chemistry of carbon and the difference between inorganic and organic compounds. 3
Learning Outcome: 02.17 Identify functional groups and know some examples. 1
Learning Outcome: 02.18 Define what macromolecules, polymers, and monomers are. 3
Learning Outcome: 02.19 Define carbohydrate and know the functional groups that characterize carbohydrates. 5
Learning Outcome: 02.20 Distinguish among mono-, di-, and polysaccharides, and describe how their bonds are made. 7
Learning Outcome: 02.21 Discuss the functions of carbohydrates in cells. 3
Learning Outcome: 02.22 Define lipid, triglyceride, phospholipid, fatty acid, and cholesterol. 4
Learning Outcome: 02.24 Discuss major functions of lipids in cells. 3
Learning Outcome: 02.25 Describe the structure of peptides and polypeptides and how their bonds form. 8
Learning Outcome: 02.26 Characterize the four levels of protein structure and describe the pattern of folding. 4
Learning Outcome: 02.27 Summarize some of the essential functions of proteins. 3
Learning Outcome: 02.28 Identify a nucleic acid and differentiate between DNA and RNA. 5
Learning Outcome: 02.29 Describe the structures of nucleotides and list the nitrogen bases. 7
Learning Outcome: 02.30 Explain how the DNA code may be copied, and describe the basic functions of RNA. 5
Talaro - Chapter 02 74
Topic: Basic Chemistry 37
Topic: Biochemistry 39
Category # of Questions
ASM Objective: 02.02 Bacteria have unique cell structures that can be targets for antibiotics, immunity, and phage infection. 1
ASM Objective: 04.02 Although the central dogma is universal in all cells, the processes of replication, transcription, and translatio
n differ in Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukaryotes.
6
ASM Topic: Module 02 Structure and Function 72
ASM Topic: Module 04 Information Flow 7
Learning Outcome: 02.01 Describe the properties of atoms and identify the relationships of the particles that they contain. 7
Learning Outcome: 02.02 Characterize elements and their isotopes. 4
Learning Outcome: 02.03 Explain the differences between atomic number, mass number, and atomic weight. 3
Learning Outcome: 02.04 List the major elements that are associated with life. 1
Learning Outcome: 02.05 Describe electron orbitals and energy shells and how they are filled. 4
Learning Outcome: 02.06 Explain how elements make chemical bonds to form molecules and compounds. 5
Learning Outcome: 02.07 State the relationship among an atom, molecule, and compound. 1
Learning Outcome: 02.08 Identify the differences between covalent, ionic, and hydrogen bonds. 4
Learning Outcome: 02.09 Summarize the concepts of valence, polarity, and diatomic elements. 6
Learning Outcome: 02.10 Describe ionization and distinguish between anions and cations. 4
Learning Outcome: 02.11 Compare oxidation and reduction and their effects. 1
Learning Outcome: 02.12 Classify different forms of chemical shorthand and types of reactions. 3
Learning Outcome: 02.13 Explain solutes, solvents, and hydration. 4
Learning Outcome: 02.14 Differentiate between hydrophilic and hydrophobic. 1
Learning Outcome: 02.15 Describe the pH scale and how it was derived; define acid, base, and neutral levels. 4
Learning Outcome: 02.16 Describe the chemistry of carbon and the difference between inorganic and organic compounds. 3
Learning Outcome: 02.17 Identify functional groups and know some examples. 1
Learning Outcome: 02.18 Define what macromolecules, polymers, and monomers are. 3
Learning Outcome: 02.19 Define carbohydrate and know the functional groups that characterize carbohydrates. 5
Learning Outcome: 02.20 Distinguish among mono-, di-, and polysaccharides, and describe how their bonds are made. 7
Learning Outcome: 02.21 Discuss the functions of carbohydrates in cells. 3
Learning Outcome: 02.22 Define lipid, triglyceride, phospholipid, fatty acid, and cholesterol. 4
Learning Outcome: 02.24 Discuss major functions of lipids in cells. 3
Learning Outcome: 02.25 Describe the structure of peptides and polypeptides and how their bonds form. 8
Learning Outcome: 02.26 Characterize the four levels of protein structure and describe the pattern of folding. 4
Learning Outcome: 02.27 Summarize some of the essential functions of proteins. 3
Learning Outcome: 02.28 Identify a nucleic acid and differentiate between DNA and RNA. 5
Learning Outcome: 02.29 Describe the structures of nucleotides and list the nitrogen bases. 7
Learning Outcome: 02.30 Explain how the DNA code may be copied, and describe the basic functions of RNA. 5
Talaro - Chapter 02 74
Topic: Basic Chemistry 37
Topic: Biochemistry 39
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ch03
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. The Six I's of studying microorganisms include all of the following except
A. inoculation.
B. incubation.
C. infection.
D. isolation.
E. identification.
2. All of the following are examples of different types of microbiological media except
A. broth.
B. enriched.
C. agar.
D. petri dish.
E. gelatin.
3. The term that refers to the purposeful addition of microorganisms into a laboratory nutrient medium
is
A. isolation.
B. inoculation.
C. immunization.
D. infection.
E. contamination.
4. Which of the following is essential for development of discrete, isolated colonies?
A. broth medium
B. differential medium
C. selective medium
D. solid medium
E. assay medium
5. A pure culture contains only
A. one species of microorganism.
B. bacteria.
C. a variety of microbes from one source.
D. All of the choices are correct.
E. None of the choices are correct.
6. Which of the following will result when 1% to 5% agar is added to nutrient broth, boiled and cooled?
A. a pure culture
B. a mixed culture
C. a solid medium
D. a liquid medium
E. a contaminated medium
7. A microbiologist inoculates Staphylococcus aureus into a culture medium. Following incubation, both
Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis are determined to be growing in this culture.
What is the most likely explanation?
A. The microbiologist used too much inoculum.
B. The culture is contaminated.
C. The incubation temperature was incorrect.
D. The culture medium must be selective.
E. The culture medium must be differential.
Student: ___________________________________________________________________________
1. The Six I's of studying microorganisms include all of the following except
A. inoculation.
B. incubation.
C. infection.
D. isolation.
E. identification.
2. All of the following are examples of different types of microbiological media except
A. broth.
B. enriched.
C. agar.
D. petri dish.
E. gelatin.
3. The term that refers to the purposeful addition of microorganisms into a laboratory nutrient medium
is
A. isolation.
B. inoculation.
C. immunization.
D. infection.
E. contamination.
4. Which of the following is essential for development of discrete, isolated colonies?
A. broth medium
B. differential medium
C. selective medium
D. solid medium
E. assay medium
5. A pure culture contains only
A. one species of microorganism.
B. bacteria.
C. a variety of microbes from one source.
D. All of the choices are correct.
E. None of the choices are correct.
6. Which of the following will result when 1% to 5% agar is added to nutrient broth, boiled and cooled?
A. a pure culture
B. a mixed culture
C. a solid medium
D. a liquid medium
E. a contaminated medium
7. A microbiologist inoculates Staphylococcus aureus into a culture medium. Following incubation, both
Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis are determined to be growing in this culture.
What is the most likely explanation?
A. The microbiologist used too much inoculum.
B. The culture is contaminated.
C. The incubation temperature was incorrect.
D. The culture medium must be selective.
E. The culture medium must be differential.
Loading page 27...
8. A microbiologist inoculates Staphylococcus epidermidis and Escherichia coli into a culture medium.
Following incubation, only the E. coli grows in the culture. What is the most likely explanation?
A. The microbiologist used too much inoculum.
B. The culture is contaminated.
C. The incubation temperature was incorrect.
D. The culture medium must be selective.
E. The culture medium must be differential.
9. Which method often results in colonies developing down throughout the agar and some colonies on the
surface?
A. streak plate
B. spread plate
C. pour plate
D. All of the choices are correct
E. None of the choices are correct
10. A common medium used for growing fastidious bacteria is
A. blood agar.
B. trypticase soy agar.
C. mannitol salt agar.
D. MacConkey medium.
E. a reducing medium.
11. A nutrient medium that has all of its chemical components identified and their precise concentrations
known and reproducible would be termed
A. complex.
B. reducing.
C. enriched.
D. enumeration.
E. synthetic.
12. A reducing medium contains
A. sugars that can be fermented.
B. extra oxygen.
C. hemoglobin, vitamins, or other growth factors.
D. substances that remove oxygen.
E. inhibiting agents.
13. Which type of medium is able to distinguish different species or types of microorganisms based on an
observable change in the colonies or in the medium?
A. differential
B. selective
C. enumeration
D. enriched
E. reducing
14. A microbiologist decides to use a nutrient medium that contains thioglycolic acid. What type of microbe
is she attempting to culture?
A. fastidious
B. gram positive
C. anaerobe
D. gram negative
E. virus
Following incubation, only the E. coli grows in the culture. What is the most likely explanation?
A. The microbiologist used too much inoculum.
B. The culture is contaminated.
C. The incubation temperature was incorrect.
D. The culture medium must be selective.
E. The culture medium must be differential.
9. Which method often results in colonies developing down throughout the agar and some colonies on the
surface?
A. streak plate
B. spread plate
C. pour plate
D. All of the choices are correct
E. None of the choices are correct
10. A common medium used for growing fastidious bacteria is
A. blood agar.
B. trypticase soy agar.
C. mannitol salt agar.
D. MacConkey medium.
E. a reducing medium.
11. A nutrient medium that has all of its chemical components identified and their precise concentrations
known and reproducible would be termed
A. complex.
B. reducing.
C. enriched.
D. enumeration.
E. synthetic.
12. A reducing medium contains
A. sugars that can be fermented.
B. extra oxygen.
C. hemoglobin, vitamins, or other growth factors.
D. substances that remove oxygen.
E. inhibiting agents.
13. Which type of medium is able to distinguish different species or types of microorganisms based on an
observable change in the colonies or in the medium?
A. differential
B. selective
C. enumeration
D. enriched
E. reducing
14. A microbiologist decides to use a nutrient medium that contains thioglycolic acid. What type of microbe
is she attempting to culture?
A. fastidious
B. gram positive
C. anaerobe
D. gram negative
E. virus
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15. Mannitol salt agar is selective for which bacterial genus?
A. Salmonella
B. Streptococcus
C. Neisseria
D. Staphylococcus
E. Escherichia
16. A microbiologist must culture a patient's feces for intestinal pathogens. Which of the following would
likely be present in selective media for analyzing this fecal specimen?
A. NaCl
B. sheep red blood cells
C. bile salts
D. thioglycolic acid
E. peptone
17. Which of the following characteristics refers to the microscope's ability to show two separate entities as
separate and distinct?
A. resolving power
B. magnification
C. refraction
D. All of the choices are correct
E. None of the choices are correct
18. Which of the following magnifies the specimen to produce the real image of the specimen?
A. condenser
B. objective lens
C. ocular lens
D. body
E. nosepiece
19. If a microbiologist is studying a specimen at a total magnification of 950X, what is the magnifying power
of the objective lens if the ocular lens is 10X?
A. 100X
B. 950X
C. 85X
D. 850X
E. 95X
20. All of the following are diameters of cells that would be resolved in a microscope with a limit of
resolution of 0.2 μm except
A. 0.2 μm.
B. 0.2 mm.
C. 0.1 μm.
D. 0.3 μm.
E. 2.0 μm.
21. The wavelength of light used plus the numerical aperture governs
A. illumination.
B. resolution.
C. magnification.
D. size of the field.
E. All of the choices are correct.
A. Salmonella
B. Streptococcus
C. Neisseria
D. Staphylococcus
E. Escherichia
16. A microbiologist must culture a patient's feces for intestinal pathogens. Which of the following would
likely be present in selective media for analyzing this fecal specimen?
A. NaCl
B. sheep red blood cells
C. bile salts
D. thioglycolic acid
E. peptone
17. Which of the following characteristics refers to the microscope's ability to show two separate entities as
separate and distinct?
A. resolving power
B. magnification
C. refraction
D. All of the choices are correct
E. None of the choices are correct
18. Which of the following magnifies the specimen to produce the real image of the specimen?
A. condenser
B. objective lens
C. ocular lens
D. body
E. nosepiece
19. If a microbiologist is studying a specimen at a total magnification of 950X, what is the magnifying power
of the objective lens if the ocular lens is 10X?
A. 100X
B. 950X
C. 85X
D. 850X
E. 95X
20. All of the following are diameters of cells that would be resolved in a microscope with a limit of
resolution of 0.2 μm except
A. 0.2 μm.
B. 0.2 mm.
C. 0.1 μm.
D. 0.3 μm.
E. 2.0 μm.
21. The wavelength of light used plus the numerical aperture governs
A. illumination.
B. resolution.
C. magnification.
D. size of the field.
E. All of the choices are correct.
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22. The type of microscope in which you would see brightly illuminated specimens against a black
background is
A. bright-field.
B. dark-field.
C. phase-contrast.
D. fluorescence.
E. electron.
23. Which microscope does not use light in forming the specimen image?
A. bright-field
B. dark-field
C. phase-contrast
D. fluorescence
E. electron
24. Which microscope achieves the greatest resolution and highest magnification?
A. bright-field
B. dark-field
C. phase-contrast
D. fluorescence
E. electron
25. Which microscope shows cells against a bright background and the intracellular structures of unstained
cells based on their varying densities?
A. bright-field
B. dark-field
C. phase-contrast
D. fluorescence
E. electron
26. Which microscope is the most widely used to show stained cells against a bright background?
A. bright-field
B. dark-field
C. phase-contrast
D. fluorescence
E. electron
27. All of the following pertain to the fluorescence microscope except it
A. uses electron's to produce a specimen image.
B. is a type of compound microscope.
C. requires the use of dyes like acridine and fluorescein.
D. is commonly used to diagnose certain infections.
E. requires an ultraviolet radiation source.
28. Which is incorrect about chocolate agar?
A. It can be used to cultivate Neisseria.
B. It usually uses sheep blood that has been heated.
C. It has chocolate extract in it.
D. It is an enriched medium.
E. It is used to grow fastidious bacteria.
29. Which microscope bombards a whole, metal-coated specimen with electrons moving back and forth over
it?
A. fluorescence
B. differential interference contrast
C. scanning electron
D. transmission electron
E. phase-contrast
background is
A. bright-field.
B. dark-field.
C. phase-contrast.
D. fluorescence.
E. electron.
23. Which microscope does not use light in forming the specimen image?
A. bright-field
B. dark-field
C. phase-contrast
D. fluorescence
E. electron
24. Which microscope achieves the greatest resolution and highest magnification?
A. bright-field
B. dark-field
C. phase-contrast
D. fluorescence
E. electron
25. Which microscope shows cells against a bright background and the intracellular structures of unstained
cells based on their varying densities?
A. bright-field
B. dark-field
C. phase-contrast
D. fluorescence
E. electron
26. Which microscope is the most widely used to show stained cells against a bright background?
A. bright-field
B. dark-field
C. phase-contrast
D. fluorescence
E. electron
27. All of the following pertain to the fluorescence microscope except it
A. uses electron's to produce a specimen image.
B. is a type of compound microscope.
C. requires the use of dyes like acridine and fluorescein.
D. is commonly used to diagnose certain infections.
E. requires an ultraviolet radiation source.
28. Which is incorrect about chocolate agar?
A. It can be used to cultivate Neisseria.
B. It usually uses sheep blood that has been heated.
C. It has chocolate extract in it.
D. It is an enriched medium.
E. It is used to grow fastidious bacteria.
29. Which microscope bombards a whole, metal-coated specimen with electrons moving back and forth over
it?
A. fluorescence
B. differential interference contrast
C. scanning electron
D. transmission electron
E. phase-contrast
Loading page 30...
30. The specimen preparation that is best for viewing cell motility is
A. hanging drop.
B. fixed stained smear.
C. Gram stain.
D. negative stain.
E. flagellar stain.
31. The primary purpose of staining cells on a microscope slide is to
A. kill them.
B. secure them to the slide.
C. enlarge the cells.
D. add contrast in order to see them better.
E. see motility.
32. The Gram stain, acid-fast stain, and endospore stain ____________.
A. are used on a wet mount of the specimen
B. use heat to force the dye into cell structures
C. have outcomes based on cell wall differences
D. use a negative stain technique
E. are differential stains
33. Basic dyes are
A. attracted to the acidic substances of bacterial cells.
B. anionic.
C. used in negative staining.
D. repelled by cells.
E. dyes such as India ink and nigrosin.
34. A microbiologist makes a fixed smear of bacterial cells and stains them with Loeffler's methylene blue.
All the cells appear blue under the oil lens. This is an example of
A. negative staining.
B. using an acidic dye.
C. simple staining.
D. using the acid-fast stain.
E. capsule staining.
35. Media that contains extracts from plants, animals, or yeasts are
A. synthetic.
B. complex.
C. reducing.
D. enriched.
E. All of the choices are correct.
36. Brain-heart infusion, trypticase soy agar (TSA), and nutrient agar are all examples of which type of
media?
A. synthetic
B. reducing
C. enriched
D. nonsynthetic
E. selective
37. Bacteria that require special growth factors and complex organic substances are called
A. fastidious.
B. pathogenic.
C. harmless.
D. anaerobic.
E. aerobic.
A. hanging drop.
B. fixed stained smear.
C. Gram stain.
D. negative stain.
E. flagellar stain.
31. The primary purpose of staining cells on a microscope slide is to
A. kill them.
B. secure them to the slide.
C. enlarge the cells.
D. add contrast in order to see them better.
E. see motility.
32. The Gram stain, acid-fast stain, and endospore stain ____________.
A. are used on a wet mount of the specimen
B. use heat to force the dye into cell structures
C. have outcomes based on cell wall differences
D. use a negative stain technique
E. are differential stains
33. Basic dyes are
A. attracted to the acidic substances of bacterial cells.
B. anionic.
C. used in negative staining.
D. repelled by cells.
E. dyes such as India ink and nigrosin.
34. A microbiologist makes a fixed smear of bacterial cells and stains them with Loeffler's methylene blue.
All the cells appear blue under the oil lens. This is an example of
A. negative staining.
B. using an acidic dye.
C. simple staining.
D. using the acid-fast stain.
E. capsule staining.
35. Media that contains extracts from plants, animals, or yeasts are
A. synthetic.
B. complex.
C. reducing.
D. enriched.
E. All of the choices are correct.
36. Brain-heart infusion, trypticase soy agar (TSA), and nutrient agar are all examples of which type of
media?
A. synthetic
B. reducing
C. enriched
D. nonsynthetic
E. selective
37. Bacteria that require special growth factors and complex organic substances are called
A. fastidious.
B. pathogenic.
C. harmless.
D. anaerobic.
E. aerobic.
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Subject
Microbiology