EMT Practice: Systems, Safety and Care Part 8

In cases of sexual assault, it is important to ensure that you do which of the following?

- Immediately write down your observations of the scene before assessing the patient.

- Call for a female EMT or ALS care provider if you yourself are not a female provider.

- Discuss with law enforcement any suspicions that you may have about the perpetrator.

- All of these answers are correct.

In contrast to bleeding caused by external trauma to the vagina, bleeding caused by conditions such as polyps or cancer:

- can be controlled in the field.

- may be relatively painless.

- often presents with acute pain.

- is typically not as severe.

It is common for young females who experience their first menstrual period to:

- become so emotionally distraught that they contemplate suicide.

- experience abdominal cramping, which may be misinterpreted.

- have a false positive home pregnancy test result.

- lose up to 500 mL of blood within the first 24 hours.

Law enforcement personnel request your assistance to assess a 31-year-old female who was sexually assaulted. When you arrive at the scene, you find the patient sitting on a curb outside her apartment. She is conscious, alert, and crying. When you ask her what happened, she tells you that she does not want to be treated or transported to the hospital. She further tells you that all she wants to do is clean up. You should:

- provide emotional support and visually assess her for obvious trauma.

- advise her that she cannot clean herself up because this will destroy evidence.

- perform a limited hands-on assessment to detect life-threatening injuries.

- ask her if there is anyone you can contact, such as a friend or relative.

Patient complaints of pain during intercourse, lower abdominal discomfort, and nausea may be indicative of which of the following?

- Chlamydia

- Pelvic inflammatory disease

- Gonorrhea

- Bacterial vaginosis

Some women experience ___________ during ovulation.

- hypotension

- severe abdominal pain

- slight cramping

- severe bleeding

The __________ and _________ are folds of tissue that surround the urethral and vaginal openings.

- fallopian tubes; uterus

- vagina; cervix

- labia majora; labia minora

- perineum; anus

The _____________ connect(s) each ovary with the uterus.

- cervix

- egg

- fallopian tubes

- abdomen

The EMT should ensure that vaginal bleeding is _________.

- controlled directly by the patient

- taken seriously and the patient is transported for gynecologic evaluation

- not caused by traumatic injury

- severe enough to warrant transport

The physical examination of a sexual assault victim should be:

- performed in the presence of at least two police officers.

- deferred until the patient can be evaluated by a physician.

- as detailed as possible so all injuries can be documented.

- limited to a brief survey for life-threatening injuries.

limited to a brief survey for life-threatening injuries.

- allow law enforcement to take her statement before you begin treatment.

- advise her that she will not be allowed to shower or change her clothes.

- ask the patient for a concise, detailed report of what happened to her.

- place any bloodstained clothing or other articles in separate paper bags.

Which of the following conditions would MOST likely lead to pelvic inflammatory disease if left untreated?

- Chlamydia

- Genital herpes

- Ectopic pregnancy

- Ovarian cysts

Which of the following drugs is commonly referred to as "roofies"?

- GHB

- MDMA

- Rohypnol

- Ketamine

Which of the following infections, when left untreated, may lead to infection of the blood and brain?

- Pelvic inflammatory disease

- Bacterial vaginosis

- Chlamydia

- Gonorrhea

While the ages can vary, women typically experience menstruation from approximately _________ to ____________ years of age.

- 10; 70

- 20; 60

- 10; 40

- 11; 50

A 50-year-old man with diabetes has an altered mental status and is unable to tell you when he last ate or took his insulin. Your glucometer keeps malfunctioning and you are unable to determine his blood glucose level. Which of the following clinical signs would MOST likely lead you to the correct diagnosis?

- Hypotension and tachycardia

- Rapid and weak pulse

- Deep and rapid breathing

- Restlessness and irritability

A 58-year-old man complains of chest discomfort and nausea. He is conscious and alert; his blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, his pulse is 104 beats/min, and his respirations are 16 breaths/min. Your partner has applied supplemental oxygen. Prior to assisting the patient with one of his prescribed nitroglycerin tablets, you ask him if he takes medication to treat erectile dysfunction (ED) and he tells you that he does. You should:

- ask him what he takes, how much, and when he last took it.

- administer his nitroglycerin and then reassess his blood pressure.

- recall that erectile ED drugs can cause significant hypertension.

- avoid giving him nitroglycerin and transport him at once.

A 60-year-old man complains of chest pain. He is conscious and alert and denies shortness of breath. Which of the following questions would be the MOST appropriate to ask him?

- "Does the pain in your chest move to either of your arms?"

- "Were you exerting yourself when the chest pain began?"

- "Do you have any heart problems or take any medications?"

- "Does the pain in your chest feel like a stabbing sensation?"

A 70-year-old female was recently discharged from the hospital following a total hip replacement. Today, she presents with restlessness, tachycardia, and a blood pressure of 100/64 mm Hg. Her skin is hot and moist. You should be MOST suspicious that she is experiencing:

- septic shock.

- a local infection.

- decompensated shock.

- pump failure.

A 71-year-old male is semiconscious following a sudden, severe headache. There is vomitus on his face and his respirations are slow and shallow. The EMT must immediately:

- perform oropharyngeal suctioning.

- insert a nasopharyngeal airway.

- apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask.

- begin assisting the patient's ventilations.

A 73-year-old man presents with a generalized rash, which he thinks may have been caused by an antibiotic that he recently began taking. He has a history of coronary artery disease, hypertension, and emphysema. He is conscious and alert, his blood pressure is 144/94 mm Hg, and his pulse is 64 beats/min and regular. You auscultate his breath sounds and hear scattered wheezing, although he is not experiencing respiratory distress. You should:

- begin transport and request to administer epinephrine if his systolic blood pressure falls below 110 mm Hg.

- administer oxygen if needed, transport the patient, and monitor him for signs of deterioration.

- avoid the use of epinephrine because of his cardiac history, even if his symptoms become severe.

- ask him if he has epinephrine and request approval from medical control to administer it to the patient.

Abdominal thrusts in a conscious child or adult with a severe upper airway obstruction are performed:

- until he or she experiences cardiac arrest.

- in sets of five followed by reassessment.

- until he or she loses consciousness.

- about 1 inch below the xiphoid process.

An absence seizure is also referred to as a:

- generalized motor seizure.

- grand mal seizure.

- total body seizure.

- petit mal seizure.

The left ventricle has the thickest walls because it:

- pumps blood into the aorta and systemic circulation.

- receives blood directly from the systemic circulation.

- uses less oxygen than other chambers of the heart.

- pumps blood to the lungs to be reoxygenated.

What is the alveolar minute volume of a patient with a tidal volume of 500 mL, a dead space volume of 150 mL, and a respiratory rate of 16 breaths/min?

- 8,000 mL

- 5,600 mL

- 6,000 mL

- 7,400 mL

When assessing an 80-year-old patient in shock, it is important to remember that:

- the patient's cardiac output is able to increase by nearly 200% in response to the decrease in perfusion.

- in older adults, it is especially common to observe a significant decrease in heart rate in response to shock.

- it is common to see a more significant increase in heart rate than what would be expected in younger adults.

- age-related changes in the cardiovascular system may make the patient less able to compensate for decreased perfusion.

When assessing for fluid collection in the lungs during auscultation of lung sounds, you should:

- start at the lower lung fields and determine at which level you start hearing clear breath sounds.

- pay special attention to the exhalation phase because this is when you will likely hear rales or rhonchi.

- note the presence of a high-pitched whistling sound, which is an indicator of fluid in the lungs.

- auscultate the posterior chest first and compare the apex of one lung to the base of the opposite lung.

When gathering a patient's medications, you find the following: Isordil, Lasix, Nexium, and digoxin. Which of these medications can be obtained over-the-counter (OTC)?

- Nexium

- Lasix

- Digoxin

- Isordil

Which of the following clinical signs is unique to anaphylactic shock?

- Wheezing

- Dizziness

- Hypotension

- Pallor

Which of the following medication routes has the slowest rate of absorption?

- Inhalation

- Rectal

- Sublingual

- Oral

Which of the following statements regarding gastrointestinal bleeding is correct?

- In the majority of cases, bleeding within the gastrointestinal tract occurs acutely and is severe.

- Chronic bleeding within the gastrointestinal tract is usually more severe than bleeding that occurs acutely.

- Bleeding within the gastrointestinal tract is a symptom of another disease, not a disease itself.

- Lower gastrointestinal bleeding results from conditions such as Mallory-Weiss syndrome.

Which of the following statements regarding hepatitis A is correct?

- Although there is no vaccine against hepatitis A, treatment is usually successful.

- Infection with hepatitis A causes chronic illness with a high mortality rate.

- Hepatitis A can only be transmitted by a patient who has an acute infection.

- Hepatitis A is primarily transmitted via contact with blood or other body fluids.

Which of the following statements regarding smooth muscle is correct?

- The biceps and quadriceps are examples of smooth muscle.

- Smooth muscle is found exclusively within blood vessels.

- Smooth muscle is under control of the voluntary nervous system.

- A person has no voluntary control over smooth muscle.

Which of the following statements regarding ventricular fibrillation (V-fib) is correct?

- Most patients in V-fib have a weak carotid pulse.

- Defibrillation is only indicated for witnessed V-fib.

- V-fib is a state of rapid ventricular contraction.

- V-fib results in an absence of forward blood flow.

You are assessing a 49-year-old man who, according to his wife, experienced a sudden, severe headache and then passed out. He is unresponsive and has slow, irregular breathing. His blood pressure is 190/94 mm Hg and his pulse rate is 50 beats/min. His wife tells you that he has hypertension and diabetes. He has MOST likely experienced:

- an occluded cerebral artery.

- a ruptured cerebral artery.

- a complex partial seizure.

- acute hypoglycemia.

You are dispatched to a residence for a 67-year-old female who was awakened by shortness of breath and sharp chest pain. Her husband tells you that she was recently discharged from the hospital after having hip surgery. Your assessment reveals dried blood around her mouth, facial cyanosis, and an oxygen saturation of 88%. You should suspect:

- spontaneous pneumothorax.

- acute pulmonary embolism.

- acute pulmonary edema.

- right-sided heart failure.

You are dispatched to a residence where a middle-aged man was found unconscious in his front yard. There are no witnesses who can tell you what happened. You find him in a prone position; his eyes are closed and he is not moving. Your FIRST action should be to:

- log roll him as a unit to a supine position.

- open his airway with a jaw-thrust maneuver.

- assess the rate and quality of his breathing.

- palpate for the presence of a carotid pulse.

The process of exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide between the alveoli and the blood of the capillaries is called:

- pulmonary ventilation.

- external respiration.

- cellular metabolism.

- alveolar ventilation.

To select the proper size oropharyngeal airway, you should measure from the:

- corner of the mouth to the superior ear.

- angle of the jaw to the center of the mouth.

- center of the mouth to the posterior ear.

- corner of the mouth to the earlobe.

While providing CPAP to a patient in severe respiratory distress, you note that his heart rate has increased by 20 beats/min. He is conscious, but is no longer following verbal commands. You should:

- remove the CPAP device and apply oxygen by nonrebreathing mask.

- remove the CPAP device and ventilate him with a bag-valve mask.

- increase the amount of pressure that the CPAP device is delivering.

- decrease the amount of pressure that the CPAP device is delivering.

You are ventilating a 40-year-old uninjured man who is apneic but has a pulse. When your partner reassesses his blood pressure, she notes that it has decreased significantly from previous readings. You should:

- increase the volume of your ventilations and reassess his blood pressure.

- perform a head-to-toe assessment to look for signs of bleeding.

- reduce the rate or volume of the ventilations you are delivering.

- increase the rate at which you are ventilating and reassess his blood pressure.

You are ventilating an apneic woman with a bag-valve mask. She has dentures, which are tight fitting. Adequate chest rise is present with each ventilation, and the patient's oxygen saturation reads 96%. When you reassess the patency of her airway, you note that her dentures are now loose, although your ventilations are still producing adequate chest rise. You should:

- leave her dentures in place, but carefully monitor her for an airway obstruction.

- attempt to replace her dentures so that they fit tightly and resume ventilations.

- remove her dentures, resume ventilations, and assess for adequate chest rise.

- remove her dentures at once and increase the rate and volume of your ventilations.

Neurogenic shock occurs when:

- the spinal cord is severed and causes massive hemorrhaging.

- massive vasoconstriction occurs distal to a spinal cord injury.

- failure of the nervous system causes widespread vasodilation.

- there is too much blood to fill a smaller vascular container.

You are transporting a 33-year-old male who was involved in a major motor vehicle crash. You have addressed all immediate and potentially life-threatening conditions and have stabilized his condition with the appropriate treatment. With an estimated time of arrival at the hospital of 20 minutes, you should:

- repeat your secondary assessment.

- reassess his condition in 5 minutes.

- take his vital signs in 15 minutes.

- arrange for an ALS rendezvous.

A 22-year-old female patient is complaining of dyspnea and numbness and tingling in her hands and feet after an argument with her fiancé. Her respirations are 40 breaths/min. You should:

- request a paramedic to give her a sedative.

- provide reassurance and give oxygen as needed.

- have her breathe into a paper or plastic bag.

- position her on her left side and transport at once.

A 62-year-old man with a history of congestive heart failure presents with severe respiratory distress and with an oxygen saturation of 82%. When you auscultate his lungs, you hear widespread rales. He is conscious and alert, is able to follow simple commands, and can only speak in two- to three-word sentences at a time. You should:

- place him in a supine position and assist his ventilations with a bag-valve mask and high-flow oxygen.

- place him in a position of comfort, deliver oxygen via nasal cannula, and closely monitor his breathing.

- apply a CPAP device, monitor his blood pressure, and observe him for signs of improvement or deterioration.

- force fluid from his alveoli by hyperventilating him with a bag-valve mask at a rate of at least 20 breaths/min.

Dyspnea is MOST accurately defined as:

- shortness of breath or difficulty breathing.

- labored breathing with reduced tidal volume.

- a complete cessation of respiratory effort.

- a marked increase in the exhalation phase.

You are dispatched to an apartment complex where a 21-year-old female has apparently overdosed on several narcotic medications. She is semiconscious and has slow, shallow respirations. You should:

- insert a nasopharyngeal airway and begin assisted ventilation.

- place her in the recovery position and monitor for vomiting.

- apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask and transport at once.

- insert an oropharyngeal airway and perform oral suctioning.

A 40-year-old man is in cardiac arrest. Your partner is performing CPR. You are attaching the AED when the patient's wife tells you that he has an automatic implanted cardiac defibrillator (AICD). The AED advises that a shock is indicated. What should you do?

- Continue CPR and transport the patient to the closest appropriate hospital.

- Deliver the shock followed by immediate resumption of CPR.

- Contact medical control and request permission to defibrillate.

- Avoid defibrillation as this will damage the patient's AICD.

Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a term used to describe:

- the warning signs that occur shortly before a heart attack.

- the exact moment that a coronary artery is completely occluded.

- a group of symptoms that are caused by myocardial ischemia.

- a severe decrease in perfusion caused by changes in heart rate.

Cardiogenic shock following AMI is caused by:

- hypovolemia secondary to severe vomiting.

B. widespread dilation of the systemic vasculature.

- a profound increase in the patient's heart rate.

- decreased pumping force of the heart muscle.

Common side effects of nitroglycerin include all of the following, EXCEPT:

- hypotension.

- severe headache.

- hypertension.

- bradycardia.

Common signs and symptoms of AMI include all of the following, EXCEPT:

- sudden unexplained sweating.

- shortness of breath or dyspnea.

- pain exacerbated by breathing.

- irregular heartbeat.

You are assessing a 49-year-old man who complains of chest pressure that began the night before. He is conscious, but anxious, and tells you he has a history of angina and hypertension. After applying high-flow oxygen, you expose his chest to auscultate his lungs and note that he has a nitroglycerin patch on his right upper chest. His skin is cool and pale, his blood pressure is 78/50 mm Hg, and his pulse is 110 beats/min and irregular. You should:

- move the nitroglycerin patch to the other side of his chest in case you need to apply the AED, keep him warm, and transport without delay.

- ask him if the nitroglycerin patch he is wearing has improved his chest pressure, complete your secondary assessment, and transport promptly.

- immediately remove the nitroglycerin patch, apply the AED in case he develops cardiac arrest, and transport to the closest hospital.

- remove the nitroglycerin patch, place him in a supine position and elevate his lower extremities, and prepare for immediate transport.

You are dispatched to a convenience store for a patient who passed out. Upon arriving at the scene, you find two off-duty EMTs performing CPR on the patient, a 58-year-old male. Your initial action should be to:

- have the EMTs stop CPR and assess for a pulse.

- request a paramedic unit and quickly attach the AED.

- feel for a pulse while compressions are ongoing.

- quickly attach the AED and push the analyze button.

You are dispatched to a residence for a 56-year-old male with an altered mental status. Upon arrival at the scene, the patient's wife tells you that he complained of chest pain the day before, but would not allow her to call EMS. The patient is semiconscious; has rapid, shallow respirations; and has a thready pulse. You should:

- apply a nonrebreathing mask.

- obtain baseline vital signs.

- attach the AED immediately.

- begin ventilatory assistance.

Kussmaul respirations are an indication that the body is:

- attempting to eliminate acids from the blood.

- severely hypoxic and is eliminating excess CO2.

- compensating for decreased blood glucose levels.

- trying to generate energy by breathing deeply.

To which of the following diabetic patients should you administer oral glucose?

- A semiconscious 40-year-old female without a gag reflex

- A confused 55-year-old male with tachycardia and pallor

- A conscious 37-year-old female with nausea and vomiting

- An unconscious 33-year-old male with cool, clammy skin

When assessing an unresponsive diabetic patient, the primary visible difference between hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia is the:

- patient's mental status.

- rate of the patient's pulse.

- rate and depth of breathing.

- presence of a medical identification tag.

If a woman with vaginal bleeding reports syncope, the EMT should assume that she:

- has an ectopic pregnancy.

- is pregnant.

- is in shock.

- has an infection.

When a woman presents with abdominal pain or other vague symptoms, the EMT is often unable to determine the nature of the problem until he or she:

- has gathered patient history information.

- ascertains if the patient was ever pregnant.

- has formed a general impression of the patient.

- has obtained a complete set of vital signs.

Whenever possible, a female sexual assault victim should be:

- asked to provide a brief description of the perpetrator.

- given the option of being treated by a female EMT.

- thoroughly assessed, even if no signs of injury exist.

- encouraged to take a shower and change her clothes.

A young male is unresponsive after overdosing on an opioid. He is not breathing and his pulse is weak. The EMT should immediately:

- request an ALS ambulance.

- administer naloxone.

- ventilate with a BVM.

- begin chest compressions.

If gastric distention begins to make positive-pressure ventilation difficult, you should:

- reposition the patient's airway.

- suction the patient's oropharynx.

- increase the rate of ventilation.

- insert an oropharyngeal airway.

The MOST appropriate treatment for a patient with a mild upper airway obstruction includes:

- visualizing the airway and removing the obstruction.

- administering oxygen and transporting immediately.

- advising the patient not to make any attempts to cough.

- performing five back blows and five abdominal thrusts.

Which of the following has the greatest impact on producing injury?

- Gravity

- Distance

- Mass

- Speed

How many collisions are there in a typical vehicle impact?

- 1

- 3

- 4

- 2

In which type of vehicle crash are you most likely to find a patient with whiplash injuries?

- Rotational

- Frontal

- Rear-end

- Rollover

The phenomenon that results from the rapid changes in tissue and fluid pressure that occur with the passage of a projectile, resulting in serious injury to internal organs distant to the actual path of the bullet, is known as what?

- Tumble

- Drag

- Cavitation

- Fragmentation

What type of blast injury occurs when objects are propelled by the force of the blast wave and strike the victim, causing injury?

- Tertiary

- Primary

- Quaternary

- Secondary

What level of trauma center provides prompt assessment, resuscitation, and stabilization of injured patients and emergency operations, but not definitive care for all patients?

- Level III

- Level II

- Level I

- Level IV

You are assessing a patient who opens her eyes when you speak to her, who can respond to you but seems confused as to time and place, and localizes pain. What is her Glasgow Coma Scale score?

- 12

- 15

- 10

- 7

You are assessing a patient who was in a front-end car crash. His GCS is 12, systolic blood pressure is 81 mm Hg, and respiratory rate is 22 breaths/min. What is this patient's Revised Trauma Score?

- 12

- 15

- 10

- 7

You would use the Revised Trauma Score scoring system for a patient if there is potential for what type of trauma?

- Head

- Extremity

- Chest

- Abdominal

At what step in the ACS-COT/CDC updated field triage decision scheme would you assess mechanism of injury and evidence of high-energy impact?

- Step 2

- Step 1

- Step 4

- Step 3

Which of the following interventions is the MOST critical to the outcome of a patient with multisystem trauma?

- Early administration of oxygen

- Elevation of the lower extremities

- Intravenous fluid administration

- Rapid transport to a trauma center

A 12-year-old male jumped approximately 12 feet from a tree and landed on his feet. He complains of pain to his lower back. What injury mechanism is MOST likely responsible for his back pain?

- Lateral impact to the spine

- Energy transmission to the spine

- Secondary fall after the initial impact

- Direct trauma to the spinal column

When assessing an elderly patient who fell, it is important to remember that:

- bilateral hip fractures usually occur when an elderly person falls.

- elderly patients who fall usually have a secondary head injury.

- osteoporosis can cause a fracture as a result of a fall from a standing position.

- any fall in the elderly is considered to be high-energy trauma.

While en route to a major motor vehicle crash, an on-scene police officer advises you that a 6-year-old male who was riding in the front seat is involved. He further states that the child was only wearing a lap belt and that the air bag deployed. On the basis of this information, you should be MOST suspicious that the child has experienced:

- open abdominal trauma.

- blunt trauma to the head.

- neck and facial injuries.

- lower extremity fractures.

Force acting over a distance is the definition of:

- kinetic energy.

- latent energy.

- work.

- potential energy.

According to the American College of Surgeons Committee on Trauma (ACS-COT), an adult trauma patient should be transported to the highest level of trauma center if he or she:

- has a GCS score of less than or equal to 13 with a mechanism attributed to trauma.

- was involved in a motor vehicle crash in which another patient in the same vehicle was killed.

- has a bleeding disorder or takes anticoagulant medications and has any blunt or penetrating injury.

- has a systolic blood pressure of less than 110 mm Hg or a heart rate greater than 110 beats/min.

Which types of motor vehicle collisions present the greatest potential for multiple impacts?

- Frontal and rotational

- Lateral and rollover

- Rear-end and rotational

- Rotational and rollover

A 15-year-old female was struck by a small car while riding her bicycle. She was wearing a helmet and was thrown to the ground, striking her head. In addition to managing problems associated with airway, breathing, and circulation, it is MOST important for you to:

- leave her bicycle helmet on.

- obtain baseline vital signs.

- inspect the helmet for cracks.

- stabilize her entire spine.

Which of the following injuries would MOST likely occur as a direct result of the third collision in a motor vehicle crash?

- Forehead lacerations

- Aortic rupture

- Flail chest

- Extremity fractures

Following a blunt injury to the head, a 22-year-old female is confused and complains of a severe headache and nausea. On the basis of these signs and symptoms, you should be MOST concerned with the possibility of:

- a fracture of the skull.

- airway compromise.

- intracranial bleeding.

- spinal cord injury.

Which of the following destinations is most appropriate for a 41-year-old male patient who was involved in a rollover motor vehicle collision and is unconscious and unresponsive, assuming that travel times to each is equal?

- Only a Level I trauma center

- Any designated trauma center is acceptable.

- A Level I or Level II trauma center

- A Level IV or Level III trauma center

When assessing a patient who experienced a blast injury, it is important to remember that:

- primary blast injuries are the most easily overlooked.

- solid organs usually rupture from the pressure wave.

- primary blast injuries are typically the most obvious.

- secondary blast injuries are usually the least obvious.

Approximately 25% of severe injuries to the aorta occur during:

- lateral collisions.

- rollover collisions.

- frontal collisions.

- rear-end collisions.

When the speed of a motor vehicle doubles, the amount of kinetic energy:

- triples.

- quadruples.

- doubles.

- is not affected.

According to the Association of Air Medical Services, you should consider air medical transport of a trauma patient if:

- he or she was involved in a motor vehicle crash in which another occupant in the same vehicle was killed, even if your patient's injuries are minor.

- the patient requires advanced life support care and stabilization, and the nearest ALS-ground ambulance is more than 5 to 10 minutes away.

- traffic conditions hamper the ability to get the patient to a trauma center by ground within the ideal time frame for the best clinical outcome.

- ground transport will take your ambulance out of service for an extended period of time, regardless of the severity of the patient's injuries.

Which of the following findings would be LEAST suggestive of the presence of high-energy trauma?

- Deployment of the air bag

- Steering wheel deformity

- Intrusion into the vehicle

- Dismounted seats

The index of suspicion is MOST accurately defined as:

- the way in which traumatic injuries occur.

- the detection of less obvious life-threatening injuries.

- a predictable pattern that leads to serious injuries.

- your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying injuries.

Your patient has a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of 13, a systolic blood pressure of 80 mm Hg, and a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min. His Revised Trauma Score (RTS) is:

- 11.

- 8.

- 9.

- 10.

Which of the following statements regarding gunshot wounds is correct?

- Low-velocity bullets will cause the greatest amount of trauma.

- The size of a bullet has the greatest impact on the injury produced.

- The speed of a bullet has the greatest impact on the injury produced.

- High-velocity bullets will cause less severe internal injuries.

A young male sustained a gunshot wound to the abdomen during an altercation. As your partner is assessing and managing his airway, you should control the obvious bleeding and then:

- apply a cervical collar.

- auscultate bowel sounds.

- assess for an exit wound.

- obtain baseline vital signs.

Which of the following are the key to the formation of blood clots?

- Plasma

- Platelets

- White blood cells

- Red blood cellsateletesl

How soon do cells in the brain and spinal cord start to die without constant perfusion?

- After 2-3 hours

- Within 45 minutes

- Within 15-20 minutes

- Within 4-6 minutes

In general, what is the maximum amount of acute blood loss the adult body can tolerate?

- 2 liters

- 20% of total blood volume

- 10% of total blood volume

- 12 pints

The condition in which low blood volume results in inadequate perfusion is called what?

- Cardiogenic shock

- Neurogenic shock

- Hypovolemic shock

- Compensated shock

Which type of bleeding is characterized by a bright red color and spurting?

- Arterial

- Hemoptysis

- Venous

- Capillary