2024 NR507 Pathophysiology Final Exam With Answers (356 Solved Questions)

Name: 2024 NR507 Pathophysiology Final Exam With Answers (356 Solved Questions)
Brand: Chamberlain College of Nursing
Price: 4 USD
Availability: InStock
Author: Nora Walker

2024 NR507 Pathophysiology Final Exam With Answers is a valuable resource for improving your exam approach and accuracy.

Nora Walker

Contributor

4.4

about 1 month ago

Preview (16 of 83)

NR507 /NR 507 FINAL EXAM ADVANCED
PATHOPHYSIOLOGY 2024 EXAM 450
QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED VERIFIED
ANSWERS AND RATIONALES /BRAND
NEW!! /A+ GRADE ASSURED
What part of the body do we typically see symptoms from
autonomic neuropathy in type 1 diabetes? - ...ANSWER...GI:
decreased esophageal motility, gastroporesis and delayed
gastric emptying
Symptoms of hypoglycemia (6) - ...ANSWER...tachycardia,
palpitations, diaphoresis, tremors, pallor and arousal anxiety
What do we teach diabetics about how to avoid
hypoglycemia? - ...ANSWER...don't skip meals, take meds
appropriately and pay attention to carbs
Cause of primary hyperparathyroidism -
...ANSWER...parathyroid tumor
cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism -
...ANSWER...increased PTH secretion in response to
hypocalcemia
What typically accompanies hypercalcemia -
...ANSWER...hypophosphatemia

Main symptom of hypercalcemia - ...ANSWER...osteoporosis
in distal 1/3rd of the radius
Risk factors of hypoparathyroidism (4) -
...ANSWER...Alcoholics, malabsorption, increased renal
clearance of mag, chemo drugs
Symptoms of hypocalcemia (8) - ...ANSWER...dry skin, loss
of body and scalp hair, hypoplasia of teeth, ridges on nails,
cataracts, basal ganglia calcifications, bone deformities and
bowing of long bones
Another term for hypercortisolism - ...ANSWER...cushings
syndrome
Main characteristics of cushings syndrome -
...ANSWER...buffalo hump, moon face and truncal obesity
What is the biggest signal of adrenal crisis? -
...ANSWER...Hypotension
What can cause adrenal crisis? - ...ANSWER...Improper
weaning off glucocorticoid meds
key symptoms associated with parkinson's disease (5) -
...ANSWER...shuffling gait, dysphagia, resting tremor,
postural disturbance and dysarthia
Risk factors for MS (3) - ...ANSWER...smoking, vit D
deficiency and epstein-barr virus
what kind of disease is MS - ...ANSWER...demyelinating

characteristics of cluster headache - ...ANSWER...unilateral
trigeminal distribution of severe pain with ipsilateral
manefistations
symptoms of cluster headache (3) - ...ANSWER...tearing on
affected side, ptosis of ipsilateral eye and congestion of nasal
mucosa
Where does pain refer to in cluster headaches (2) -
...ANSWER...midface and teeth
characteristics of a migraine - ...ANSWER...unilateral,
throbbing pain that worsens with activity
Symptoms of migraine headache (3) - ...ANSWER...N/V,
photophobia and phonophobia
What type of migraine is most common -
...ANSWER...migraine without an aura
Characteristics of tension headache - ...ANSWER...bilateral
headache that feels like a tight band around the head
what type of headache is the most common -
...ANSWER...tension
What cranial nerve is associated with bells palsy -
...ANSWER...cranial nerve VII
What cranial nerve is associated with trigeminal neuralgia -
...ANSWER...cranial nerve V

Symptoms of bells palsy - ...ANSWER...asymmetry and
inability to close eye, smile or frown on affected side
Symptoms of trigeminal neuralgia - ...ANSWER...severe
sharp stabbing pain that worsens with chewing
symptoms of bacterial meningitis or meningial irritation -
...ANSWER...severe throbbing headache, severe photophobia,
nuchual rigidity and positive kernig/brudinski
Result of infarct in the ACA - ...ANSWER...motor
contralateral paralysis or paresis that is greater in the foot and
thigh
result of basal artery infarct - ...ANSWER...loss of vibratory
sense, sense of position with dysmetria, loss of two-point
discrimination, impaired rapid alternating movement
causes of rosacea (5) - ...ANSWER...chronic sun
exposure/damage, alcohol/hot beverage consumption,
hormones, mites (demodex folliculorum) and mental
stress/anxiety
Most aggressive skin cancer - ...ANSWER...melanoma
Which of the following is true regarding a complicated
urinary tract infection? - ...ANSWER...Can be caused by a
structural urinary tract disorder
Which of the following is a risk factor for the development of
a urinary tract infection (UTI)? - ...ANSWER...Pregnancy

A symptom of a lower urinary tract infection includes: -
...ANSWER...urgency
Women are at a higher risk for the development of a UTI
because of having a shorter urethra. - ...ANSWER...true
Which of the following can help to prevent a UTI? -
...ANSWER...Increase water consumption
Uncomplicated UTI - ...ANSWER...Occurs in the normal
urinary tract
Responds well to short course of antibiotic therapy
Simple cystitis in non-pregnant women without any urologic
abnormalities
Complicated UTI - ...ANSWER...UTI extends beyond the
bladder
Caused by structural or functional urinary tract abnormalities
or untreated UTI
Infants and older adults affected
Associated with: indwelling catheters, renal calculi, diabetes,
pregnancy
A 25 year- old female presents to the primary care office with
urinary burning and frequency for the last 3 days. She denies
any fever, chills, back pain. Her gynecological history is
negative and reports no vaginal discharge. The only new
information reported is that she recently had sexual
intercourse with a new male partner.
The NP obtains a urinalysis and determines that the urine
contains leukocytes, RBCs, nitrites, and WBCs. No casts are
identified. Based on symptom presentation and UA results,
the patient can be diagnosed with: - ...ANSWER...cystitis

Loading page 6...

J.S. is an 80 -year-old patient who resides in a local nursing
home. He recently became confused and then fell while
ambulating to the bathroom three days ago. Because of his
confusion and fall, he was transferred to the acute care facility
for evaluation and treatment. Lab work revealed that the
patient was very dehydrated with hypernatremia identified
and appropriate intravenous fluids started. Cystitis was also
identified from the urinalysis. He was also noted to have red
and excoriated skin between the buttocks and inner thighs due
to urinary frequency and dribbling. To help with skin healing
and to prevent further urine leakage, an indwelling catheter
was inserted. Two days after the catheter was placed, the
patient spiked a fever of 102 degrees Fahrenheit associated
with shaking chills. An intense, foul odor was noted in the
urine. On examination of the flank area, the patient yelled out
when touched. A urine c - ...ANSWER...pyelonephritis
Identify the major risk factor J.S. has that is associated with
pyelonephritis: - ...ANSWER...indwelling foley catheter
The urinalysis of a patient with a complicated UTI will show
WBCs and casts - ...ANSWER...true
Upon examination of a urinalysis, the NP can highly suspect
that the causative bacteria are gram negative because of the
presence of: - ...ANSWER...nitrites
A 21-year-old patient reports to the primary care clinic
complaining of urinary urgency, frequency and burning. She
also reports a small amount of vaginal discharge that contains
an odor. It is likely that the NP will perform a vaginal exam at
this visit. - ...ANSWER...true

Loading page 7...

The NP would know that the patient most likely has an
uncomplicated UTI because: - ...ANSWER...The UTI
responds well to a short course of antibiotic therapy.
A common organism that causes a urinary tract infection
include: - ...ANSWER...Staphylococcus saprophyticus.
E coli
The purpose of straining in BPH is to overcome the
obstruction encountered during urination. - ...ANSWER...true
The peripheral zone of the prostate is the largest zone. -
...ANSWER...true
On a digital rectal exam to assess the quality of the prostate,
the NP would be concerned with which of the following
findings? - ...ANSWER...hard nodule
There is a significant risk for men with benign prostatic
hyperplasia (BPH) to develop cellular mutations that lead to
prostate cancer. - ...ANSWER...false
The patient most often develops symptoms of BPH when: -
...ANSWER...The prostatic urethra becomes obstructed.
Irritative symptoms - ...ANSWER...urinary frequency
nocturia
urgency that results from bladder hypertrophy and
dysfunction
obstructive symptoms - ...ANSWER...incomplete emptying
post-void dribbling

Loading page 8...

The action of a 5-Alpha-reductase inhibitor causes: -
...ANSWER...Shrinkage of the prostate gland.
Men who have BPH are prone to developing a UTI because: -
...ANSWER...Stagnated urine in the bladder promotes
bacterial growth.
The prostate specific antigen (PSA) helps to liquefy semen
post-ejaculation. - ...ANSWER...true
The underlying cause of BPH is that normal prostate cells
respond to increases in dihydrotestosterone that causes them
to live longer and multiply. - ...ANSWER...true
The location of the characteristic hyperplastic nodules of BPH
is: - ...ANSWER...In the periurethral zone.
The type of stone that forms due to a urinary tract infection is:
- ...ANSWER...Struvite stone.
Renal stones are formed when calcium and oxalate in the
urine combine. - ...ANSWER...true
Renal calculi are typically confined to the bladder. -
...ANSWER...false
The most common type of stone is: - ...ANSWER...calcium
stone
The gold standard for diagnosing a renal stone is a urinalysis.
- ...ANSWER...false (ct scan)

Loading page 9...

A 45-year-old male presents to the primary care office with
right flank pain that he describes as unremitting; he also
reports nausea and vomiting. The NP performs an exam and
observes him writhing in pain on the exam table with the
inability to find a comfortable position. He is afebrile, BP
156/88 mmHg and HR 106/min. Right flank is mildly tender
on palpation. Abdominal exam is negative for any
abnormality. A urinalysis was performed and revealed 1+
blood. Urine microscopy also revealed 10-20 RBCs per high-
power field (hpf). A kidney stone is suspected. The patient
reports no prior history of a kidney stone. After providing the
patient an analgesic, where the patient reported mild relief, the
NP had the patient transferred to the emergency room for
intravenous fluids, pain management and further work-up for
the kidney stone. Upon follow-up in the office a week later,
the patient reported that he was diagnosed with -
...ANSWER...adequate hydration
balanced diet
Lithotripsy is an invasive procedure used to break up the stone
- ...ANSWER...false
The most common stone found in the patient with gout is: -
...ANSWER...uric acid stone
Hematuria can be seen with kidney stones because: -
...ANSWER...The stone injures the urinary structures as it
passes through them.
Renal colic is caused by the passing of the stone through the
ureter. - ...ANSWER...true

Loading page 10...

At least half of individuals with renal stones will have a
reoccurrence within 10 years of the prior stone. -
...ANSWER...true
Which of the following actions will relax the detrusor muscle
of the bladder? - ...ANSWER...Activation of Beta-2 receptors
by the sympathetic nervous system.
The relay station in the brain that plays a major role in
regulating micturition is: - ...ANSWER...Pontine micturition
center.
The location of the internal sphincter is under the urogenital
diaphragm. - ...ANSWER...false (located in the bladder)
When the bladder is empty, the detrusor muscle relaxes, and
the internal and external sphincters constrict. -
...ANSWER...true
The levator ani muscle plays a major role in constriction of
the external sphincter. - ...ANSWER...true
stress incontinence - ...ANSWER...leakage of urine with
activity
Increased intra-abdominal pressure causes leaking because
there is no resistance to counteract the intra-abdominal
pressure
urge incontinence - ...ANSWER...leakage of urine with
sensation of need to urinate
Detrusor muscle hyperactivity leads to urine leakage

Loading page 11...

neurogenic incontinence - ...ANSWER...unimpeded urine
leakage
Neurological lesions alter nervous system impulses that
innervate the detrusor muscle. The result is decreased bladder
compliance and decreased sphincter tone
overflow incontinence - ...ANSWER...leakage of urine is
associated with urgency, frequency, dribbling, and hesitancy
Leakage is due to retained urine in the bladder that leads to
over-distention
A 54-year-old female reports to the primary care office with
complaints of frequent urination. She reports that she is
"leaking" urine several times a day, especially when she
coughs, sneezes, or lifts a heavy object. She indicates that she
has not experienced any dysuria or any urgency. The NP
looked at the patient's previous urine culture obtained
approximately 1 month ago and determined that it was
negative. Other than her urinary complaints, she is in
otherwise good health. BP 128/76; HR 78 bpm; T 98.6; Ht.
5'4"; Wt: 180lbs.; BMI 30.9. The NP performs a physical
exam and all findings are normal. The urinalysis obtained was
negative as well.
Based on patient's symptoms and negative physical exam, she
has a typical
1. blank.
The leaking occurs when the abdominal pressure increases
during coughing, sneezing, and lifting. We can rule out urge
incontinence because the denied urgency with her urination.
We could not - ...ANSWER...1. stress incontinence
2. stress incontinence

Loading page 12...

A sphincter malfunction that prevents urine from flowing out
of the bladder would most likely result in: -
...ANSWER...overflow incontinence
The major cause of stress incontinence in women is
hypermobility of the external sphincter. - ...ANSWER...true
The pathophysiology of neurogenic bladder is: -
...ANSWER...Lesions alter nervous system impulses that
innervate the detrusor muscle to decrease bladder compliance
and decreased sphincter tone.
Involuntary loss of urine caused by dementia or immobility is
known as: - ...ANSWER...functional incontinence
Which of the following is considered be a transient cause of
urinary incontinence? - ...ANSWER...UTI
A pre-renal cause of acute renal failure is: -
...ANSWER...hypotension
One of the first pathophysiological responses to the decreased
GFR in acute renal failure is: - ...ANSWER...Activation of the
renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system.
One of the major markers for glomerular filtration rate is
creatinine. - ...ANSWER...true
Pre-renal is the most common cause of acute renal failure.
The most common cause of acute renal failure is due to a pre-
renal failure. - ...ANSWER...true
Acute renal failure - ...ANSWER...Oliguria (< 30ml/hr).

Loading page 13...

Increased blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine.
Fluid and electrolyte abnormalities.
Pre-renal - ...ANSWER...sudden and severe drop in blood
pressure or interruption of blood flow to the kidneys from
severe injury or illness
Intra-renal - ...ANSWER...direct damage to the kidneys by
inflammation, toxins, drugs, infection, or reduced blood
supply
Post-renal - ...ANSWER...sudden obstruction of urine flow
due to enlarged prostate, kidney stones, bladder tumor, or
injury
In post-renal failure, the damage occurs in the collecting duct.
- ...ANSWER...truen
In intrinsic renal failure, sodium and water excretion is
increased which leads to a dilute urine. - ...ANSWER...true
Which of the following is the best indicator of a good
prognosis for recovery from acute renal failure? -
...ANSWER...The kidney responds to furosemide
Which of the following is true regarding creatinine? -
...ANSWER...Creatinine gets freely filtered from the
glomerulus.
One of the issues that requires management of a patient with
acute renal failure is hypokalemia - ...ANSWER...false
(Hyperkalemia)

Loading page 14...

The result of vitamin D deficiency results in: -
...ANSWER...hypocalcemia
The number one cause of end-stage renal disease is diabetes
mellitus and hypertension combined. - ...ANSWER...true
Stage III kidney disease is signified when the GFR drops
below 60. - ...ANSWER...true
Which of the following is a complication of decreased GFR? -
...ANSWER...anemia
The anemia seen in renal failure is due to the lack or iron. -
...ANSWER...false (Anemia occurs because there is a reduced
production of erythropoietin which is responsible for
triggering the production of RBCs rather than the lack of iron
or a decrease in the RBCs)
stage 1 - ...ANSWER...There is kidney damage with normal
or elevated GFR (90-120)
Stage 2 - ...ANSWER...There is kidney damage with mild
decrease in GFR (60-89)
stage 3 - ...ANSWER...There is a moderate decrease in GFR
(30-59)
stage 4 - ...ANSWER...There is a severe decrease in GFR (15-
29)
stage 5 - ...ANSWER...Kidney failure- End-stage renal
disease (<15 dialysis)

Loading page 15...

Need dialysis with these symptoms - ...ANSWER...Metabolic
acidosis.
Hyperkalemia: Hyperkalemia in the presence of EKG changes
(peaked T-waves) is an indication for dialysis. Hyperkalemia
by itself is not an indication for dialysis.
Drug toxicity: Drug toxicity due to the following drugs is an
indication for dialysis and include salicylates, Lithium,
Isopropanol, Methanol and Ethylene glycol).
Fluid volume overload that is not responsive to diuretics.
Uremic symptoms due to nitrogenous wastes in the blood
stream.
The decision to begin dialysis is guided by the patient's
symptoms rather than GFR. - ...ANSWER...true
Diuretic therapy is used in Stage IV kidney failures to
stimulate kidney function. - ...ANSWER...false (diuretics used
for stages 1-111 and dialysis for 4 and 5)
The major acid/base disturbance in renal failure is: -
...ANSWER...metabolic acidosis
Dietary management of a patient with CKD includes: -
...ANSWER...low potassium, low sodium, and low phosphate
The Monoamine Deficiency Theory states that the underlying
basis of depression is low levels of serotonin, norepinephrine
and dopamine. - ...ANSWER...true
Dysthymia is a persistent depressive disorder used to describe
milder symptoms of depression that happen over longer
periods of time. - ...ANSWER...true

Loading page 16...

15 more pages available. Scroll down to load them.

Preview Mode

100%

Study Now!

XY-Copilot AI

Unlimited Access

Secure Payment

Instant Access

24/7 Support

Document Chat

Document Details

University

Chamberlain College of Nursing

Subject

Medicine

2024 NR507 Pathophysiology Final Exam With Answers (356 Solved Questions)

Study Now!

Document Details

Related Documents

NR507 Pathophysiology Midterm Exam Week 4 With Answers (60 Solved Questions)

NR507 Pathophysiology Case Study Week 3 With Answers (8 Solved Questions)

2022 NR507 Pathophysiology Final Exam With Answers (75 Solved Questions)

SkillGrp4Program Software

ATI medication template

ACLS Final Test Questions

Topic 5 Performance Assessment Form A Answer Key

UHC 2024 AHIP Medicare Basics Assessment (Medicare

CPR Webquest

BLS FINAL EXAM 2024

Company

Explore

Study Tools