Blue Book NCLEX Review notes

Name: Blue Book NCLEX Review notes
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Author: Alice Edwards

This is a condensed NCLEX review guide covering essential nutrition facts, infant care practices, and Bell’s Palsy basics—perfect for quick nursing exam prep and memorization.

Alice Edwards

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Bull
BOOK
NCLEX
REVIEW NOTES
MURSING*EXAM
Svcceti

Blue Book
NUTRITION
Name the 5/6 essential nutrients Carbs, fats, proteins, vitamins, minerals, water
The major source of energy for the body is... Carbs
Carbs provide ____ Kcalories per 1 gram 4
Sucrose is a sugar found in _______ anc _______ Fruits, veggies
Lactose is a sugar found in? Milk
What is glycogen? It is a stored formed of glucose/energy manufactured by the liver
Is glycogen eaten in foods? NO ft is a stored form of glucose manufactured by the live f
When the body does not receive enough carbs, it burns ____ & ___.
The most con centrated source of ene rgy for th e body is
protein fats
Fats ’
Fats provide ________ Kcalories per 1 gram 9
Fats carry vitamins A D E K
The nutrient needed most for growth and repair of tissues is Protein (second best is Vrt C|
Proteins provide __________Kcalories per 1 gram. 4
Vitamins and minerals provide energy for the body. |T/F) False— they are necessary for a body's chemical reactions
Water is present in ALL body tissues. (T/F) True (even bone)
tater a ccounts for to % of a n adLilt's tota 1 weig ht 50% to 60% f s i
Name the four basic food groups
tater accounts for ___ to ___96 of an infant's total weight
Milkcheese meatlegumes vegeta blesfru'rts breadcereal
70 75
An individual is overweight if they are ___% above the ideal weight 16
An individual is obese if they weigh __96 above the ideal weight 20
INFANTS
Can you use cotton swabs to dean the eyes, nares or ears of
an infant?
No, this is dangerous
Can you use the same cotton ball/washckith edge for both eyes? No it would cross contaminate
What temperature is appropriate for the water used to bathe
an infant?
100-105
How should the temperature of the water be tested is no
thermometer is available?
1 —
Dropping wate r on inside surface of yo ur forearm
When cleansing an infant's eye, cleanse from outer to inner
canthus?
No, inner to outer
Should you retract the foreskin of a 5-week-old male,
uncircumcised infant to dear sc the area?
—
W hen sp o nge-bath i ng wit h te oi d water the correct te m p is
No, not until foreskin retracts naturally and without
resistance— then it should be retracted, cleansed & replaced
9®6F
The primary reason why an infant is draped during the bath is
to provide privacy. T/F)
False, the primary purpose of draping is to prevent chilling.
You may use friction to remove vernix caseosa from an infant's
skin. (T/F)
False, it causes damage/bruising
What solution is commonly used for care of umbilical cord? 7096 alcohol to promote drying (trend is toward soap fi. water)
BELLS PALSY
What cranial nerve is affected in Bell's Palsy? #7, facial nerve
What is the #1 symptom of Bell's Palsy? Onesided (unilateral) facial paralysis
Comp lete recovery from the pa ra lysis of Bel I's PaIsy s ho uId
occur in to months.
4 to 6
1 In addition to the facial paralysis, the sense of ___ is also affected taste
till the patient be able to close their eye on the affected side no
G ive thre e ey e inte rventions for t he cl ient wit h Bell 's PaIsy Dark glasses, artificial tears, cover eye at night

MEN'5 PROSTATE
As the prostate enlarges it compresses the ______ and causes
urln ary ______.
Urethra, retention
At what age does BPH occur? Men over 50 y/ o
What does BPH stand for? Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy
IN BPH the man has (intreased/decreased) frequency of urination Increased
In BPH the force of the urinary stream is [increased/decreased) Decreased
The man with BPH has a _________-stream of urine Forked
The man with BPH has hesitancy. What does this mean? Difficulty starting to void
Will the man with BPH have enuresis, nocturia or hematuria? Enuresis—No
Nocturia— Yes
Hematuria—Maybe
Enuresis 1n abi lity to cont ra 1 the flow of uline & invo luntary u tin ati o n
What is the best way to screen men for BPH? Digital rectal Exam
Should fluids be forced or restricted in BPH? Forced
What does TURF stand for? Transurethral resection of the prostate
The most radical prostate surgery is the _____ prostatectomy Perineal
What type of diet is used in BPH? Acid Ash
Acid Ash diet Decrease pH I makes urine acid)
Chz, eggs, Meat, fish, oysters, poultry, Bread, Cereal, Whole
Grains, Pastries, Cranberries, Prunes, Plums, Tomatoes,
Peas, Com, Legumes.
BLADDER Tx?
What is the primary purpose of a 3-way continuous bladder
irrigation (CBI) after TURP?
To keep the catheter clear of clots and to drain urine
W hat so lution is used for CBI? Normal saline (0.9 NaCI)
How fast do you run the CBI? At whatever rate it takes to keep the urine flowing & free of clots
What drug is used to treat bladder spasm?' BSD suppositories (Belladonna & Opiates)
PROCTECTOMY
Should you take a rectal temp after prostatectomy? Give stool
softeners?
No rectal temperatures, yes stool softeners
You should call the MD after TURP when you see ______ thick
______, _____ clots, and _____ urine drainage on the dressing.
Bright thick blood, persistent clots, persistent urine on dressing
(don't call MD for transitory dots 3. urine on dressing.)
If yo u see an increa se in bl ood content of uri ne comi ng out of
the catheter, you would first ___________.
Pull ca ref u lly on t he cat hete r to a p p ly loca 1 p ressure on the
prostate with the Foley balloon.
If you see clots in the tubing, you would first _________. 1nc teas e t he flow-rate
What exercises should the post proctectomy patient do upon
discharge? Why?
Perineal exercises, start and stop stream of urine, because
dribbling is a common but temporary problem post op
Will the post proctectomy patient be impotent? If TURP, no impotence, if perineal prostatectomy, yes impotence
FOLEY CARE
How often should the drainage bag be emptied? Every S hours
What is the most common problem due to catheterization? UTI
What is the most common organism to cause UTI with
catheterization?
E. coli
W hat is t he most common route for orga nisms to e nter the
bladder when a catheterization is used?
Up through the inside of the catheter in the days following
catheterization
Name foods that make acid urine Cranberry juice, apple juice [avoid citrus juices- they make
alkaline urine |
What is important about the level of the urinary drainage bag? Never have the bag at a higher level than the bladder.
How is the catheter taped in a male client? To the lateral thigh or abdomen
How is the catheter taped in = female client? To the upper thigh

What urinary pH prevents UT1? Acidity, low pH
Should the drainage bag ever touch the floor? NO
Is it ok to routinely irrigate indwelling catheters? NO
What agents are best for catheter care? Soap Sc Water
What is the most effective way to decrease UTI with catheters? Keep the drainage system closed, do not disconnect junction
of tubing
Give some signs of infection in a Foley catheter Cloudy urine, foul smelling urine, hematuria
Is urinary incontinence an indication for catheterization?
Give 3 appropriate indications for bladder catheterization?
NO
Urinary retention, to check for residual, to monitor hourly
output
What are the top 2 diagnoses for a client with a catheter?
Which is#l?
#1- Potential for infection; Potential impairment of urethral
tissue integrity
BLOOD PRESSURE
What is systole? The M AX IM AL force of b lood o n arte ry wa Ils
What is diastole? The LOWEST force of blood on artery walls
Accurate blood pressure is obtained by using a cuff that has
width of _________the arm.
Two-thirds
Which artery Is most commonly used to measure blood
pressure?
Brachial
Can the thigh EVER be used to obtain a blood pressure? Yes, but this is rare
When pressure is auscultated the 1st sound heard is the ____
measurement.
Systolic
The change in the character of the sounds is known as the ____ 1st diastolic sound
The cessation of sounds is known as the ________ 2nd diastolic sound
W hen 2 values are given in a bl oo d press ure th e first is the
_ _ _ measurement.
Systolic
When 2 values are given in a blood pressure, the bottom
number stands for the change in sounds or cessation of sounds?
Cessation of sounds
What is the normal adult blood pressure? 120/80
Abnormally high blood pressure is callee ___________ Hypertension
W hat is the pulse press u re? The difference between the systolic & diastolic BP
If you deflate a cuff TOO SLOWLY, the reading will be too high
or low? Why?
High, venous congestion makes the arterial pressure higher
(increases resistance;
If you use too narrow of a cuff the reading will be too high or
low?
High
Vas o const rict ion wi11 __________b lood press ure. Increase
Vasodilation will blood pressure. Decrease
Shock will __________blood pressure. Decrease
Increased intracranial pressure will _____the pulse pressure Increase or widen
If my blood pressure is 190/1ID, what is my pulse pressure? 80 mmHg
BLOOD TRANSFUSION
What blood test must be done before a transfusion? Type and cross match
What does a type and cross match indicate? Whether the client's blood and donor blood are compatible.
What should the nurse measure before starting a transfusion? Vital signs
With what solution should blood be transfused? 0.9 normal saline
How many nurses are required to check the blood? 2 nurses
What happens when blood is administered with Dextrose IVs?
If a transfusion reaction occurs what should the nurse do first?
The cells clump together & don't flow well
Stop the blood flow Si start running the saline
How long can a unit of blc-od be on the unit before it must oe Less than 1/2 hour

What should the nurse do with the IV line if transfusion
reaction is suspected?
Keep it open with sali ne
If a transfusion reaction is suspected, what two samples are
collected and sent to the lab?
Urine 3. blood
If unit of blood is infused through a centra 1 line it mustbe ____ warmed
Which of the following are signs of transfusion reaction?
Bradycardia, Fever, Hives, Wheezing, Increased BP, Low Back Pain
Low back pain, wheezing, fever, hives
What are 3 types of transfusion reactions that can occur? Hemolytic, febrile, allergic
What would you do l’ x if you suspected transfusion reaction? Stop the blood and start the saline
What are the signs & symptoms of a hemolytic transfusion
reaction?
Shivering, HA, low back pain, increased pulse 3 respirations,
decreasing BP, oliguria, hematuria
What are the signs & symptoms of a febrile transfusion
reaction?
Low back pain, shaking HA, increasing temperature,
confusion, hemoptysis
What are the signs & symptoms of an allergic reaction to a
transfusion?
Hives- urticaria, wheezing, pruritus, joint pain, [arthralgia)
Give 3 reasons for a blood transfusion Restore blood volume secondary to hemorrhage, maintain
hemoglobin in anemia, replace specific blood components
What does blood-typing mean? Check for surface antigen on the red blood cell
When does typing and cross matching need to be done? Whenever a client gets a blood product. Its only good for 24
hours
What does blood cross matching mean? Mixing a little of the client's blood with the donor blood and
looking for agglutination.
When are hemolytic transfusion reactions likely to occur? In the first 10 to 15 minutes
When is a febrile reaction likely to occur? Within 30 minutes of beginning the transfusion
What test identifies Rh factor? Coombs test detects antibodies to Rh
What's the difference between whole blood & packed cells? Packed cells don't have nearly as much plasma or volume as
whole blood does
What would you do if the client had an increasing temperature
3. was to get blood?
Call the MD because blood is often held with an elevated
temperature
How long should it take for one unit of blood to infuse? From one hour to three hours
How long should you stay with the patient after beginning a
transfusion?
At least 15 to 30 minutes
What blood type is the universal recipient? AB
What blood type is the universal donor? □
What is the routine for vital sign measurement with a
transfusion?
Once before administration
QL5 x 2 after administration is begun
Q I x l after transfusion has stopoed
What IV solution is hung with a blood transfusion? 0.9 normal saline (No glucose)
What gauge needle is used with a blood transfusion? Large gauge, IS gauge
What other things are appropriate after a reaction? Call MD, get a blood sample, get urine sample, monitor vitals,
send blood to lab
Can blood be given immediately after removal from refrigeration? No, it has to be warm e d first for only abo ut 20 to 30 m in
BREASTFEEDING
With what solution 3. when should a breast-feeding mother
cleanse the areola?
Plain water, before £ after each feeding
For a woman who doesn't have retracted nipples, is towel
drying or air drying better?
Air drying of nipples is best
The goal is for the infant to breast feed for _____ min per side. 20
How does the mother break the suction of the breast feeding
infant?
She inserts her little finger into the side of the infant's
mouth
When should the breastfeeding infant be burped? After feeding from each breast
Assuming no mastitis, on which side should the breastfeeding
begin?
Begin nursing on the side that the baby finished on the last
feeding

How long can breast milk be refrigerated? 24 hours
How long can breast milk be frozen? S months
In what type of contai ner sho uId b reast mi Ik b e stored? Sealed plastic bags
Can ya u m icrowave frozen bre ast m il k to warm /th aw it? Never
Which two nutrients is breast milk lower in? Fluoride and iron
What should you tell a breast-feeding mother about her milk
supply when she goes home from the hospital?
Milk should come in postpartum day 3. Breastfeed every 2-3
hours to establish good milk supply.
Can a woman on oral contraceptives breastfed? Should not use OCP during the first 5 wks after birth because
the hormones may decrease milk supply.
Estrogen is not recommended. Non-horrroral methods are
recommended. Remember, breastfeeding is an unreliable
contraceptive.
BUERGERS
What is another name for Buerger's disease? Thromboangltis obliterans
Which extremities are affected by It? Lower only
Which sex does it affect the most often? Males
The group with the highest incidence of Buerger's disease is Smokers
Upon walking the patient with buerger's experiences _______ Intermittent Claudication
What is intermittent claudication? Pain in calf upon walking
BURNS
A first-degree burn is pale or red? Red
A first-degree burn has vesicles [T/F)? False
A second-degree burn is pale or red? Red
A second-degree burn is dull or shiny? Shiny
A second-degree burn has vesides. (T/F) True
A second-degree burn is wet or dry? Wet
A third-degree burn is white or red? White
A third-degree burn is wet or dry? Dry
A third-degree burn is hard or soft? hard
Of l rt, 2r i and 3rd degree burns which has less pain? Why? Third degree burns, nerve damage has occurred
Fdr what p urpose do you use the ru le of ni nes ? To estimate the percentage of body surface burned; is NOT
used for children.
In the rule of nines, the head and neck receive ____: each arm
rece ives _______.
9%, 9%
In the rule of nines, the front trunk gets _______, the posterior
trunk gets ____, each leg gets ____ and the genitalia gets ____ .
18%, 18%, 18%, 1%
What is the only IM given to a burn patient? Tetanus toxoid- if they had a previous Immunization; tetanus
antitoxin- if they have never been Immunized before [or
immune globulin)
In the emergent phase do you cover burns? (in the field) Ves, with anything clean and dry.
Should you remove adhered clothing? No
Name the 3 phases of burn Shock, diuretic, recovery
Fluid moves from the _____ to the ______ in the SHOCK phase. Bloodstream, interstitial space
The shock phase lasts for the T: ___ to ____ hours after a burn. 24 to 48 hours
During shock phase of a burn is potassium increased or
decreased? Why?
Increased, because of all the cells damaged- the K+ is
released from damaged cells.
What acid-base disorder is seen in the shock phase of a bum? PJetabolic Acidosis
What is the #1 therapy In the shock phase? Fluid repla cement/resuscitati on
W hat is t he si m pie formula for ca leulatin g fl uid repla ceme nt
needs in the first 24 hours?
3cc X Kg X % burned per day

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If the MD orders 2,B00 co of fluid in the first 24 hours after a
bum, one- _______of it must be infused in the first 8 hours.
Half (or 1,430 cc)
What blood value will dictate IV flow rate? The hematocrit
How will you know the patient has entered the fluid
mobilization or diuretic phase?
The urine output will increase
How long does the fluid mobilization or diuretic phase of a
bum last?
2 to S days
In the diuretic phase, K+ levels fall or rise? Fall- remember diuresis always causes hypokalemia
If the nurse accidentally runs the IVs at the shock phase rate
during the diuretic phase the patient will experience?
Pulmonary edema
The burn patient will be on ____urine output & dally _____. Hourly, weight
Sulfamyon cream __________. Burns
Silver nitrate cream __________the _______ Stains, skin
Pain medications should be administered __________ before
__________ care.
30 minutes, wound care
When using silver nitrate, the dressings must be kept ______. Wet
What is Curlings ulcer? Why is it a problem in burn patients?
What drug prevents it?
It is a stress Gl ulcer; you get these with any severe physical
stress. Tagamet, Zantac, Pepcid (any H2 receptor antagonist),
Protonix Prilosec
ABRUPTION PLACENTA
In Abruptio Placenta, the placenta ________from the uterine
wall ___________.
Separates, prematurely
Abruptio Placenta usually occurs in (prima/multi) gravida over
the age of ___________
Multigravida, 35 (HTN, trauma, cocaine)
How is t he bl eeding of Ab rupti o Placenta diffe rent from that in
placenta previa?
usually pain; bleeding is more voluminous in previa
If you are the nurse starting the IV on the client with Abruptia
Placenta, what gauge needle should you use?
IB (in preparation to give blood if necessary)
How often should you measure the vital signs, vaginal
bleeding, fetal heart rate during Abruptio Placenta>?
Q5-15 minutes for bleeding and maternal VS, continuous
fetal monitoring, deliver at earliest sign of fetal distress
How is an infant delivered when Abruptio Placenta is present? Usually C-sectlon
Is there a higher or lower incidence of fetal death with
Abruptio Placenta compared to Placenta Previa?
Higher
1n what tri mester does Abruptio P lace nta most commonly
occur?
3rd
POSIONING
At what age are accidental poisonings most common? 2 years old
If a chilld swallows a potentially poisonous substance, what
should be done first?
Call medical help
Should vomiting be induced after ingestion of gasoline? No- not for gas or any other petroleum products
When taking a child to the ER after accidental poisoning has
occurred what must accompany the child to the ER?
the suspected poison
An elderly d ent is a (high/low) risk for accidental poisoning?
W hat a oo ut a schoo1 age ch i Id ?
high - due to poor eyesight, high
What types of chemicals cause burns to oral mucosa when
ingested?
Lye, ca u Stic c lea r e rs
Children at highest risk for seizure activity after ingestion are
those who have swallowed ________and _________
drugs, insecticides
Ca n Impaired skin integrity eve r be an appro priate nursln g
diagnosis when poisoning has occurred?
Yes, when lye or caustic agents have been ingested

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I ACNE
What is the causative organism of acne? P. acnes (Prop ion i bacterium acres)
W hat structures are involved! In acne vulgaris? The sebaceous glands
Name 3 drugs given for acne? Vitamin A, Antibiotics, Retinoids
□ ieta ry ir*disc rations and unclean liness are causes of acne ? False
What are the 3 causative factors in acne vulgaris? Heredity,. Bacterial, Hormonal
Uncleanliness is a cause of acne? False
What is the most common retinoid given to people with acne? Accutane
Accuta n e is a n a nalog of w hlch vitam i n ? Vitamin A
What is most common side effect of Accutane? And what Is
most important in health teaching in administration?
Inflammation of the lips; Causes birth defects
What is the antibiotic most commonly given to clients with acne? Tetracycline
How long will it take for the person to see results when acne is
being treated?
4 to 5 weeks
Does stress make acne worse? Yes
How often should the client with acne wash his face each day? Twice a day
What instructions do you give to a client taking tetracycline? Take it on an empty stomach 3. avoid sunlight
(photosensitivity)
What are comedones? Blackheads and white heads
HIV/AIDS
W hat viru s ca uses Al DS? HIV - Human immunodeficiency virus
The AIDS virus invades helpe p ____________. T-lymphocytes (or CD4 cells)
AIDS is transmissible through what four routs? blood, sexual contact, breast feeding, across placenta in utero
HIV is present in all body fluids? Yes, but rot transmitted by all, only blood, semen & breast milk
Name the 5 risk groups for AIDS Homo/bisexual men, IV drug users, hemophiliacs, heterosexual
partners of infected people, newborn children of infected women
What is the first test for HIV antibodies? EUSA
What test confirms the ELISA? Western Blot
Which test is the best indicator of the progress of HIV disease? CD4 count
A CD4 count of under ________Is associated with the onset of
Al DS- related symptoms.
500
A CD4 count of under ________Is associated with the onset of
o p portu nistlc infections.
200
Give 5 symptoms of HIV disease. Anorexia, fatigue, weakness, night sweats, fever, diarrhea
Which 2 classes of drugs are given in combination for HIV sero-
positivity?
NRTl's (nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors) and Pl's
(protease inhibitors)
They prevent viral replication.
NRTI (nucleoside reverse transcriptase Inhibitors) ar antiviral drug used against HIV (is incorporated into the DNA
of the virus and stops the building process; results in incomplete
DNA that cannot create a new virus; often used in combination
with other drugs)
Pl's (Protease inhibitors) most potent of antiviral meds, inhibit cell protein synthesis that
interferes with viral replication, does not cure but slows
progression of AIDS and prolongs life, used prophylactically, used
in AIDS to decrease viral load and opportunistic infections
What do NRTl's and Pl's do? They prevent viral replication
What does the physician hope to achieve with NRTl's and Pl's
for HIV?
A delayed onset of AIDS for as long as possible (usually can
delay onset for 10-15 years)
What is the most common NRTI used? AZT (zidovudine)
What is the most challenging aspect of combination of drug
therapy for HIV disease?
The number of pills that must be taken in 24 hrs can be
overwhelming. The frequency also makes it hard to ramember-
an alarm wristwatch is used.
Clients with AIDS Igain/lose) weight? lose

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The typical pneumonia of AIDS is caused by ________________. Pneumocystic carinli
What type of oral/esophagea infections do AIDS patients get? Candida
What is the #1 cancer that AIDS patients get? Kaposi's sarcoma
Kaposi's sarcoma is a cancer of the ___________. Skin
T/F: AIDS patients get lymphomas? True
What lab findings are present in AIDS? Decreased RBC's, WBC's and platelets
If the AIDS pati ent has leukopenia they will be on __________ protective (reverse) isolation
Define Leukopenia decrease in wbc, indicated viral infection
W i t h o u t leukopenia the AIDS patient will be on __________
precautions.
Standard precautions or blood and body fluid precautions
When the AIDS patient has a low platelet count, what is indicated? bleeding precautions; No IM's, no rectal temperatures, other
bleeding precautions
Does AIDS require a single room? Yes - if WBC counts are low
When do you need a gown with AIDS? If you are going to get contaminated with secretions
When do you need a mask with AIDS? Not usually unless they have an infection caused by an
airborne bug
When do you need goggles with AIDS? Suctioning, central line start, arterial procedures
If an AIDS patient's blood contaminates a co u nte r-to p, with
what do you clean?
1:10 solution of bleach and water
Are all articles used by AIDS patients double-bagged? no - only those contaminated with secretions
Can AIDS patients leave the floor? Yes, unless WBC's are very low
ACUTE GLOMERULONEPHRITIS
Is dietary protein limited in AGN? Not usually, however if there is severe azotemia then it may be
restricted
Define azotemia? nitrogenous wastes in the blood (increased creatinine, BUN)
What is the best indicator of renal function? The serum creatinine
Do people recover from AGN? Yes, the vast majority of all clients recover completely from it
How can AGN be prevented? By ha vi ng a II s o re t hroats cultured fo r stre p and treati ng a ny
strep infections
What is the most important intervention in treating AGN? Bedrest - they can walk if hematuria, edema & hypertension are
gone.
What is the most common dietary restriction for AGN? Moderate sodium restriction. Fluid restriction is #2 if edema is
severe.
What are the urinalysis findings on AGN? Hematuria
Proteinuria +3 to +4
Specific gravity Up
How long after strep infection does AGN develop? 2 to 3 weeks after initial infection
How do you assess fluid excess in the child with AGN? Daily weight
What organism causes acute glomerular nephritis? Group A beta hemolytic strep
What happens to the kidney in AGN? It becomes clogged with antigen-antibody complexes which
then cause inflammation and loss of function.
How often are vital sign measurements taker in AGN? Q4 hours with blood pressure
Will the client have hypo Dr hypertension with AGN? Why? Hypertension, because of fluid retention
What are the first signs of AGN? Puffiness of face, dark urine
CHILDHOOD DEVELOPMENT
What are the three adult stages of development called early adulthood, middle adulthood and later adulthood
What is the age range for early adulthood? 19 to 35 years of age
What is the age range for middle adulthood? 35 to 64 years of age
What is the age range for late adulthood? 64 years of age to death
What is the developmental task for early adulthood? Intimacy vs. Isolation
W hat is t he deve lopm e nta 1 ta sk for middle adulthood ? Generativity vs. stagnation.

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Intimacy vs. Isolation Erikson's stage in which individuals form deeply personal
relationships, marry, begin families
Generativity vs. Stagnation Erikson's stage of social development in which middle-aged
peo pl e begin to d evote the mseIves m o re to fulfilling one 's
potential and doing public service
What is the developmental task for later adulthood? Ego Integrity vs. Despair
Ego Integrity vs. Despair (Erikson; People in late adulthood either achieve a sense of
integrity of the self by accepting the lives they have lived or
yield to despair that their lives cannot be relived
Time is too short to start another life, though 1 wish 1 could,"
is an example of ___________.
despair
“If 1 had to do it over aga 'r r I'd life my life just about the
same," is an example of _____________
Ego Integrity
AMPUTATIONS
What does AKA mean? Above the knee amputation
What does BKA mean? Below the knee amputation
If the patient had an AKA they should lie _ _ several times per day Prone (to prevent flexion contracture|
The #1 contracture problem in AKA is ______of the _____ Flexion, hip
What will prevent hip flexion contracture after AKA? Lying prone several times a day
What is the £*1contracture problem after BKA? Flexion of the knee
How do you prevent flexion contracture of the knee after B<A? Remind the patient to straightentheir knee constantly while
standing
To prevent post-op swelling, the stump should be _____. elevated
How long should the stump be elevated to prevent post op
swelling?
12—24 hours
How often should a stump be washed? Daily
When a stump is wrapped, the bandage should be tightest ____
and loosest ______.
distally (far from the center), proximally (neareast to the point)
If after a right BKA, the client c/o pain in his right tow, he is
experiencing ____________.
phantom limb sensation (which is normal)
When will phantom limb sensation subside? 1n a few mont hs
Name ways to toughen a stump so it will not breakdown due to
the wear of the prosthetic leg?
push the stump against the wall, hitting it with a pillow
ANEURYSM
An aneurysm is an abnormal ___ of the wall of a|nJ artery. widening (it is also weakening)
What artery is widened in a thoracic aneurysm? the aorta
An aneurysm can result from an ____and from _____. infection, syphilis
The most common symptom of abdominal aneurysm is: a pulsating mass above the umbilicus
Which aneurysm is most likely to have no symptoms? the abdominal is most often "silent"
Which vital signs are most important to measure in clients
with aneurysm?
The pulse and blood pressure
An aneurysm will most affect which of the following, the blood
p ressure or the puIse?
the pulse (many times the aneurysm will rupture, and much
blood will be lost before the blood pressure starts to change.
What activity order is the client with an aneurysm supposed to
have?
Bedrest, do not get these people up
If the client with aneurysm is physically unstable, should you
encourage turning, coughing and deep breathing?
no, bedrest until the client is stable!
What class of drugs is the client with an aneurysm most likely
to be on?
Antihypertensives
What is the BIG danger with aneurysms of any type? Rupture, leads to shock and death
If an aneurysm is ruptured how would you know it?
1_____________________________________________________
decreased LOG (restlessness), tachycardia, hypotension - all
signs of shock

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If an aneurysm ruptures what is the #1 priority? Get them to the operating room ASAP
Is there anything that can be done for the client with a ruptured
aneurysm before they get to the operating room?
Th e post op thoracic ane ury s m is most 1ikely to have wh ich
ty oe of tube?
Yes, if avalla b le you ca n get them i nto antishock tro users but
not if this causes a delay in getting them to the OR
Chest tube, because the chest wa s o pen ed
Th e post op abdominal a neu rysm repair client is most likely to
have which type of tube?
NG tube for decompression of bowel
If you care for a client who is post-op for a repair of a femora
popliteal resection what assessment must you make every hour
for the first 24 hours?
check the distal extremity (far from center) for color,
temperature, pain & PULSE, also MUST document
CHEST PA1N/M.1.
What causes angina pectoris? Decreased blood supply to myocardium, resulting in ischemia
& pain
Describe the pain of ar gin a pectoris crushing substernal chest pain that may radiate
What drug treats angina pectoris? Nitroglycerine
How do you tell if a client has angina or an Ml? the pain of the two is similar, the way to tell the difference is
if nitro & rest relieve the pain. For angina, nitro & rest
relieve the pain, for Ml, nitro S. rest do not relieve the pain
How many nitro tabs can you take before you call the doctor? 3
How many mins should lapse between the nitro pills you take? 5 mi n s - ta ke one nit ro tab every 5 mins 3 tim es, if n o relief,
call MD
By what route do you take nitro? sublingual
What is the action of nitro? dilates coronary arteries to increase blood supply (02
supply) and reduces preload.
What are the top 2 side effects of nitro? headache and hypotension
What precaution must the nurse take when administering
topical nitro paste?
wear gloves, nurse may get a dose of the med
Everyone with angina needs bypass surgery? t/f False
EATING DISORDERS
Anorexics are usually _______ under the age of _____. females, 25
The diagnosis is made when there is a wt loss of ____%or more
of body weight.
15 (weigh < 35% of normal body wt), hospitalize if 30% wt loss
A major mental/emotional nursing diagnosis seen in anorexia
nervosa is ___________
Altered body image
The pulse rate of anorexics is tachycardic or bradycardic?
List the most common gynecologic symptom of anorexia nervosa?
Bradycardic
amenorrhea
What is found over the body of the client with anorexia nervosa? lanugo (soft downy hair)
What is the top priority in the care of the client with anorexia
nervosa?
intake of enough food to keep them alive, have them gain wt
The best goal to evaluate the progress of the client with anorexia
nervosa?
an adequate weight gain
NEWBORN CARE
W hat is the apgar seal e? quick objective way to evaluate the vital functions of the
newborn
When is a pg ar scaring performed on infants? at one minute and again at 5 minutes after the birth
Name the 5 criteria that are recorded on an apgar scale Cardiac status, respiratory effort, muscle tone,
neuromuscular irritability & color
Th e tota 1 apgar sco re ca n range from Oto ID
The maximum scone an infant can receive on any one of the
criteria is
2
A 10 on the apgar means the baby is in terrific health
A 3 on the apgar means the baby is stillborn

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On heart rate ar cardiac status, a 2 means that the HR Is above
_______BPM.
100
On the HR criteria an Infant score a "1“ if their HR is _______
tha n D a nd ____________100
greater, less than
In order to score a 0 on HR the infant must have a rate of _ Zero
A h1gh score of 2 is given fa r respi rato ny effo rt if the new born Cries vigorously
An infant is given a score of 1 if their respirations are _______
or ________.
Slow or irregular
An infant is given a score of 0 for respiratory effort if ________ They do not breathe
In order to get a score of 2 on muscle tone the infant must Move spontaneously (actively)
To get a sea re of l o a t h e APGAR for m use le tone the newborn
must place their extremities in ____________
Flexion
A newborn receives a score of 0 on muscle tone when there is No movement (limp)
To scare the maximum af 2 paints an neuromuscular reflex
irritability the infant must ______________.
Cry
If the neonate ________, they will score a 1 on neuro muscular
irritability.
Grimaces
To receive a 0 on reflex (neuromuscular: irritability the neonate
must exhibit ____________.
No response
To score a ma ximum sea re of 2 on colo r t he child m u st be ____. Totally pink
If the child's _______ are ______ and the trunk -face abdomen
are ________, the child scores 1 an color
Extremities are blue (cyanotic), Pink
To get a 0 on color the i r f a n t is Totally blue, pale
Acrocyanosis Temporary cyanotic condition, usually in newborns resulting
in a bluish color around the lips, hands & fingernails, feet 3
toenails. May last for a few hours & disappear with warming.
APPENDICITIS
Appendicitis is an __________of the appendix due to _______. inflammation, obstruction
Appendicitis occurs most in what age group? 15 to 35
What is the most common complication of appendicitis? Peritonitis
Peritonitis inflammation of the peritan sum
What is the first sign of appendicitis? right upper quadrant pain
What follows the RUQ. abd pain of appendicitis? N/V
Where does the pain of appendicitis finally end up? RLQ
What is the name of the RLQ abd pain where appendicitis pain
finally localizes?
McBurney's point
What is present when rebound tenderness is present? Peritoneal inflammation
What is the highest that the temp will be in appendicitis? 102 F
What blood count is elevated in appendicitis? WBC
What is the name for an elevated WBC? Leukocytosis
W ha t is t he only tre atm e nt reco m m ended fo r appen diciti s? surgery - appendectomy
Before the client with suspected appendicitis sees the
physician, what should be avoided?
pain meds, enemas, laxatives, food ! NPO
To lessen pain, place the client in ___________position. fowlers (a sitting position) (also use post op)
Never apply __________to the area of the appendix. heat (it causes rupture)

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After appendectomy, document in the nurses notes the return
of _________
bowel sounds (peristalsis)
NEPHROLITHIASIS
What is the primary dietary prescription for calcium
nephrolithiasis?
Low calcium diet
For the client with calcium nephrolithiasis the diet should be
________ash.
Acid
If the kidney stone is calcium phosphate the diet must be low
in _____ too.
Phosphorous
The primary diet treatment for uric add nephrolithiasis is Low pruine
The client with uric acid nephrolithiasis should have a diet low
in ____________.
Methionine
What is methionine? The precursor of the amino acid cystine [precursor = material
out of which something Is made)
Name two foods high in methionine. Milk, eggs
Clients with cystine nephrolithiasis should have a(n) _______
ash diet.
Alkaline
Increasing fluids to over SOOOcc per day is more effective in
treating renal calculi (kidney stones) than any dietary
modification. (T/F)
True. It's more important to flush the urinary tract than
worry about what you're eating.
CANCER
Neoplasm refers to benign and malignant tumors. [T/F) True
Which type of tumor is more malignant? Differentiated or
undifferentiated?
Undifferentiated is worse to have [highly differentiated is
better to have)
When cancer spreads to a distant site it is called? Metastasis
The cause of cancer is known. [T/F) False
A person should have a yearly work up eKam for cancer
detection over the age of _________.
43
In general, cancer drugs have side effects in which 3 body
systems?
Gl, Hematologic |blood), Integumentary
What are the 3 most common chemotherapeutic <31 side
effects?
N/V r Diarrhea, Stomatitis [oral sores)
Clients receiving chemotherapy must be NPO. (T/F) False
Is it pe rmissib le to give lidocaine visco us a c ( befo re mea Is) if
the patient has chemotherapeutic stomatosis? [T/F)
True
With what solution should the client with chemotherapeutic
stomatitis rinse pc [after meals)?
H2O2 - hydrogen peroxide
What lubricant can safely be applied to the cracked lips of
chemotherapy stomatitis?
K-Y Jelly
Name the 3 hematologic side effects of chemotherapy. Thrombocytopenia, Leukopenia, Anemia
Which cells are low in thrombocytopenia? Platelets
What drug should NOT be given to the patient with
chemotherapeutic thrombocytopenia?
ASA (aspirin)
When should the nurse WITHHOLD IM injections in the client
on chemotherapy?
Only when their PLATELET count is down.
What are the 3 abjective symptom s/signs of
thrombocytooenia? Hint: P.E.E.
Petechiae, Epistaxis, Ecchymosis
What is epistaxis? Nose bleeds
What is ecchymosis? Bruising
What is petechiae? Small dot like pinpoint hemorrhages on the skin.

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What blood cell is low in leukopenia? White blood cells
When the ANC is below _ _ the person on chemotherapy will
be placed on reverse isolation.
500
What is the #1 integumentary side effect of chemotherapy? Alopecia
What is alopecia? Hair loss
The hair loss due to chemotherapy is usually temporary? wrj True
Can scalp tourniquets prevert chemotherapy alopecia? In some cases, yes
Can ice packs to the scalp prevent chemotherapy alopecia? In some cases, yes
CARDIOVASCULAR DISEASE IN PREGNANCY
CD ranks _ _ _ among the leading cause of maternal death. Fourth
What is the #1 cause of CD of pregnancy? Rheumatic heart disease
Pregnancy requires a increase in the cardiac output. 30-50%
What is the #1 cause of maternal death in CD of pregnancy? Decompensation
What is meant by decompensation? Failure of the heart to maintain adequate circulation.
What will you see when you observe the neck of a client with
CD of pregnancy?
Distended neck veins -JVD
What will you hear when you auscultate the heart of the client
with CD of pregnancy?
M urmurs
What will you hear when you auscultate the lungs of the client
with CD of pregnancy?
Crackles-rales
If the client with CD of pregnancy experiences sudden heart
failure what is the MOST common thing you will see?
Sudden onset of SOB (dyspnea J.
What is the #1 treatment of CD during pregnancy? Rest
What are the three most common drugs given to women with
CD in pregnancy?
Diuretics, Heparin, Digitalis
Why are diuretics given to women with CD of pregnancy? To promote diuresis which will:
-lower circulating blood volume
-decrease preload
-decrease the amount of blood the heart pumps.
Why are anticoagulants (heparin only) given to women with
CD of pregnancy?
To prevent thrombophlebitis due to venous congestion,
usually in legs.
Why is digitalis given to women with CD of pregnancy? To increase the strength of the heart and to decrease the
rate, rest the heart while making it mare efficient
Can a woman with CD of pregnancy be given analgesics during
labor?
Yes, in fact they should be given analgesics, may get too
anxious which is bad for the patient
Can morphine be given to a woman with CD during labor? Yes, even though it negatively affects the fetus, remember
morphine decreases preload and pain which rests the heart.
What is the most common dietary modification for the woman
with CD who shows signs of decompensation?
Decreased sodium, decreased water (restriction)
Is a C-section mandatory for delivery of a woman with CD of
pregnancy?
No
Second to nest, what is very important treatment for CD of
pregnancy?
Weight control
How long must the woman with CD of pregnancy be on bed
rest after delivery?
At least ore week
What nutrients should be supplied in the diet of the pregnant
woman with CD?
Iron
Folic acid
Prevent anemia Ianemia always makes the heart work more)
What are the two most common subjective complaints of the
woman who is decompensating during labor?
SOB
Palpitations

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Inaddition to the th ings you assess fo r in every wo ma n duri ng
la bo r, what a dditia na1 assessment must you make for a
woman with CD?
You must assess lungs sounds frequently
How often must you assess the lung sounds during the I 11stage
of labor? During active labor? During transition labor?
Every 30 to 10 minutes
In which position should a woman with CD in labor be? Semi recumbent, HOB up
The nurse should limit the client's efforts to _____ during
labor when CD Is present.
Beer down
CE5IUM IMPLANT
What is the big danger to staff when caring for a client with
cesium implant?
Radiation hazard
What are the three principles to protect yourself from
radiation hazard?
Distance, Shielding, Time
Will the woman with a cesium implant have a foley? Yes
From where the nurse should provide care to the client with
cesium implant?
The head of the bed
How can the woman with cesium implant move in bed? Only from side to side
What four symptoms in a patient with a cesium implant should
be reported to the physician?
Profuse vaginal discharge
Elevated temp
Nausea
Vomiting
(these indicate infection and perforation)
Should pregnant staff care for a client with a cesium implant? No
Can the woman with = cesium implant have the HOB elevated? Yes, only 45 degrees maximum
From where should the nurse talk to the client? The entrance to the room
Is bed rest necessary when a woman has cesium implant in
place?
Yes, absolute bed rest
W ha t type of diet is tfi is worn an with acesiumimplanton? Low residue (decrease bowel motility)
No nurse should attend the client with a cesium implant more
than _ _ _ per day.
1/2 hour
W ha t woul d you do if th e cesium impl ant cameo ut? Pick it up with forceps only - never touch with hand even if
you are wearing gloves.
Should the nurse provide perineal care for the client with a
cesium implant?
No, risk of radiation hazard
CAST CARE AMD MAINTENANCE
What part of your hand do you use to handle a wet cast? The palm
Upon what do you support a cast while it dries? Pillows |no plastic covers)
How long does it take a cast to dry? 24 hours
Should you cover a wet cast? NO
Should you use a heat lamp or hair dryer or fan to help dry a
cast?
No heat lamp and hair dryer
Yes fan
What signs or symptoms would you report if they were
present after cast application?
Numbness/Tingling, Burning, Pallor, Unequal ar absent
pulses, Unequal coolness
If there is inflammation under a cast, it will be evident in a
______spot.
Hot
To prevent irritation of the skin near the edges of a cast the
edges should be ___________.
Petaled
What type of cast causes cast syndrome? A body cast
What causes cast syndrome? Anxiety S. stress leading to sympathoadrenal shut down of
the bowel
What is the #1 symptom of cast syndrome? Nausea and vomiting due to bowel obstruction
What is the #1 treatment of cast syndrome? NPO and NG tube far decompression

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A dry cast is gray ar white? White
A d ry cast is dul 1 or shlny? Shiny
A dry cast is dull or resonant to percussion? Resonant
TRACTION
Traction is used to _______& _______a fracture, relieve
________________and prevent ________.
Reduce and immobilize, muscle spasm; deformities
Can skin traction be removed for skin care? Yes
Can the client be removed from skeletal traction? No
Name 3 types of skin traction Bucks, Bryants, Pelvic
Name 3 types of skeletal traction Cranial tongs
Thomas splints with Pearson attachments
9-3 degrees to 90 degrees
What type of traction is most commonly used for hip fracture
in adults?
Bucks
What type of traction is most commonly used for hip fractures
in children?
Bryants
In what position should the bed be if the patient Is in pelvic
traction?
Semi-fowlers with knee gatch ed
To ensure that Bryant's traction is working the child's hip/
sacrum should be _________
Off the bed enough to slip a hand between the sacram & the bed.
What is the advantage of balanced counteraction? You car easily move the patient around in bed
Patients in Russell's traction are particularly prore to Thrombophlebitis
W hen a patle nt is in a B uck's t radio n they m ay tu rn to the
_________side.
Unaffected
CATARACTS
Define cataract Opacity of the crystallire lens
Is surgery done immediately upon diagnosis of cataract? No, they usually wait until it interferes with AD.s
What 3 most common visual defects occur with cataract? Cloudiness
Diplopia (double vision)
Photophobia (sensitivity to light)
What are the two common treatments of cataract? Laser, surgical removal. Surgery called intraocular or
estraocular lens extraction
What does the eye look like when a client has cataracts? Cloudy, milky-white pupil
What will the client be wearing after cataract surgery? A protective patch/shield on the operative eye for 24 hours,
then a metal shield (AT NIGHT only) far 3 weeks
When the client asks about the use of glasses or contacts after
cataract surgery what would you say?
If an intraocular lens is implanted they will NOT need glasses.
If no lens is implanted, then contacts will be fitted for 3
months post-op, temporary thick glasses given immediately
but will get a different prescription in 2 to 3 months
What will be a high priority nursing diagnosis for a client post
cataract surgery?
Safety
Should the client ambulate independently after cataract
surgery?
No, the patient should not ambulate independently, depth
perception is altered.
What positions are to be avoided after cata ra ct surgeny? Lying face down. Also, do not lie on operative side for a
month.
What are the post-operative signs of hemorrhage into the eye? Severe pain
Restlessness
What movements are to be avoided afte r cata ract surgery? Coughing, Sneezing, bending at the waist, Straining at stool
Rubbing or touching eyes, Rapid head movements
What positions are okay after cataract surgery? Do not lie on operative side; do not lie on back
Should you use talcum powder with a post-op cataract client? No, it may cause sneezing; also, should avoid pepper.
W hat a re t he three sign s of increa se d int ra o c ul ar p ressure? Pain (moderate to severe), Restlessness, Increased pulse rate

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W hat is t he majo r a bjectwe in caring for a die nt after surgica1
cataract removal?
To prevent pressure in or on the eyes
When the lens is to be extracted for cataracts., what drugs are
given preoperatrvely?
Mydriatics, Dilators, Antibiotic drugs Igtts)
What three drugs are given post-operatively for surgical
cataract removal?
Stool softeners, Antierr etics, Analgesics |mild to moderate)
Give five causes of cataracts? Injury, Congenital, Exposure to heat, Heredity, Age
CEUAC'S DISEASE
Cel lac's d isease is a disease Malabsorption
The client with celiacs cannot tolerate ___________. Gluten
Gluten is a Pratein
W hat does gl ute n d o to the intestines of the die nt w ith celi ac's
disease?
It destroys the lining of the intestine.
The stools of a client with celiac's disease are ______, ______
and _____- _____.
Large, Greasy, Foul-smelling
Clients with celiac's disease do not absorb what mineral? Iron
Clients with celiac's disease don't absorb fats; therefore, they
don't absorb
Fat soluble vitamins
What are the four fat-soluble vitamins? A, □, E, K
Malabsorption of which vitamin leads to bleeding disorder? Vitamin K, remember do not mix up potassium with Vitamin
K
What will the abdomen of clients with celiac's disease look like?
What is the #1 treatment of celiac's disease?
Distended with flatus
Gluten-free diet
Veggies are allowed or notallowed in diet of client with Celiac's
disease?
Allowed
Fruits are allowed or not allowed? Allowed
Grains of all kinds are prohibited. (T/F) False
What grains are allowed in a gluten -free diet? Rice and corn
What grains are notallowed in a gluten-free diet? Wheat, Oats, Rye, Alfalfa, Earley
Are foods made with wheat, oat, or rye flour allowed? NO
Is milk allowed on a gluten-free diet? YES
Are meats allowed on a gluten-free diet? Yes, but watch for breaded meatsand hot dogs/lunch
meats- may have grain in them and are rot allowed
Are eggs allowed on a gluten-free diet? YES
Is commercial ice cream allowed on a gluten-free diet? No, even though it is a milk product, commercial ice cream
has GRAIN in it.
Are puddings allowed on a gluten-free diet? No, for the same reason ice cream isn't
Which soups are not allowed on a gluten free diet? Creamed soups- these often have flour
CENTRAL LINES
The #1 problem with central lines ___________? Infection
How often should central line dressings be changed? QOD- every other day
What type of dressing is applied to a central line insertion site? Sterile occlusive
Can drugs be piggy backed into central —TPN?
When changing central line tubing the patient should be told
to _________?
No, use another lumen.
Turn his head away from the site, hold breath, and perform
the Valsalva maneuver
If a central line is found accidentally open the patient should
be positioned on his ____________.
Left side
STROKE
A CVA is a __________ of the brain cells due to decreased
__________an d ______.
Destruction; blood flow and oxygen
Women have a (higher/lower) incidence of stroke th ar men? Lower

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Name the three types of CVA Embolus, Thrombus, Hemorrhage
Use of oral contraceptives increases the risk of CVA (T/F) True
Chronic abuse of alcohol increases risk of CVA. (T/FJ False
Obesity increases risk of CVA (T/F) True
Smoking increases the risk of CVA. (T/F) true
Atrial fibrillation increases the risk of CVA (T/F) True, emboli particularly
What is a TlA? Transient Ischemic Attack
Warning sign of impending CVA (transient neurologic deficits
of any kind can last 30 seconds to 24 hours)
Do patients experiencing a CVA have a headache? yes
The first sign of CVA is usually a __________. Change in LOC
The activity order in early management of CVA is ________. Absolute Bed Rest
The patient with a recent CVA Is most likely to have fluids
restricted or forced?
Restricted
How far should the HOB be up after CVA? 30 degrees
Can the stroke victim be turned side-to-side? Yes
How often should the CVA patient be turned or repositioned? Every 2 hours
The CVA patient should be turned onto his paralyzed side no
| longer than 2 hours. (T/F)
False, the patient should not be on their paralyzed side for
more than 20 minutes.
ROM exercises should occur Q 2 hours in CVA patients. (T/F) False- every 4 hours or 3 times a day is enough
To prevent urinary incontinence; the CVA patient should be
catheterized. (T/F)
False- remember incontinence will never be allowed as a
reason for catheterization
Which type of paralysis is typical of CVA- paraplegia,
hemip legia o r q u= dri ol egia ?
Hemiplegia
What anatomical fact accounts for the left side of the body
being controlled by the right brain?
The motor-pyramidal-tracts cross over to the other side
(decussate in the medulla)
If the patient has right hemiplegia, he cannot move his ____&
_ _ _& the stroke was on the _ _ _side of the brain.
Right arm and right leg, left
What is hemianopsia? Not being able to see one half of the field of vision.
The client with hemianopsia should be taught to ______ Scan
What is scanning? Moving the head from side to side to see the whole field of
vision.
If the client has right homonymous hemianopsia, the food on
the _ _ _ side of the tray may be ignored.
Right
After meals, the nurse must always check _______ of the CVA
client for ________.
Mouth (cheek), food
Should a CVA patient have all four side rails up at all times?
Should they be restrained?
Side rails yes. Restraints- no, unless they are a danger to
themselves or others
When a patient does not understand INCOP.ilNG language, he
is said to have ______ aphasia.
Receptive
When the CVA client understands your question but can't
respond verbally correctly, he is said to have _ _ _aphasia.
Expressive
What is global aphasia? Both receptive and expressive
Aphasia is most common if the stroke occurred in the
(dominant/non-dominant) hemisphere of the brain.
Dominant
How do you tell which side of the person's brain is dominant? It is the side that controls their dominant hand, ie, a left-
handed person has a dominant right hemisphere and
conversely a right-hand person has a dominant left
hemisphere

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Far which type of aphasia are slow, short, simple directions
most useful?
Receptive
Fa r whic h type aphasia is caref u1 li ste nln g and needs
anticipation most useful?
Expressive
The lass of the ability to perform purposeful, skilled acts, ie.
brushing teeth, is called _________.
Cytoxan cyclophosphamide
Cisplatin
Apraxia
Hemorrhagic cystitis
Peripheral neuropathy, constipation, ototoxicity
Bleomycin Pulmonary fibrosis
Adriamycin Cardiotoxic'rty
Vincristine Peripheral neuropathy |foot drop, numbress/tingling,
hoarseness, jaw pain}
constipation (adynamic ileus due to neurotoxicity)
DTIC- dome Flu-like symptoms
Chemo-therapeutic Agent Toxicities
Methotrexate
Th e i nfant f ea rs ____________m ost w hen hosp ita lized.
Toxicto just about every organ except to heart, toxicity
made worse with aspirin
Separation from love object
The toddler fears ___________mast when hospitalized. Separation from family
Th e preschaa let fea rs sep arati on as we lias ________when
hospitalized.
Mutilation- remember preschoolers have vivid
imaginations...fantasy
The toddler and preschooler will think that illness is caused
by ____________■
Something they did wrong
The school-aged hospitalized child is afraid of separation from Age group
The school-aged child perceives the cause of illness to be
external ar internal?
Externa1, s he knows that iIIn es s is not a res uIt of ba d
behavior.
The adolescent who is hospitalized fears separation from
__________and loss of ___________.
Preschoolers may require physical restraint during painful
procedures. (T/F)
Peers, independence
True
Which age group engages in stalling tactics before painful
procedures most?
School-Age
Which age groups are most likely to physically resist the nurse
during procedures?
Toddlers may require physical restraint for painful procedures.
|-/Fi
The meats that are highest In cholesterol are _______meats.
School-age, adolescents
True
Organ meats
liver, heart, brains, kidneys
The meats that are second highest In cholesterol are the Shell seafood- shrimp, crab, lobster
Egg white is (high/low) in cholesterol? Low
Egg yolk is (high/low} in cholesterol? High
The three meats lowest in cholesterol are _______. _______
& ________
Chicken, pork, mutton
Milk is (high/low} in cholesterol. LOW
Is cheese high in cholesterol? Only moderate, not really that high

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