Lehninger Principles of Biochemistry Seventh Edition Test Bank

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Lehninger Principles of Biochemistry Seventh Edition Test Bank makes studying easier with a breakdown of core topics, solved examples, and revision tips.

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Page 1
1. In a bacterial cell, the DNA is in the:
A) cell envelope.
B) cell membrane.
C) nucleoid.
D) nucleus.
E) ribosomes.
2. A major change occurring in the evolution of eukaryotes from prokaryotes was the
development of:
A) DNA.
B) photosynthetic capability.
C) plasma membranes.
D) ribosomes.
E) the nucleus.
3. In eukaryotes, the nucleus is enclosed by a double membrane called the:
A) cell membrane.
B) nuclear envelope.
C) nucleolus.
D) nucleoplasm.
E) nucleosome.
4. The dimensions of living cells are limited, on the lower end by the minimum number of
biomolecules necessary for function, and on the upper end by the rate of diffusion of
solutes such as oxygen. Except for highly elongated cells, they usually have lengths and
diameters in the range of:
A) 0.1
m to 10
m.
B) 0.3
m to 30
m.
C) 0.3
m to 100
m.
D) 1
m to 100
m.
E) 1
m to 300
m.
5. Which group of single-celled microorganisms has many members found growing in
extreme environments?
A) bacteria
B) archaea
C) eukaryotes
D) heterotrophs
E) None of the answers is correct.

Page 2
6. The bacterium E. coli requires simple organic molecules for growth and energy—it is
therefore a:
A) chemoautotroph.
B) chemoheterotroph.
C) lithotroph.
D) photoautotroph.
E) photoheterotroph.
7. Which is a list of organelles?
A) mitochondria, chromatin, endoplasmic reticulum
B) peroxisomes, lysosomes, plasma membrane
C) proteasomes, peroxisomes, lysosomes
D) mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum, peroxisomes
E) All of the answers are correct.
8. Which list has the cellular components arranged in order of INCREASING size?
A) amino acid < protein < mitochondrion < ribosome
B) amino acid < protein < ribosome < mitochondrion
C) amino acid < ribosome < protein < mitochondrion
D) protein < amino acid < mitochondrion < ribosome
E) protein < ribosome < mitochondrion < amino acid
9. The three-dimensional structure of macromolecules is formed and maintained primarily
through noncovalent interactions. Which one of the following is NOT considered a
noncovalent interaction?
A) carbon-carbon bonds
B) hydrogen bonds
C) hydrophobic interactions
D) ionic interactions
E) van der Waals interactions
10. Which element is NOT among the four most abundant in living organisms?
A) carbon
B) hydrogen
C) nitrogen
D) oxygen
E) phosphorus

Page 3
11. The four covalent bonds in methane (CH4) are arranged around carbon to give which
geometry?
A) linear
B) tetrahedral
C) trigonal bipyramidal
D) trigonal planar
E) trigonal pyramidal
12. What functional groups are present on this molecule?
A) ether and aldehyde
B) hydroxyl and aldehyde
C) hydroxyl and carboxylic acid
D) hydroxyl and ester
E) hydroxyl and ketone
13. The macromolecules that serve in the storage and transmission of genetic information
are:
A) carbohydrates.
B) lipids.
C) membranes.
D) nucleic acids.
E) proteins.
14. Stereoisomers that are nonsuperimposable mirror images of each other are known as:
A) anomers.
B) cis-trans isomers.
C) diastereoisomers.
D) enantiomers.
E) geometric isomers.
15. The catalog of all proteins functioning in a cell is the:
A) metabolome.
B) proteasome.
C) lysosome.
D) proteome.
E) genome.

Page 4
16. Use the terms a) chemoautotrophs, b) chemoheterotrophs, c) photoautotrophs, and d)
photoheterotrophs and identify the answer that CORRECTLY finishes the statement:
Carnivores are _____ and herbivores are _____.
A) b; c
B) b; d
C) b; b
D) a; b
E) a; a
17. The enzyme fumarase catalyzes the reversible hydration of fumaric acid to l-malate, but
it will not catalyze the hydration of maleic acid, the cis isomer of fumaric acid. This is
an example of:
A) biological activity.
B) chiral activity.
C) racemization.
D) stereoisomerization.
E) stereospecificity.
18. Humans maintain a nearly constant level of hemoglobin by continually synthesizing and
degrading it. This is an example of a(n):
A) dynamic steady state.
B) equilibrium state.
C) exergonic change.
D) free-energy change.
E) waste of energy.
19. If heat energy is absorbed by the system during a chemical reaction, the reaction is said
to be:
A) at equilibrium.
B) endergonic.
C) endothermic.
D) exergonic.
E) exothermic.
20. If the free energy change G for a reaction is –46.11 kJ/mol, the reaction is:
A) at equilibrium.
B) endergonic.
C) endothermic.
D) exergonic.
E) exothermic.

Page 5
21. The major carrier of chemical energy in all cells is:
A) acetyl triphosphate.
B) adenosine monophosphate.
C) adenosine triphosphate.
D) cytosine tetraphosphate.
E) uridine diphosphate.
22. Enzymes are biological catalysts that enhance the rate of a reaction by:
A) decreasing the activation energy.
B) decreasing the amount of free energy released.
C) increasing the activation energy.
D) increasing the amount of free energy released.
E) increasing the energy of the transition state.
23. Energy requiring metabolic pathways that yield complex molecules from simpler
precursors are:
A) amphibolic.
B) anabolic.
C) autotrophic.
D) catabolic.
E) heterotrophic.
24. Hereditary information (with the exception of some viruses) is preserved in:
A) deoxyribonucleic acid.
B) membrane structures.
C) nuclei.
D) polysaccharides.
E) ribonucleic acid.
25. When a region of DNA must be repaired by removing and replacing some of the
nucleotides, what ensures that the new nucleotides are in the correct sequence?
A) DNA cannot be repaired and this explains why mutations occur.
B) Specific enzymes bind the correct nucleotides.
C) The new nucleotides base pair accurately with those on the complementary strand.
D) The repair enzyme recognizes the removed nucleotide and brings in an identical
one to replace it.
E) The three-dimensional structure determines the order of nucleotides.

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Page 6
26. The three-dimensional structure of a protein is determined primarily by:
A) electrostatic guidance from nucleic acid structure.
B) how many amino acids are in the protein.
C) hydrophobic interaction with lipids that provide a folding framework.
D) modification during interactions with ribosomes.
E) the sequence of amino acids in the protein.
27. According to Oparin's theory for the origin of life, the prebiotic atmosphere:
A) already contained some primitive RNA molecules.
B) basically was very similar to the atmosphere of today.
C) contained many amino acids.
D) had an abundance of methane, ammonia, and water.
E) was rich in oxygen.
28. When two genes in an organism share detectable sequence similarity, those genes or
their gene products, are said to be:
A) homologues.
B) orthologues.
C) paralogues.
D) both homologues and orthologues.
E) both homologues and paralogues.
F) both orthologues and paralogues.
29. Which statement is NOT a distinguishing feature of living organisms?
A) There exists a high degree of organizational complexity.
B) The structure of components influences their function.
C) Organisms can reproduce themselves.
D) Organisms do not need to interact with their environment.
E) Organisms change over time.
30. Which organic molecules can be considered “alive”?
A) proteins
B) carbohydrates
C) nucleic acids
D) saccharides
E) None of the answers is correct.

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Page 7
31. Which statement is NOT true regarding the plasma membrane?
A) It is a physical barrier separating the inside of the cell from its surroundings.
B) It is a flexible, hydrophobic structure.
C) The individual lipids and proteins of the plasma membrane are covalently linked.
D) The plasma membrane incorporates newly made lipid and protein components as a
cell grows.
E) Cell division occurs without loss of the membrane integrity.
32. The major difference between prokaryotes and eukaryotes is that:
A) prokaryotes have a nucleus, while eukaryotes do not.
B) eukaryotes have a nucleus, while prokaryotes do not.
C) eukaryotes have double-stranded DNA, while prokaryotes have single-stranded
DNA.
D) prokaryotes have double-stranded DNA, while eukaryotes have single-stranded
DNA.
E) prokaryotes do not have ribosomes.
33. If an organism is a facultative anaerobe, which statement is TRUE?
A) The organism requires sulfur to live.
B) The organism will die if exposed to oxygen.
C) The organism requires oxygen to live.
D) The organism does not require oxygen to live but will not die if exposed to oxygen.
E) The organism requires methane to live.
34. Which statement is TRUE regarding energy sources used by organisms?
A) Phototrophs can use carbon dioxide as a carbon source.
B) Phototrophs can use carbon dioxide as an energy source.
C) All phototrophs are autotrophs.
D) All chemotrophs are heterotrophs.
E) All phototrophs are autotrophs that can use carbon dioxide as a carbon source.
35. Which statement is FALSE regarding bacterial and archaeal cells?
A) Archaeal and bacterial plasma membranes consist of a thin bilayer of lipid
molecules penetrated by proteins.
B) Bacteria and archaea have group specific specializations in their cell envelope.
C) Archaea can have a single- or double-layered membrane.
D) Bacteria can have a single- or double-layered membrane.
E) Both bacteria and archaea have a layer of peptidoglycan in their cell envelope.

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Page 8
36. Which organelle does NOT consist of a double membrane?
A) mitochondrion
B) ribosome
C) chloroplast
D) endoplasmic reticulum
E) Golgi body
37. Which method is MOST useful when fractionating cellular organelles?
A) centrifugation
B) precipitation
C) chromatography
D) restriction digest
E) peroxidation
38. Which organelle is NOT found in plant cells?
A) ribosome
B) lysosome
C) chloroplast
D) vacuole
E) mitochondrion
39. Which reason is MOST probable for why carbon is used in living organisms but not
silicon?
A) Carbon can make four bonds, whereas silicon can only make three.
B) Carbon can make double bonds, but silicon cannot.
C) Carbon can form more preferred geometries when bonding.
D) Carbon is lighter, and therefore its bonds are stronger.
E) Silicon is heavier, and therefore its bonds are stronger.
40. Which group includes the four most abundant elements in living organisms?
A) carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, iron
B) carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen
C) carbon, hydrogen, phosphorous, oxygen
D) carbon, nitrogen, phosphorous, oxygen
E) carbon, hydrogen, sulfur, oxygen

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Page 9
41. What did Jacques Monod mean when he wrote, “What is true of E. coli is true of the
elephant?”
A) Bacterial cells are identical to animal cells.
B) Bacterial cells can synthesize ivory under certain conditions.
C) Bacterial cells contain a chromosome similar to animal cells.
D) Bacterial cells contain enzymes similar to those found in animal cells.
E) Bacterial cells contain molecules with complexity similar to molecules found in in
the “mineral world.”
42. Which ranking CORRECTLY describes the rigidity of the red bond (the central bond)
shown in the figure?
A) 2 = most rigid, 3 = least rigid
B) 1 = most rigid, 5 = least rigid
C) 4 = most rigid, 3 = least rigid
D) 2 = most rigid, 1 = least rigid
E) 4 = most rigid, 1 = least rigid
43. Which choice CORRECTLY lists the molecular masses from smallest to largest?
A) 18 kDa < 15,000 Da < 15,100 amu < 1.8 MDa < 1.8 mDa
B) 1.8 mDa < 15,000 Da < 15,100 amu <18 kDa < 1.8 MDa
C) 1.8 MDa < 15,000 Da < 15,100 amu <18 kDa < 1.8 mDa
D) 1.8 mDa < 15,100 amu < 15,000 Da <18 kDa < 1.8 MDa
E) 1.8 MDa < 18 kDa < 15,100 amu < 1.8 mDa <15,000 Da

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Page 10
44. Which substance is NOT a secondary metabolite?
A) adenine
B) morphine
C) quinine
D) nicotine
E) salicylic acid
45. Which list of descriptive terms for biological molecules is placed in CORRECT order
from smallest to largest?
A) monomer, oligomer, polymer
B) monomer, multimer, macromer
C) oligomer, monomer, polymer
D) polymer, oligomer, monomer
E) metamer, oligomer, polymer
46. Which answer choice represents the LARGEST percentage, by weight, of an E. coli
cell?
A) RNA
B) DNA
C) protein
D) lipids
E) water
47. Which discipline uses an approach that tries to integrate information to give a molecular
picture of all the activities of a cell under certain conditions?
A) metabolomics
B) genomics
C) systems biology
D) proteomics
E) lipidomics
48. If a scientist wanted to know whether a particular hydrocarbon was in use in a cell's
plasma membrane, they could search the organism's:
A) metabolome.
B) lipidome.
C) glycome.
D) proteome.
E) genome.

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Page 11
49. Which types of molecules can serve as informational macromolecules in cells?
A) proteins
B) nucleic acids
C) oligosaccharides
D) both proteins and nucleic acids
E) proteins, nucleic acids, and oligosaccharides
50. What is the CORRECT name for the configuration of the molecule shown in the figure?
A) orthogonal
B) trans
C) cis
D) zis
E) chiros
51. Which statement CORRECTLY describes the molecules shown in the figure?
A) A and D are enantiomers, and B and C are diastereomers.
B) A and D are diastereomers, and B and C are enantiomers.
C) A and C are enantiomers, and B and D are diastereomers.
D) A and C are diastereomers, and B and D are enantiomers.
E) All are diastereomers to each other.

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Page 12
52. It is possible to separate a racemic mixture by:
A) combustion.
B) crystallization.
C) centrifugation.
D) distillation.
E) magnetism.
53. Which factor can be changed WITHOUT breaking covalent bonds?
A) conformation
B) configuration
C) chirality
D) stereochemistry
E) None of the answers is correct.
54. Living cells produce only one chiral form of a biomolecule because:
A) biomolecules, by definition, can exist as only one chiral form.
B) living cells can only create L isomers.
C) living cells choose to express only the correct isomer.
D) living cells have enzymes that are also chiral.
E) living cells can produce the opposite chiral form only under certain metabolic
conditions.
55. Which statement about living systems is NOT true?
A) Living organisms can be described as an open system.
B) Living systems maintain a more-or-less constant composition.
C) Living systems are in equilibrium with their surroundings.
D) Living systems exist in a dynamic steady-state.
E) Living systems have efficient mechanisms to convert chemical energy from one
form into another.
56. When energy is used by a system, can it be “used up”?
A) Yes, it is used up when the energy source is depleted.
B) Yes, it is used up when all energy is converted into chemical energy.
C) No, all energy is converted into potential energy.
D) No, all energy is converted into kinetic energy.
E) No, energy can be converted into kinetic and potential energy.

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Page 13
57. An increase in the entropy of a system can be described as an increase in the total
amount of _____ of a system.
A) kinetic energy
B) potential energy
C) oxidative energy
D) disorder
E) order
58. In an oxidation-reduction reaction, the oxidized reagent _____, and the reduced reagent
_____.
A) is energized; is deenergized
B) is deenergized; is energized
C) loses electrons; gains electrons
D) gains electrons; loses electrons
E) maintains the same number of electrons; loses electrons
59. The joining of two amino acids via a peptide bond (the process of protein synthesis) has
a positive G value. What does this imply?
A) Forming a peptide bond is endergonic and must be coupled to another reaction.
B) Forming a peptide bond is exergonic and must be coupled to another reaction.
C) Forming a peptide bond is spontaneous and does not need to be coupled to another
reaction.
D) Forming a peptide bond is spontaneous and can sometimes be coupled to another
reaction.
E) Forming a peptide bond increases the entropy of a system.
60. Reaction 1 has a G° of –12.3 kJ/mol, and Reaction 2 has a G° of 23.4 kJ/mol. Which
statement is TRUE of these two reactions?
A) Reaction 1 occurs faster.
B) Reaction 2 occurs faster.
C) Both reactions occur at the same rate.
D) Reaction 2 will not occur.
E) It is impossible to know which reaction occurs faster with this information.

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Page 14
61. Fructose-1-phosphate can be hydrolyzed into fructose + inorganic phosphate (Pi) with a
G° of –16.0 kJ/mol. If ATP can be hydrolyzed into ADP + Pi with a G° of –30.5
kJ/mol, what is the free energy change for the reaction of fructose + ATP → fructose
1-phospate + ADP?
A) –46.5 kJ/mol
B) –14.5 kJ/mol
C) 46.5 kJ/mol
D) 14.5 kJ/mol
E) –1.4 Genetic Foundations5 kJ/mol
62. In general, increasing the temperature of a reaction will have what effect, based on the
relationship between standard free energy change and the equilibrium constant?
A) The reaction will be inhibited.
B) The reaction will go faster.
C) The reaction will become more spontaneous.
D) The reaction will become less spontaneous.
E) There will be no effect on the reaction.
63. _____ pathways _____ large molecules, _____ energy.
A) Catabolic; break down; releasing
B) Anabolic; break down; releasing
C) Catabolic; break down; storing
D) Anabolic; break down; storing
E) Anabolic; build up; releasing
64. The diagram below is a generic example of what process?
A) systems biology
B) feedback inhibition
C) positive feedback
D) equilibrium
E) catabolism

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Page 15
65. In double-stranded DNA, the two strands are held together by _____ bonds.
A) covalent
B) ionic
C) polypeptide
D) hydrogen
E) phosphodiester
66. The precise three-dimensional structure, or _____ conformation, is critical to a protein's
function.
A) native
B) molecular
C) chaperone
D) macromolecular
E) high-affinity
67. Accurate folding of a protein does NOT depend on:
A) proper pH.
B) correct ionic strength.
C) correct temperature.
D) correct metal ion concentration.
E) All of the conditions listed are important for correct folding of a protein.
68. The similarities of gene sequences and metabolic pathways across the three domains of
life are evidence for:
A) evolution.
B) a common ancestor.
C) cross-species genetic transfer.
D) both evolution and a common ancestor.
E) both a common ancestor and cross-species genetic transfer.
69. Which statement is NOT true about genetic mutations?
A) Mutations arise from an unrepaired mistake in DNA replication.
B) Mutations arise from incorrectly repaired damage to one of the DNA strands.
C) Mutations in reproductive cells can be passed on to offspring.
D) Mutations may better equip an organism or cell to survive in its environment.
E) All of the statements are true.

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