NGR6172 Pharmacology Midterm Exam with Answers (80 Solved Questions)

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NGR 6172 Pharm Midterm Exam- Questions and Answers GRADED A
1). A patient who takes daily doses of aspirin is scheduled for surgery next week. The nurse should advise the patient to:
a. continue to use aspirin as scheduled.
b. reduce the aspirin dosage by half until after surgery.
c. stop using aspirin immediately.
d. stop using aspirin 3 days before surgery.
C
Aspirin must be withdrawn at least 1 week before surgery. Aspirin cannot be continued as scheduled, because the risk for bleeding is
too great. An interval of 3 days is not long enough for the bleeding effects of aspirin to be reversed. Cutting the dose in half would
not reduce the effects of bleeding associated with aspirin use.
2). A patient who takes aspirin for rheumatoid arthritis is admitted to the hospital complaining of headache and ringing in the
ears. The plasma salicylate level is 300 mcg/mL, and the urine pH is 6.0. What will the nurse do?
a. Increase the aspirin dose to treat the patient's headache.
b. Notify the provider of possible renal toxicity.
c. Prepare to provide respiratory support, because the patient shows signs of overdose.
d. Withhold the aspirin until the patient's symptoms have subsided.
D
This patient shows signs of salicylism, which occurs when ASA levels climb just slightly above the therapeutic level. Salicylism is
characterized by tinnitus, sweating, headache, and dizziness. Tinnitus is an indication that the maximum acceptable dose has been
achieved. Toxicity occurs at a salicylate level of 400 mcg/mL or higher. ASA should be withheld until the symptoms subside and then
should be resumed at a lower dose. Increasing the dose would only increase the risk of toxicity. Signs of renal impairment include
oliguria and weight gain, which are not present in this patient. This patient has salicylism, not salicylate toxicity, so respiratory
support measures are not indicated.
3). A pregnant patient asks the nurse if she can take antihistamines for seasonal allergies during her pregnancy. What will the
nurse tell the patient?
a. Antihistamines should be avoided unless absolutely necessary.
b. Second-generation antihistamines are safer than first-generation antihistamines.
c. Antihistamines should not be taken during pregnancy but may be taken when breast-feeding.
d. The margin of safety for antihistamines is clearly understood for pregnant patients.
A
Antihistamines are pregnancy Category C, with debate currently occurring regarding degree of effects on the fetus. They should be
avoided unless absolutely necessary. All antihistamines have adverse effects on the fetus. Antihistamines can be excreted in breast
milk. The margin of safety of antihistamines in pregnancy is not clear, so these agents should be avoided unless a clear benefit of
treatment outweighs any risks
4). A 5-year-old child with seasonal allergies has been taking 2.5 mL of cetirizine [Zyrtec] syrup once daily. The parents tell the
nurse that the child does not like the syrup, and they do not think that the drug is effective. The nurse will suggest they discuss
which drug with their child's healthcare provider?
a. Cetirizine [Zyrtec] 5-mg chewable tablet once daily
b. Loratadine [Claritin] 10-mg chewable tablet once daily
c. Fexofenadine [Allegra] syrup 5 mL twice daily
d. Desloratadine [Clarinex] 5-mg rapid-disintegrating tablet once daily
A
The child is receiving a low dose of cetirizine and can receive up to 5 mg per day in either a single dose or two divided doses.
Cetirizine is available in a chewable tablet, which this child may tolerate better, so the parents should be encouraged to explore this
option with their provider. The loratadine 10-mg chewable tablet is approved for children 6 years and older. Fexofenadine would be
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safe for this child, but it is unlikely that the syrup would be any better than the cetirizine syrup. Desloratadine is not approved for
children under the age of 12 years.
5). A 1-year-old child is scheduled to receive the MMR vaccine, pneumococcal vaccine (PCV), Varivax, and hepatitis A vaccine. The
child's parents request that the MMR vaccine not be given, saying that, even though there is no demonstrated link with autism,
they are still concerned about toxic levels of mercury in the vaccine. Which response by the nurse is correct?
a. "Most U.S.-made vaccines have zero to low amounts of mercury."
b. "Other vaccine preparations contain mercury as well."
c. "Thimerosal is a nontoxic form of mercury."
d. "You can get more mercury from breast milk and many foods on the market."
A
Because of concerns about mercury levels, most U.S.-made vaccines contain either zero or very low amounts of mercury. Some
multidose vials of flu vaccine still contain thimerosal, but even that is a very low amount. Telling parents that other vaccines contain
mercury will increase their suspicion about vaccines and further reduce their trust. Thimerosal is a mercury-based preservative and
thus has the same toxicity as mercury. Although it is true that mercury is found in breast milk and other foods, telling parents this
belittles their concerns about the vaccines.
6). A patient with moderate to severe chronic pain has been taking oxycodone [OxyContin] 60 mg every 6 hours PRN for several
months and tells the nurse that the medication is not as effective as before. The patient asks if something stronger can be taken.
The nurse will contact the provider to discuss:
a. administering a combination opioid analgesic/acetaminophen preparation.
b. changing the medication to a continued-release preparation.
c. confronting the patient about drug-seeking behaviors.
d. withdrawing the medication, because physical dependence has occurred.
B
Oxycodone is useful for moderate to severe pain, and a continued-release preparation may give more continuous relief. Dosing is
every 12 hours, not PRN. A combination product is not recommended with increasing pain, because the nonopioid portion of the
medication cannot be increased indefinitely. This patient does not demonstrate drug-seeking behaviors. Physical dependence is not
an indication for withdrawing an opioid, as long as it is still needed; it indicates a need for withdrawing the drug slowly when the
drug is discontinued.
7). A patient will receive buprenorphine [Butrans] as a transdermal patch for pain. What is important to teach this patient about
the use of this drug?
a. Avoid prolonged exposure to the sun.
b. Cleanse the site with soap or alcohol.
c. Remove the patch daily at bedtime.
d. Remove hair by shaving before applying the patch.
A
Patients using the buprenorphine transdermal patch should be cautioned against heat, heating pads, hot baths, saunas, and
prolonged sun exposure. The skin should be cleaned with water only. The patch should stay on for 7 days before a new patch is
applied. Patients should remove hair by clipping, not shaving.
8). A patient has been taking methadone [Dolophine] for 5 months to overcome an opioid addiction. The nurse should monitor
the patient for which of the following electrocardiographic changes?
a. Prolonged QT interval
b. Prolonged P-R interval
c. AV block
d. An elevated QRS complex
A
Methadone prolongs the QT interval. It does not prolong the P-R interval, cause AV block, or produce an elevated QRS complex.
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9). A patient taking fluoxetine [Prozac] complains of decreased sexual interest. A prescriber orders a "drug holiday." What
teaching by the nurse would best describe a drug holiday?
a. "Cut the tablet in half anytime to reduce the dosage."
b. "Discontinue the drug for 1 week."
c. "Don't take the medication on Friday and Saturday."
d. "Take the drug every other day."
C
Sexual dysfunction may be managed by having the patient take a drug holiday, which involves discontinuing medication on Fridays
and Saturdays. Cutting the tablet in half anytime to reduce the dosage is an inappropriate way to manage drug administration
effectively. In addition, it does not describe a drug holiday. The patient should not take the drug every other day, nor should it be
discontinued for a week at a time, because this would diminish the therapeutic levels of the drug, thereby minimizing the
therapeutic effects. In addition, neither of those options describe a drug holiday.
10). A patient is diagnosed with major depression with severe symptoms and begins taking an antidepressant medication. Three
weeks after beginning therapy, the patient tells the nurse that the drug is not working. The nurse will counsel this patient to ask
the provider about:
a. adding a second medication to complement this drug.
b. changing the medication to one in a different drug class.
c. increasing the dose of this medication.
d. using nondrug therapies to augment the medication.
D
Patients with severe depression benefit more from a combination of drug therapy and psychotherapy than from either component
alone, so this patient should ask the provider about nondrug therapies. Once a drug has been selected for treatment, it must be used
for 4 to 8 weeks before its efficacy can be assessed. Until a drug has been used at least 1 month without success, it should not be
considered a failure. Adding a second medication, changing to a different medication, and increasing the dose of this medication
should all be reserved until the current drug is deemed to have failed after at least 4 weeks.
11). A young adult patient has been taking an antidepressant medication for several weeks and reports having increased thoughts
of suicide. The nurse questions further and learns that the patient has attempted suicide more than once in the past. The patient
identifies a concrete plan for committing suicide. The nurse will contact the provider to discuss:
a. changing the medication to another drug class.
b. discontinuing the medication immediately.
c. hospitalizing the patient for closer monitoring.
d. requiring more frequent clinic visits for this patient.
C
Patients with depression often think of suicide, and during treatment with antidepressants, these thoughts often increase for a time.
Patients whose risk of suicide is especially high should be hospitalized. All antidepressants carry this risk, so changing medication is
not recommended. Discontinuing the medication is not recommended. More frequent clinic visits are recommended for patients
with a low to moderate risk of suicide.
12). A patient who has been taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) for depression for several months tells the provider
that the medication has not helped with symptoms. The provider plans to switch the patient to an SSRI. The nurse will teach this
patient to:
a. start taking the SSRI and stop the MAOI when symptoms improve.
b. start taking the SSRI and then gradually withdraw the MAOI.
c. stop taking the MAOI and wait 5 weeks before starting the SSRI.
d. stop taking the MAOI 2 weeks before starting the SSRI.
D
MAOIs increase 5-HT availability, thus greatly increasing the risk of serotonin syndrome. MAOIs should be withdrawn at least 14 days
before an SSRI is started. An SSRI should never be given at the same time as an MAOI. It is not necessary to wait 5 weeks before
starting an SSRI.
13). A nurse provides teaching for a patient who is newly diagnosed with Parkinson's disease. Which statement by the patient
indicates understanding of the drug therapy for this disease?
a. "A levodopa/carbidopa combination is used to improve motor function."
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b. "There are several drugs available to treat dyskinesias."
c. "When 'off' times occur, I may need to increase my dose of levodopa."
d. "With adequate drug therapy, the disease progression may be slowed."
A
Levodopa combined with carbidopa is the initial drug of choice to treat motor symptoms. Amantadine is the only drug recommended
to treat dyskinesias. Entacapone and rasagiline are used to treat abrupt loss of effect, or "off" times. Drug therapy does not slow the
progression of the disease.
14). A hospitalized patient with Parkinson's disease who is receiving apomorphine to treat "off" episodes develops nausea and
vomiting. The nurse will discuss the use of which medication with the patient's provider?
a. Levodopa [Dopar]
b. Ondansetron [Zofran]
c. Prochlorperazine [Compazine]
d. Trimethobenzamide [Tigan]
D
Trimethobenzamide can be used as an antiemetic in patients treated with apomorphine. Serotonin receptor agonists (eg,
ondansetron) and dopamine receptor antagonists (eg, prochlorperazine) cannot be used, because they increase the risk of serious
postural hypotension. Levodopa only increases nausea and vomiting.
15). A patient with Parkinson's disease is taking levodopa/carbidopa [Sinemet]. The prescriber orders bromocriptine [Parlodel] to
treat dyskinesias. The nurse notes that the patient is agitated, and the patient reports having frequent nightmares. The nurse will
contact the provider to discuss:
a. adding an antipsychotic medication.
b. changing from bromocriptine to cabergoline [Dostinex].
c. reducing the dose of bromocriptine.
d. reducing the dose of levodopa/carbidopa.
C
Bromocriptine is used to treat levodopa-induced dyskinesias and has dose-dependent psychologic side effects. The nurse should
suggest reducing the dose of this drug to minimize these side effects. Adding an antipsychotic medication is not indicated.
Cabergoline is not approved for this use. Reducing the dose of levodopa/carbidopa is not indicated.
16). A prescriber has ordered pilocarpine [Pilocar]. A nurse understands that the drug stimulates muscarinic receptors and would
expect the drug to have which action?
a. Reduction of excessive secretions in a postoperative patient
b. Lowering of intraocular pressure in patients with glaucoma
c. Inhibition of muscular activity in the bladder
d. Prevention of hypertensive crisis
B
Pilocarpine is a muscarinic agonist used mainly for topical therapy of glaucoma to reduce intraocular pressure. Pilocarpine is not
indicated for the treatment of excessive secretions and mucus; in fact, pilocarpine is used to treat dry mouth. Pilocarpine does not
inhibit muscular activity in the bladder. Pilocarpine is not used to prevent hypertensive crisis.
17). An older adult patient who lives alone and is somewhat forgetful has an overactive bladder (OAB) and reports occasional
constipation. The patient has tried behavioral therapy to treat the OAB without adequate results. Which treatment will the nurse
anticipate for this patient?
a. Oxybutynin short-acting syrup
b. Oxybutynin [Ditropan XL] extended-release tablets
c. Oxybutynin [Oxytrol] transdermal patch
d. Percutaneous tibial nerve stimulation (PTNS)
C
The transdermal patch is applied weekly and may be the best option for a patient who is more likely to forget to take a daily
medication. The transdermal preparation has fewer side effects than the systemic dose, so it is less likely to increase this patient's
constipation. The syrup has a high incidence of dry mouth and other anticholinergic side effects. The extended-release tablets must
be given daily, and this patient may not remember to take them. PTNS is used after behavioral and drug therapies have failed.
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18). A patient with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin [Coumadin]. The nurse notes that the patient's INR is 2.7. Before giving
the next dose of warfarin, the nurse will notify the provider and:
a. administer the dose as ordered.
b. request an order to decrease the dose.
c. request an order to give vitamin K (phytonadione).
d. request an order to increase the dose.
A
This patient has an INR in the appropriate range, which is 2 to 3 for most patients and 2.5 to 3.5 for some, so no change in warfarin
dosing is necessary. It is not correct to request an order to either decrease or increase the dose of warfarin. It is not necessary to give
vitamin K, which is an antidote for warfarin toxicity.
19). A 50-year-old female patient asks a nurse about taking aspirin to prevent heart disease. The patient does not have a history
of myocardial infarction. Her cholesterol and blood pressure are normal, and she does not smoke. What will the nurse tell the
patient?
a. Aspirin is useful only for preventing a second myocardial infarction.
b. She should ask her provider about using a P2Y12 ADP receptor antagonist.
c. She should take one 81-mg tablet per day to prevent myocardial infarction.
d. There is most likely no protective benefit for patients her age.
D
ASA is used for primary prevention of myocardial infarction (MI) in men and in women older than 65 years. Aspirin for primary
prevention may be used in women ages 55 to 79 years when the potential benefit of a reduction in MI outweighs the potential harm
of increased GI hemorrhage. This patient has no previous history of MI, so the use of ASA is not indicated. ASA is useful for primary
prevention, but only when indicated by cardiovascular risk, based on age, gender, cholesterol levels, blood pressure, and smoking
status. A P2Y12 ADP receptor antagonist is used as secondary prevention. This patient should not begin taking ASA unless her risk
factors change, or until she is 65 years old.
20). Which two classes of antidysrhythmic drugs have nearly identical cardiac effects?
a. Beta blockers and calcium channel blockers
b. Beta blockers and potassium channel blockers
c. Calcium channel blockers and sodium channel blockers
d. Sodium channel blockers and potassium channel blockers
A
Calcium channel blockade has the same impact on cardiac action potentials as does beta blockade, so these agents have nearly
identical effects on cardiac function; that is, they reduce automaticity in the SA node, delay conduction through the AV node, and
reduce myocardial contractility. Potassium channel blockers act by delaying repolarization of fast potentials. Sodium channel blockers
block sodium channels to slow impulse conduction in the atria, ventricles, and His-Purkinje system.
21). A psychiatric nurse is teaching a patient about an antidepressant medication. The nurse tells the patient that therapeutic
effects may not occur for several weeks. The nurse understands that this is likely the result of:
a. changes in the brain as a result of prolonged drug exposure.
b. direct actions of the drug on specific synaptic functions in the brain.
c. slowed drug absorption across the blood-brain barrier.
d. tolerance to exposure to the drug over time.
A
It is thought that beneficial responses to central nervous system (CNS) drugs are delayed because they result from adaptive changes
as the CNS modifies itself in response to prolonged drug exposure, and that the responses are not the result of the direct effects of
the drugs on synaptic functions. The blood-brain barrier prevents protein-bound and highly ionized drugs from crossing into the CNS,
but it does not slow the effects of drugs that can cross the barrier. Tolerance is a decreased response to a drug after prolonged use
22). A patient is admitted to the intensive care unit for treatment of shock. The prescriber orders isoproterenol [Isuprel]. The
nurse expects this drug to increase tissue perfusion in this patient by activating:
a.alpha1 receptors to cause vasoconstriction.
b.alpha1 receptors to increase blood pressure.

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c.beta1 receptors to cause a positive inotropic effect.
d.beta2 receptors to cause bronchodilation.
C.
beta1 receptors to cause a positive inotropic effect.
23). A nursing student asks why albuterol, which is selective for beta2 receptors, causes an increased heart rate in some patients.
How should the nurse respond?
a.
"Adrenergic agonists can lose their selectivity when given at higher doses."
b.
"Bronchodilation lowers blood pressure, which causes a reflex tachycardia."
c.
"Some patients metabolize the drug differently and have unusual side effects."
d.
"Systemic effects are intensified with inhaled doses."
A
"Adrenergic agonists can lose their selectivity when given at higher doses."
24). An older adult patient has confusion, memory loss, and disorientation in familiar surroundings. The patient has been taking
donepezil [Aricept] 10 mg once daily for 6 months. The patient's symptoms have begun to worsen, and the patient's spouse asks if
the medication dose can be increased. What will the nurse tell the spouse?
a.
The dose can be increased, because the patient has been taking the drug for longer than 3 months.
b.
The dose can be increased to twice daily dosing instead of once daily dosing.
c.
The increase in symptoms is the result of hepatotoxicity from the medication's side effects.
d.
The patient must take the drug for longer than 1 year before the dose can be increased.
A.
The dose can be increased, because the patient has been taking the drug for longer than 3 months.
25). A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about the use of memantine [Namenda] for Alzheimer's disease. Which
statement by a student indicates understanding of the teaching?
a.
"Memantine is indicated for patients with mild to moderate Alzheimer's disease."
b.
"Memantine modulates the effects of glutamate to alter calcium influx into neurons."
c.
"Memantine prevents calcium from leaving neurons, which improves their function."
d.
"Memantine and donepezil combined may stop progression of Alzheimer's disease."
B.
"Memantine modulates the effects of glutamate to alter calcium influx into neurons."
26). A patient with a form of epilepsy that may have spontaneous remission has been taking an AED for a year. The patient
reports being seizure free for 6 months and asks the nurse when the drug can be discontinued. What will the nurse tell the
patient?
a.
AEDs must be taken for life to maintain remission.
b.
Another AED will be substituted for the current AED.
c.
The provider will withdraw the drug over a 6- to 12-week period.
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NGR6172 Pharmacology Midterm Exam with Answers (80 Solved Questions)

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