Test Bank for Applied Pathophysiology: A Conceptual Approach, 4th North American Edition (Chapters 1-18)
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FULL TEST BANK
Applied Pathophysiology
A Conceptual Approach 4th Edition
by Judi Nath, Carie Braun
Complete Test Bank, All Chapters are included
Applied Pathophysiology
A Conceptual Approach 4th Edition
by Judi Nath, Carie Braun
Complete Test Bank, All Chapters are included
Applied Pathophysiology A Conceptual Approach to the
Mechanisms of Disease 4th Edition Braun Test Bank
Chapter 1Introduction to Pathophysiology
1. The nucleus , which is essential for function and survival of the cell.
A) is the site of protein synthesis
B) contains the genetic code
C) transforms cellular energy
D) initiates aerobic metabolism
2. Although energy is not made in mitochondria, they are known as the power
plants of the cell because they:
A) contain RNA for protein synthesis.
B) utilize glycolysis for oxidative energy.
C) extract energy from organic compounds.
D) store calcium bonds for muscle contractions.
3. Although the basic structure of the cell plasma membrane is formed by a lipid
bilayer, most of the specific membrane functions are carried out by:
A) bound and transmembrane proteins.
B) complex, long carbohydrate chains.
C) surface antigens and hormone receptors.
D) a gating system of selective ion channels.
4. To effectively relay signals, cell-to-cell communication utilizes chemical
messenger systems that:
A) displace surface receptor proteins.
B) accumulate within cell gap junctions.
C) bind to contractile microfilaments.
D) release secretions into extracellular fluid.
5. Aerobic metabolism, also known as oxidative metabolism, provides energy by:
Mechanisms of Disease 4th Edition Braun Test Bank
Chapter 1Introduction to Pathophysiology
1. The nucleus , which is essential for function and survival of the cell.
A) is the site of protein synthesis
B) contains the genetic code
C) transforms cellular energy
D) initiates aerobic metabolism
2. Although energy is not made in mitochondria, they are known as the power
plants of the cell because they:
A) contain RNA for protein synthesis.
B) utilize glycolysis for oxidative energy.
C) extract energy from organic compounds.
D) store calcium bonds for muscle contractions.
3. Although the basic structure of the cell plasma membrane is formed by a lipid
bilayer, most of the specific membrane functions are carried out by:
A) bound and transmembrane proteins.
B) complex, long carbohydrate chains.
C) surface antigens and hormone receptors.
D) a gating system of selective ion channels.
4. To effectively relay signals, cell-to-cell communication utilizes chemical
messenger systems that:
A) displace surface receptor proteins.
B) accumulate within cell gap junctions.
C) bind to contractile microfilaments.
D) release secretions into extracellular fluid.
5. Aerobic metabolism, also known as oxidative metabolism, provides energy by:
Applied Pathophysiology A Conceptual Approach to the
Mechanisms of Disease 4th Edition Braun Test Bank
Chapter 1Introduction to Pathophysiology
1. The nucleus , which is essential for function and survival of the cell.
A) is the site of protein synthesis
B) contains the genetic code
C) transforms cellular energy
D) initiates aerobic metabolism
2. Although energy is not made in mitochondria, they are known as the power
plants of the cell because they:
A) contain RNA for protein synthesis.
B) utilize glycolysis for oxidative energy.
C) extract energy from organic compounds.
D) store calcium bonds for muscle contractions.
3. Although the basic structure of the cell plasma membrane is formed by a lipid
bilayer, most of the specific membrane functions are carried out by:
A) bound and transmembrane proteins.
B) complex, long carbohydrate chains.
C) surface antigens and hormone receptors.
D) a gating system of selective ion channels.
4. To effectively relay signals, cell-to-cell communication utilizes chemical
messenger systems that:
A) displace surface receptor proteins.
B) accumulate within cell gap junctions.
C) bind to contractile microfilaments.
D) release secretions into extracellular fluid.
5. Aerobic metabolism, also known as oxidative metabolism, provides energy by:
Mechanisms of Disease 4th Edition Braun Test Bank
Chapter 1Introduction to Pathophysiology
1. The nucleus , which is essential for function and survival of the cell.
A) is the site of protein synthesis
B) contains the genetic code
C) transforms cellular energy
D) initiates aerobic metabolism
2. Although energy is not made in mitochondria, they are known as the power
plants of the cell because they:
A) contain RNA for protein synthesis.
B) utilize glycolysis for oxidative energy.
C) extract energy from organic compounds.
D) store calcium bonds for muscle contractions.
3. Although the basic structure of the cell plasma membrane is formed by a lipid
bilayer, most of the specific membrane functions are carried out by:
A) bound and transmembrane proteins.
B) complex, long carbohydrate chains.
C) surface antigens and hormone receptors.
D) a gating system of selective ion channels.
4. To effectively relay signals, cell-to-cell communication utilizes chemical
messenger systems that:
A) displace surface receptor proteins.
B) accumulate within cell gap junctions.
C) bind to contractile microfilaments.
D) release secretions into extracellular fluid.
5. Aerobic metabolism, also known as oxidative metabolism, provides energy by:
A) removing the phosphate bonds from ATP.
B) combining hydrogen and oxygen to form water.
C) activating pyruvate stored in the cytoplasm.
D) breaking down glucose to form lactic acid.
6. Exocytosis, the reverse of endocytosis, is important in into the
extracellular fluid.
A) Engulfing and ingesting fluid and proteins for transport
B) Killing, degrading, and dissolving harmful microorganisms
C) Removing cellular debris and releasing synthesized substances
D) Destruction of particles by lysosomal enzymes for secretion
7. The process responsible for generating and conducting membrane potentials is:
A) diffusion of current-carrying ions.
B) millivoltage of electrical potential.
C) polarization of charged particles.
D) ion channel neurotransmission.
8. Epithelial tissues are classified according to the shape of the cells and the
number of layers. Which of the following is a correctly matched description
and type of epithelial tissue?
A) Simple epithelium: cells in contact with intercellular matrix; some do not
extend to surface
B) Stratified epithelium: single layer of cells; all cells rest on basement
membrane
C) Glandular epithelium: arise from surface epithelia and underlying
connective tissue
D) Pseudostratified epithelium: multiple layers of cells; deepest layer rests on
basement membrane
9. Connective tissue contains fibroblasts that are responsible for:
A) providing a fibrous framework for capillaries.
B) synthesis of collagen, elastin, and reticular fibers.
B) combining hydrogen and oxygen to form water.
C) activating pyruvate stored in the cytoplasm.
D) breaking down glucose to form lactic acid.
6. Exocytosis, the reverse of endocytosis, is important in into the
extracellular fluid.
A) Engulfing and ingesting fluid and proteins for transport
B) Killing, degrading, and dissolving harmful microorganisms
C) Removing cellular debris and releasing synthesized substances
D) Destruction of particles by lysosomal enzymes for secretion
7. The process responsible for generating and conducting membrane potentials is:
A) diffusion of current-carrying ions.
B) millivoltage of electrical potential.
C) polarization of charged particles.
D) ion channel neurotransmission.
8. Epithelial tissues are classified according to the shape of the cells and the
number of layers. Which of the following is a correctly matched description
and type of epithelial tissue?
A) Simple epithelium: cells in contact with intercellular matrix; some do not
extend to surface
B) Stratified epithelium: single layer of cells; all cells rest on basement
membrane
C) Glandular epithelium: arise from surface epithelia and underlying
connective tissue
D) Pseudostratified epithelium: multiple layers of cells; deepest layer rests on
basement membrane
9. Connective tissue contains fibroblasts that are responsible for:
A) providing a fibrous framework for capillaries.
B) synthesis of collagen, elastin, and reticular fibers.
C) forming tendons and the fascia that covers muscles.
D) filling spaces between tissues to keep organs in place.
10. Although all muscle tissue cells have some similarities, smooth muscle (also
known as involuntary muscle) differs by:
A) having dense bodies attached to actin filaments.
B) containing sarcomeres between Z lines and M bands.
C) having rapid contractions and abundant cross-striations.
D) contracting in response to increased intracellular calcium.
11. Which of the following aspects of the function of the nucleus is performed by
ribosomal RNA (rRNA)?
A) Copying and carrying DNA instructions for protein synthesis
B) Carrying amino acids to the site of protein synthesis
C) Providing the site where protein synthesis occurs
D) Regulating and controlling protein synthesis
12. Breakdown and removal of foreign substances and worn-out cell parts are
performed by which of the following organelles?
A) Lysosomes
B) Golgi apparatus
C) Ribosomes
D) Endoplasmic reticulum (ER)
13. Impairment in the function of peroxisomes would result in:
A) inadequate sites for protein synthesis.
B) an inability to transport cellular products across the cell membrane.
C) insufficient energy production within a cell.
D) accumulation of free radicals in the cytoplasm.
14. After several months of trying to conceive, a couple is undergoing fertility
testing. Semen analysis indicates that the mans sperm have decreased motility,
a finding that is thought to underlie the couples inability to become pregnant.
D) filling spaces between tissues to keep organs in place.
10. Although all muscle tissue cells have some similarities, smooth muscle (also
known as involuntary muscle) differs by:
A) having dense bodies attached to actin filaments.
B) containing sarcomeres between Z lines and M bands.
C) having rapid contractions and abundant cross-striations.
D) contracting in response to increased intracellular calcium.
11. Which of the following aspects of the function of the nucleus is performed by
ribosomal RNA (rRNA)?
A) Copying and carrying DNA instructions for protein synthesis
B) Carrying amino acids to the site of protein synthesis
C) Providing the site where protein synthesis occurs
D) Regulating and controlling protein synthesis
12. Breakdown and removal of foreign substances and worn-out cell parts are
performed by which of the following organelles?
A) Lysosomes
B) Golgi apparatus
C) Ribosomes
D) Endoplasmic reticulum (ER)
13. Impairment in the function of peroxisomes would result in:
A) inadequate sites for protein synthesis.
B) an inability to transport cellular products across the cell membrane.
C) insufficient energy production within a cell.
D) accumulation of free radicals in the cytoplasm.
14. After several months of trying to conceive, a couple is undergoing fertility
testing. Semen analysis indicates that the mans sperm have decreased motility,
a finding that is thought to underlie the couples inability to become pregnant.
Which of the following cellular components may be defective within the mans
sperm?
A) Ribosomes
B) Microtubules
C) Mitochondria
D) Microfilaments
15. Which of the following statements is true of glycolysis?
A) Glycolysis requires oxygen.
B) Glycolysis occurs in cells without mitochondria.
C) Glycolysis provides the majority of the bodys energy needs.
D) Glycolysis produces energy, water, and carbon dioxide.
16. Which of the following membrane transport mechanisms requires the greatest
amount of energy?
A) Facilitated diffusion
B) Passive transport
C) Vesicular transport
D) Simple diffusion
17. A male patient with a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus is experiencing
hyperglycemia because he lacks sufficient insulin to increase the availability of
glucose transporters in his cell membranes. Consequently, his cells lack
intracellular glucose and it accumulates in his blood. Which of the following
processes would best allow glucose to cross his cell membranes?
A) Facilitated diffusion
B) Simple diffusion
C) Secondary active transport
D) Endocytosis
18. Which of the following statements is true of skeletal muscle cells?
A) Skeletal muscle cells each have an apical, lateral, and basal surface.
sperm?
A) Ribosomes
B) Microtubules
C) Mitochondria
D) Microfilaments
15. Which of the following statements is true of glycolysis?
A) Glycolysis requires oxygen.
B) Glycolysis occurs in cells without mitochondria.
C) Glycolysis provides the majority of the bodys energy needs.
D) Glycolysis produces energy, water, and carbon dioxide.
16. Which of the following membrane transport mechanisms requires the greatest
amount of energy?
A) Facilitated diffusion
B) Passive transport
C) Vesicular transport
D) Simple diffusion
17. A male patient with a diagnosis of type 1 diabetes mellitus is experiencing
hyperglycemia because he lacks sufficient insulin to increase the availability of
glucose transporters in his cell membranes. Consequently, his cells lack
intracellular glucose and it accumulates in his blood. Which of the following
processes would best allow glucose to cross his cell membranes?
A) Facilitated diffusion
B) Simple diffusion
C) Secondary active transport
D) Endocytosis
18. Which of the following statements is true of skeletal muscle cells?
A) Skeletal muscle cells each have an apical, lateral, and basal surface.
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B) They are closely apposed and are joined by cell-to-cell adhesion
molecules.
C) Their basal surface is attached to a basement membrane.
D) Skeletal muscle is multinucleated, lacking true cell boundaries.
19. Which of the following body tissues exhibits the highest rate of turnover and
renewal?
A) The squamous epithelial cells of the skin
B) The connective tissue supporting blood vessels
C) The skeletal muscle that facilitates movement
D) The nervous tissue that constitutes the central nervous system
20. A patient with a pathophysiologic condition that affects the desmosomes is
most likely to exhibit:
A) impaired contraction of skeletal and smooth muscle.
B) weakness of the collagen and elastin fibers in the extracellular space.
C) impaired communication between neurons and effector organs.
D) separation at the junctions between epithelial cells.
Answer Key
1. B
2. C
3. A
4. D
5. B
6. C
7. A
8. C
9. B
10. A
molecules.
C) Their basal surface is attached to a basement membrane.
D) Skeletal muscle is multinucleated, lacking true cell boundaries.
19. Which of the following body tissues exhibits the highest rate of turnover and
renewal?
A) The squamous epithelial cells of the skin
B) The connective tissue supporting blood vessels
C) The skeletal muscle that facilitates movement
D) The nervous tissue that constitutes the central nervous system
20. A patient with a pathophysiologic condition that affects the desmosomes is
most likely to exhibit:
A) impaired contraction of skeletal and smooth muscle.
B) weakness of the collagen and elastin fibers in the extracellular space.
C) impaired communication between neurons and effector organs.
D) separation at the junctions between epithelial cells.
Answer Key
1. B
2. C
3. A
4. D
5. B
6. C
7. A
8. C
9. B
10. A
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11. C
12. A
13. D
14. B
15. B
16. C
17. A
18. D
19. A
20. D
Chapter 2 Altered Cells and Tissues
1. Ischemia and other toxic injuries increase the accumulation of intracellular
calcium as a result of:
A) release of stored calcium from the mitochondria.
B) improved intracellular volume regulation.
C) decreased influx across the cell membrane.
D) attraction of calcium to fatty infiltrates.
2. The patient is found to have liver disease, resulting in the removal of a lobe of
his liver. Adaptation to the reduced size of the liver leads to of
the remaining liver cells.
A) metaplasia
B) organ atrophy
C) compensatory hyperplasia
D) physiologic hypertrophy
3. A person eating peanuts starts choking and collapses. His airway obstruction is
partially cleared, but he remains hypoxic until he reaches the hospital. The
prolonged cell hypoxia caused a cerebral infarction and resulting
in the brain.
12. A
13. D
14. B
15. B
16. C
17. A
18. D
19. A
20. D
Chapter 2 Altered Cells and Tissues
1. Ischemia and other toxic injuries increase the accumulation of intracellular
calcium as a result of:
A) release of stored calcium from the mitochondria.
B) improved intracellular volume regulation.
C) decreased influx across the cell membrane.
D) attraction of calcium to fatty infiltrates.
2. The patient is found to have liver disease, resulting in the removal of a lobe of
his liver. Adaptation to the reduced size of the liver leads to of
the remaining liver cells.
A) metaplasia
B) organ atrophy
C) compensatory hyperplasia
D) physiologic hypertrophy
3. A person eating peanuts starts choking and collapses. His airway obstruction is
partially cleared, but he remains hypoxic until he reaches the hospital. The
prolonged cell hypoxia caused a cerebral infarction and resulting
in the brain.
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A) caspase activation
B) coagulation necrosis
C) rapid phagocytosis
D) protein p53 deficiency
4. Bacteria and viruses cause cell damage by , which is unique from the
intracellular damage caused by other injurious agents.
A) disrupting the sodium/potassium ATPase pump
B) interrupting oxidative metabolism processes
C) replicating and producing continued injury
D) decreasing protein synthesis and function
5. The patient has a prolonged interruption in arterial blood flow to his left kidney,
causing hypoxic cell injury and the release of free radicals. Free radicals
damage cells by:
A) destroying phospholipids in the cell membrane.
B) altering the immune response of the cell.
C) disrupting calcium storage in the cell.
D) inactivation of enzymes and mitochondria.
6. Injured cells have impaired flow of substances through the cell membrane as a
result of:
A) increased fat load.
B) altered permeability.
C) altered glucose utilization.
D) increased surface receptors.
7. Reversible adaptive intracellular responses are initiated by:
A) stimulus overload.
B) genetic mutations.
C) chemical messengers.
D) mitochondrial DNA.
B) coagulation necrosis
C) rapid phagocytosis
D) protein p53 deficiency
4. Bacteria and viruses cause cell damage by , which is unique from the
intracellular damage caused by other injurious agents.
A) disrupting the sodium/potassium ATPase pump
B) interrupting oxidative metabolism processes
C) replicating and producing continued injury
D) decreasing protein synthesis and function
5. The patient has a prolonged interruption in arterial blood flow to his left kidney,
causing hypoxic cell injury and the release of free radicals. Free radicals
damage cells by:
A) destroying phospholipids in the cell membrane.
B) altering the immune response of the cell.
C) disrupting calcium storage in the cell.
D) inactivation of enzymes and mitochondria.
6. Injured cells have impaired flow of substances through the cell membrane as a
result of:
A) increased fat load.
B) altered permeability.
C) altered glucose utilization.
D) increased surface receptors.
7. Reversible adaptive intracellular responses are initiated by:
A) stimulus overload.
B) genetic mutations.
C) chemical messengers.
D) mitochondrial DNA.
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8. Injured cells become very swollen as a result of:
A) increased cell protein synthesis.
B) altered cell volume regulation.
C) passive entry of potassium into the cell.
D) bleb formation in the plasma membrane.
9. A diabetic patient has impaired sensation, circulation, and oxygenation of his
feet. He steps on a piece of glass, the wound does not heal, and the area tissue
becomes necrotic. The necrotic cell death is characterized by:
A) rapid apoptosis.
B) cellular rupture.
C) shrinkage and collapse.
D) chronic inflammation.
10. A 99-year-old woman has experienced the decline of cell function associated
with age. A group of theories of cellular aging focus on programmed:
A) changes with genetic influences.
B) elimination of cell receptor sites.
C) insufficient telomerase enzyme.
D) DNA mutation or faulty repair.
11. An 89-year-old female patient has experienced significant decreases in her
mobility and stamina during a 3-week hospital stay for the treatment of a
femoral head fracture. Which of the following phenomena most likely accounts
for the patients decrease in muscle function that underlies her reduced
mobility?
A) Impaired muscle cell metabolism resulting from metaplasia
B) Dysplasia as a consequence of inflammation during bone remodeling
C) Disuse atrophy of muscle cells during a prolonged period of immobility
D) Ischemic atrophy resulting from vascular changes while on bedrest
12. A 20-year-old college student has presented to her campus medical clinic for a
scheduled Papanicolaou (Pap) smear. The clinician who will interpret the smear
will examine cell samples for evidence of:
A) increased cell protein synthesis.
B) altered cell volume regulation.
C) passive entry of potassium into the cell.
D) bleb formation in the plasma membrane.
9. A diabetic patient has impaired sensation, circulation, and oxygenation of his
feet. He steps on a piece of glass, the wound does not heal, and the area tissue
becomes necrotic. The necrotic cell death is characterized by:
A) rapid apoptosis.
B) cellular rupture.
C) shrinkage and collapse.
D) chronic inflammation.
10. A 99-year-old woman has experienced the decline of cell function associated
with age. A group of theories of cellular aging focus on programmed:
A) changes with genetic influences.
B) elimination of cell receptor sites.
C) insufficient telomerase enzyme.
D) DNA mutation or faulty repair.
11. An 89-year-old female patient has experienced significant decreases in her
mobility and stamina during a 3-week hospital stay for the treatment of a
femoral head fracture. Which of the following phenomena most likely accounts
for the patients decrease in muscle function that underlies her reduced
mobility?
A) Impaired muscle cell metabolism resulting from metaplasia
B) Dysplasia as a consequence of inflammation during bone remodeling
C) Disuse atrophy of muscle cells during a prolonged period of immobility
D) Ischemic atrophy resulting from vascular changes while on bedrest
12. A 20-year-old college student has presented to her campus medical clinic for a
scheduled Papanicolaou (Pap) smear. The clinician who will interpret the smear
will examine cell samples for evidence of:
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A) changes in cell shape, size, and organization.
B) the presence of unexpected cell types.
C) ischemic changes in cell samples.
D) abnormally high numbers of cells in a specified field.
13. Which of the following pathophysiologic processes is most likely to result in
metastatic calcification?
A) Benign prostatic hyperplasia
B) Liver cirrhosis
C) Impaired glycogen metabolism
D) Hyperparathyroidism
14. Despite the low levels of radiation used in contemporary radiologic imaging, a
radiology technician is aware of the need to minimize her exposure to ionizing
radiation. What is the primary rationale for the technicians precautions?
A) Radiation stimulates pathologic cell hypertrophy and hyperplasia.
B) Radiation results in the accumulation of endogenous waste products in the
cytoplasm.
C) Radiation interferes with DNA synthesis and mitosis.
D) Radiation decreases the action potential of rapidly dividing cells.
15. The parents of a 4-year-old girl have sought care because their daughter has
admitted to chewing and swallowing imported toy figurines that have been
determined to be made of lead. Which of the following blood tests should the
care team prioritize?
A) White blood cell levels with differential
B) Red blood cell levels and morphology
C) Urea and creatinine levels
D) Liver function panel
16. A 70-year-old male patient has been admitted to a hospital for the treatment of
a recent hemorrhagic stroke that has left him with numerous motor and sensory
deficits. These deficits are most likely the result of which of the following
mechanisms of cell injury?
B) the presence of unexpected cell types.
C) ischemic changes in cell samples.
D) abnormally high numbers of cells in a specified field.
13. Which of the following pathophysiologic processes is most likely to result in
metastatic calcification?
A) Benign prostatic hyperplasia
B) Liver cirrhosis
C) Impaired glycogen metabolism
D) Hyperparathyroidism
14. Despite the low levels of radiation used in contemporary radiologic imaging, a
radiology technician is aware of the need to minimize her exposure to ionizing
radiation. What is the primary rationale for the technicians precautions?
A) Radiation stimulates pathologic cell hypertrophy and hyperplasia.
B) Radiation results in the accumulation of endogenous waste products in the
cytoplasm.
C) Radiation interferes with DNA synthesis and mitosis.
D) Radiation decreases the action potential of rapidly dividing cells.
15. The parents of a 4-year-old girl have sought care because their daughter has
admitted to chewing and swallowing imported toy figurines that have been
determined to be made of lead. Which of the following blood tests should the
care team prioritize?
A) White blood cell levels with differential
B) Red blood cell levels and morphology
C) Urea and creatinine levels
D) Liver function panel
16. A 70-year-old male patient has been admitted to a hospital for the treatment of
a recent hemorrhagic stroke that has left him with numerous motor and sensory
deficits. These deficits are most likely the result of which of the following
mechanisms of cell injury?
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A) Free radical injury
B) Hypoxia and ATP depletion
C) Interference with DNA synthesis
D) Impaired calcium homeostasis
17. Which of the following processes associated with cellular injury is most likely
to be reversible?
A) Cell damage resulting from accumulation of fat in the cytoplasm
B) Cellular changes as a result of ionizing radiation
C) Cell damage from accumulation of free radicals
D) Apoptosis
18. The extrinsic pathway of apoptosis can be initiated by:
A) damage to cellular DNA.
B) decreased ATP levels.
C) activation of the p53 protein.
D) activation of death receptors on the cell surface.
19. A patient with severe peripheral vascular disease has developed signs of dry
gangrene on the great toe of one foot. Which of the following pathophysiologic
processes most likely contributed to this diagnosis?
A) Inappropriate activation of apoptosis
B) Bacterial invasion
C) Impaired arterial blood supply
D) Metaplastic cellular changes
20. Which of the following facts underlies the concept of replicative senescence?
A) Genes controlling longevity are present or absent in varying quantities
among different individuals.
B) Telomeres become progressively shorter in successive generations of a
cell.
C) The damaging influence of free radicals increases exponentially in later
generations of a cell.
B) Hypoxia and ATP depletion
C) Interference with DNA synthesis
D) Impaired calcium homeostasis
17. Which of the following processes associated with cellular injury is most likely
to be reversible?
A) Cell damage resulting from accumulation of fat in the cytoplasm
B) Cellular changes as a result of ionizing radiation
C) Cell damage from accumulation of free radicals
D) Apoptosis
18. The extrinsic pathway of apoptosis can be initiated by:
A) damage to cellular DNA.
B) decreased ATP levels.
C) activation of the p53 protein.
D) activation of death receptors on the cell surface.
19. A patient with severe peripheral vascular disease has developed signs of dry
gangrene on the great toe of one foot. Which of the following pathophysiologic
processes most likely contributed to this diagnosis?
A) Inappropriate activation of apoptosis
B) Bacterial invasion
C) Impaired arterial blood supply
D) Metaplastic cellular changes
20. Which of the following facts underlies the concept of replicative senescence?
A) Genes controlling longevity are present or absent in varying quantities
among different individuals.
B) Telomeres become progressively shorter in successive generations of a
cell.
C) The damaging influence of free radicals increases exponentially in later
generations of a cell.
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D) Aging produces mutations in DNA and deficits in DNA repair.
Answer Key
1. A
2. C
3. B
4. C
5. A
6. B
7. C
8. B
9. B
10. A
11. C
12. A
13. D
14. C
15. B
16. B
17. A
18. D
19. C
20. B
Chapter 3 Inflammation and Tissue Repair
1. The characteristic, localized cardinal signs of acute inflammation include:
A) fever.
Answer Key
1. A
2. C
3. B
4. C
5. A
6. B
7. C
8. B
9. B
10. A
11. C
12. A
13. D
14. C
15. B
16. B
17. A
18. D
19. C
20. B
Chapter 3 Inflammation and Tissue Repair
1. The characteristic, localized cardinal signs of acute inflammation include:
A) fever.
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B) fatigue.
C) redness.
D) granuloma.
2. The vascular, hemodynamic stage of acute inflammation is initiated by
momentary vasoconstriction followed by vasodilation that causes localized:
A) bleeding.
B) congestion.
C) pale skin.
D) coolness.
3. The cellular stage of acute inflammation is marked by the movement of
leukocytes into the area. Which of the following cells arrives early in great
numbers?
A) Basophils
B) Lymphocytes
C) Neutrophils
D) Platelets
4. The phagocytosis process involves three distinct steps. What is the initial step
in the process?
A) Engulfment
B) Intracellular killing
C) Antigen margination
D) Recognition and adherence
5. Which of the following mediators of inflammation causes increased capillary
permeability and pain?
A) Serotonin
B) Histamine
C) Bradykinin
D) Nitric oxide
C) redness.
D) granuloma.
2. The vascular, hemodynamic stage of acute inflammation is initiated by
momentary vasoconstriction followed by vasodilation that causes localized:
A) bleeding.
B) congestion.
C) pale skin.
D) coolness.
3. The cellular stage of acute inflammation is marked by the movement of
leukocytes into the area. Which of the following cells arrives early in great
numbers?
A) Basophils
B) Lymphocytes
C) Neutrophils
D) Platelets
4. The phagocytosis process involves three distinct steps. What is the initial step
in the process?
A) Engulfment
B) Intracellular killing
C) Antigen margination
D) Recognition and adherence
5. Which of the following mediators of inflammation causes increased capillary
permeability and pain?
A) Serotonin
B) Histamine
C) Bradykinin
D) Nitric oxide
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6. Inflammatory exudates are a combination of several types. Which of the
following exudates is composed of enmeshed necrotic cells?
A) Serous
B) Fibrinous
C) Suppurative
D) Membranous
7. The acute-phase systemic response usually begins within hours of the onset of
inflammation and includes:
A) fever and lethargy.
B) decreased C-reactive protein.
C) positive nitrogen balance.
D) low erythrocyte sedimentation rate.
8. In contrast to acute inflammation, chronic inflammation is characterized by
which of the following phenomena?
A) Profuse fibrinous exudation
B) A shift to the left of granulocytes
C) Metabolic and respiratory alkalosis
D) Lymphocytosis and activated macrophages
9. Exogenous pyrogens (interleukin-1) and the presence of bacteria in the blood
lead to the release of endogenous pyrogens that:
A) stabilize thermal control in the brain.
B) produce leukocytosis and anorexia.
C) block viral replication in cells.
D) inhibit prostaglandin release.
10. An older adult patient has just sheared the skin on her elbow while attempted to
boost herself up in bed, an event that has precipitated acute inflammation in the
region surrounding the wound. Which of the following events will occur during
the vascular stage of the patients inflammation?
A) Outpouring of exudate into interstitial spaces
following exudates is composed of enmeshed necrotic cells?
A) Serous
B) Fibrinous
C) Suppurative
D) Membranous
7. The acute-phase systemic response usually begins within hours of the onset of
inflammation and includes:
A) fever and lethargy.
B) decreased C-reactive protein.
C) positive nitrogen balance.
D) low erythrocyte sedimentation rate.
8. In contrast to acute inflammation, chronic inflammation is characterized by
which of the following phenomena?
A) Profuse fibrinous exudation
B) A shift to the left of granulocytes
C) Metabolic and respiratory alkalosis
D) Lymphocytosis and activated macrophages
9. Exogenous pyrogens (interleukin-1) and the presence of bacteria in the blood
lead to the release of endogenous pyrogens that:
A) stabilize thermal control in the brain.
B) produce leukocytosis and anorexia.
C) block viral replication in cells.
D) inhibit prostaglandin release.
10. An older adult patient has just sheared the skin on her elbow while attempted to
boost herself up in bed, an event that has precipitated acute inflammation in the
region surrounding the wound. Which of the following events will occur during
the vascular stage of the patients inflammation?
A) Outpouring of exudate into interstitial spaces
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B) Chemotaxis
C) Accumulation of leukocytes along the epithelium
D) Phagocytosis of cellular debris
11. Which of the following individuals most likely has the highest risk of
experiencing chronic inflammation?
A) A patient who has recently been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes
B) A patient who is a carrier of an antibiotic-resistant organism
C) A patient who is taking oral antibiotics for an upper respiratory infection
D) A patient who is morbidly obese and who has a sedentary lifestyle
12. Which of the following core body temperatures is within normal range?
A) 35.9C (96.6F)
B) 38.0C (100.4F)
C) 35.5C (95.9F)
D) 37.3C (99.1F)
13. A postsurgical patient who is recovering in the postanesthetic recovery unit
states that she is freezing cold. Which of the following measures is likely to be
initiated in the patients hypothalamus in an effort to reduce heat loss?
A) Opening of arteriovenous (AV) shunts
B) Reduced exhalation of warmed air
C) Contraction of pilomotor muscles
D) Decreased urine production
14. An elderly patient is dressed only in a hospital gown and complains of a draft in
her room. Consequently, she has requested a warm blanket while she sits in her
wheelchair. Which of the following mechanisms of heat loss is most likely the
primary cause of her request?
A) Evaporation and conduction
B) Radiation and convection
C) Conduction and convection
D) Convection and evaporation
C) Accumulation of leukocytes along the epithelium
D) Phagocytosis of cellular debris
11. Which of the following individuals most likely has the highest risk of
experiencing chronic inflammation?
A) A patient who has recently been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes
B) A patient who is a carrier of an antibiotic-resistant organism
C) A patient who is taking oral antibiotics for an upper respiratory infection
D) A patient who is morbidly obese and who has a sedentary lifestyle
12. Which of the following core body temperatures is within normal range?
A) 35.9C (96.6F)
B) 38.0C (100.4F)
C) 35.5C (95.9F)
D) 37.3C (99.1F)
13. A postsurgical patient who is recovering in the postanesthetic recovery unit
states that she is freezing cold. Which of the following measures is likely to be
initiated in the patients hypothalamus in an effort to reduce heat loss?
A) Opening of arteriovenous (AV) shunts
B) Reduced exhalation of warmed air
C) Contraction of pilomotor muscles
D) Decreased urine production
14. An elderly patient is dressed only in a hospital gown and complains of a draft in
her room. Consequently, she has requested a warm blanket while she sits in her
wheelchair. Which of the following mechanisms of heat loss is most likely the
primary cause of her request?
A) Evaporation and conduction
B) Radiation and convection
C) Conduction and convection
D) Convection and evaporation
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15. Which of the following pathophysiologic processes are capable of inducing the
production of pyrogens? Select all that apply.
A) Acute inflammation
B) Obesity
C) Myocardial infarction
D) Malignancy
E) Renal failure
16. Which of the following patients is most likely to be susceptible to developing a
neurogenic fever?
A) A patient who has stage II Alzheimer disease
B) A patient who has sustained a head injury in a bicycle crash
C) A patient who has become delirious after the administration of a
benzodiazepine
D) A patient who has begun taking a selective serotonin-reuptake inhibitor
(SSRI) for the treatment of depression
17. Patients are commonly administered antipyretics when their oral temperature
exceeds 37.5C (99.5F). Which of the following statements related to the
rationale for this action is most accurate?
A) Temperatures in excess of 37.5C (99.5F) can result in seizure activity.
B) Lower temperatures inhibit the protein synthesis of bacteria.
C) There is little empirical evidence for this treatment modality.
D) Most common antipyretics have been shown to have little effect on core
temperature.
18. A patient has sought care because of recent malaise and high fever. Upon
assessment, the patient states that his current fever began two days earlier,
although he states that for the last 2 weeks he is in a cycle of high fever for a
couple of days followed by a day or two of normal temperature. Which of the
following fever patterns is this patient experiencing?
A) Recurrent fever
B) Remittent fever
production of pyrogens? Select all that apply.
A) Acute inflammation
B) Obesity
C) Myocardial infarction
D) Malignancy
E) Renal failure
16. Which of the following patients is most likely to be susceptible to developing a
neurogenic fever?
A) A patient who has stage II Alzheimer disease
B) A patient who has sustained a head injury in a bicycle crash
C) A patient who has become delirious after the administration of a
benzodiazepine
D) A patient who has begun taking a selective serotonin-reuptake inhibitor
(SSRI) for the treatment of depression
17. Patients are commonly administered antipyretics when their oral temperature
exceeds 37.5C (99.5F). Which of the following statements related to the
rationale for this action is most accurate?
A) Temperatures in excess of 37.5C (99.5F) can result in seizure activity.
B) Lower temperatures inhibit the protein synthesis of bacteria.
C) There is little empirical evidence for this treatment modality.
D) Most common antipyretics have been shown to have little effect on core
temperature.
18. A patient has sought care because of recent malaise and high fever. Upon
assessment, the patient states that his current fever began two days earlier,
although he states that for the last 2 weeks he is in a cycle of high fever for a
couple of days followed by a day or two of normal temperature. Which of the
following fever patterns is this patient experiencing?
A) Recurrent fever
B) Remittent fever
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C) Sustained fever
D) Intermittent fever
19. A febrile, 3-week-old infant has been brought to the emergency department by
his parents and is currently undergoing a diagnostic workup to determine the
cause of his fever. Which of the following statements best conveys the rationale
for this careful examination?
A) The immature hypothalamus is unable to perform normal
thermoregulation.
B) Infants are susceptible to serious infections because of their decreased
immune function.
C) Commonly used antipyretics often have no effect on the core temperature
of infants.
D) Fever in neonates is often evidence of a congenital disorder rather than an
infection.
20. An 84-year-old patients blood cultures have come back positive, despite the
fact that his oral temperature has remained within normal range. Which of the
following phenomena underlies the alterations in fever response that occur in
the elderly?
A) Disturbance in the functioning of the thermoregulatory center
B) Increased heat loss by evaporation
C) The presence of comorbidities that are associated with lowered core
temperature
D) Persistent closure of arteriovenous shunts
Answer Key
1. C
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. C
D) Intermittent fever
19. A febrile, 3-week-old infant has been brought to the emergency department by
his parents and is currently undergoing a diagnostic workup to determine the
cause of his fever. Which of the following statements best conveys the rationale
for this careful examination?
A) The immature hypothalamus is unable to perform normal
thermoregulation.
B) Infants are susceptible to serious infections because of their decreased
immune function.
C) Commonly used antipyretics often have no effect on the core temperature
of infants.
D) Fever in neonates is often evidence of a congenital disorder rather than an
infection.
20. An 84-year-old patients blood cultures have come back positive, despite the
fact that his oral temperature has remained within normal range. Which of the
following phenomena underlies the alterations in fever response that occur in
the elderly?
A) Disturbance in the functioning of the thermoregulatory center
B) Increased heat loss by evaporation
C) The presence of comorbidities that are associated with lowered core
temperature
D) Persistent closure of arteriovenous shunts
Answer Key
1. C
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. C
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6. D
7. A
8. D
9. B
10. A
11. D
12. D
13. C
14. B
15. A, C, D
16. B
17. C
18. D
19. B
20. A
Chapter 4 Altered Immunity
1. The mediators involved in type I hypersensitivity allergic responses are
released from:
A) mast cells.
B) plasma cells.
C) monocytes.
D) arachidonic acid.
2. A genetically determined hypersensitivity to common environmental allergens
causes reactions, such as:
A) atopic; urticaria.
B) autoimmune; diarrhea.
C) IgM-mediated; infections.
7. A
8. D
9. B
10. A
11. D
12. D
13. C
14. B
15. A, C, D
16. B
17. C
18. D
19. B
20. A
Chapter 4 Altered Immunity
1. The mediators involved in type I hypersensitivity allergic responses are
released from:
A) mast cells.
B) plasma cells.
C) monocytes.
D) arachidonic acid.
2. A genetically determined hypersensitivity to common environmental allergens
causes reactions, such as:
A) atopic; urticaria.
B) autoimmune; diarrhea.
C) IgM-mediated; infections.
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D) delayed; poison ivy rash:
3. Mismatched blood transfusion reaction with hemolysis of blood cells is an
example of type II, mediated hypersensitivity reaction.
A) T-cell
B) antibody
C) leukotriene
D) complement
4. Type III hypersensitivity immune responses can be harmful when immune
complex deposits in tissue activate that can directly damage area
tissues.
A) inflammation
B) autoantibodies
C) cytotoxic cells
D) immunoglobulins
5. The mechanism by which humans recognize self-cells from non-self (antigens)-
cells is .
A) autoimmunity
B) self-tolerance
C) non-self anergy
D) immunocompatibility
6. Organ rejection is a complication of organ transplantation caused by recipient
immune cells:
A) destroying the host T cells.
B) attack on the donor cells.
C) combining with grafts HLA.
D) being recognized as foreign.
7. The leading cause of death for people with HIV is opportunistic .
A) leukemia
3. Mismatched blood transfusion reaction with hemolysis of blood cells is an
example of type II, mediated hypersensitivity reaction.
A) T-cell
B) antibody
C) leukotriene
D) complement
4. Type III hypersensitivity immune responses can be harmful when immune
complex deposits in tissue activate that can directly damage area
tissues.
A) inflammation
B) autoantibodies
C) cytotoxic cells
D) immunoglobulins
5. The mechanism by which humans recognize self-cells from non-self (antigens)-
cells is .
A) autoimmunity
B) self-tolerance
C) non-self anergy
D) immunocompatibility
6. Organ rejection is a complication of organ transplantation caused by recipient
immune cells:
A) destroying the host T cells.
B) attack on the donor cells.
C) combining with grafts HLA.
D) being recognized as foreign.
7. The leading cause of death for people with HIV is opportunistic .
A) leukemia
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B) tuberculosis
C) pneumonia
D) toxoplasmosis
8. Wasting syndrome, an AIDS-defining illness, is characterized by involuntary
weight loss of at least 10% of baseline body weight in the presence of:
A) diarrhea.
B) hypermetabolism.
C) weakness and fever.
D) glucose intolerance.
9. The window period of HIV infection refers to the period of time between
infection and:
A) transmission.
B) seroconversion.
C) initial symptoms.
D) antibody screening.
10. HIV-positive persons that display manifestations of laboratory category 3 or
clinical category C are considered to have:
A) zero viral load.
B) seroconversion.
C) complete remission.
D) AIDS-defining illnesses.
11. Contact with poison ivy has resulted in intense pruritus, erythema, and weeping
on a patients forearm. Which of the following processes resulted in the patients
signs and symptoms?
A) IgE-mediated mast cell degranulation
B) Formation of antigen-antibody complexes
C) Cytokine release by sensitized T cells
D) Formation of antibodies against cell surface antigens
C) pneumonia
D) toxoplasmosis
8. Wasting syndrome, an AIDS-defining illness, is characterized by involuntary
weight loss of at least 10% of baseline body weight in the presence of:
A) diarrhea.
B) hypermetabolism.
C) weakness and fever.
D) glucose intolerance.
9. The window period of HIV infection refers to the period of time between
infection and:
A) transmission.
B) seroconversion.
C) initial symptoms.
D) antibody screening.
10. HIV-positive persons that display manifestations of laboratory category 3 or
clinical category C are considered to have:
A) zero viral load.
B) seroconversion.
C) complete remission.
D) AIDS-defining illnesses.
11. Contact with poison ivy has resulted in intense pruritus, erythema, and weeping
on a patients forearm. Which of the following processes resulted in the patients
signs and symptoms?
A) IgE-mediated mast cell degranulation
B) Formation of antigen-antibody complexes
C) Cytokine release by sensitized T cells
D) Formation of antibodies against cell surface antigens
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12. A patient with a long history of hay fever has recently begun a series of
immunotherapy (allergy shots). How will this treatment potentially achieve a
therapeutic effect?
A) By blocking cytokine release from sensitized mast cells
B) By preventing mast cells from becoming sensitized
C) By causing T cells to be sequestered in the thymus for longer periods
D) By stimulating production of IgG to combine with antigens
13. A patient with a diagnosis of cirrhosis has experienced an acute rejection of a
donor liver. Which of the following cells is central to the rejection of the
patients transplanted organ?
A) Natural killer cells
B) Mast cells
C) T cells
D) Neutrophils
14. A patient with a diagnosis of aplastic anemia has undergone allogenic bone
marrow transplantation. Which of the following signs and symptoms would
most clearly suggest the existence of graft-versus-host disease (GVHD)?
A) Shortness of breath, audible crackles, and decreasing PaO2
B) Presence of a pruritic rash that has begun to slough off
C) Development of metabolic acidosis
D) Diaphoresis, fever, and anxiety
15. A patient has developed pericarditis after developing acute glomerulonephritis,
a development that may be attributable to the presence of similar epitopes on
group A, b-hemolytic streptococci and the antigens in the patients heart tissue.
Which of the following has most likely accounted for this patients autoimmune
response?
A) Breakdown of T-cell anergy
B) Release of sequestered antigens
C) Superantigens
D) Molecular mimicry
immunotherapy (allergy shots). How will this treatment potentially achieve a
therapeutic effect?
A) By blocking cytokine release from sensitized mast cells
B) By preventing mast cells from becoming sensitized
C) By causing T cells to be sequestered in the thymus for longer periods
D) By stimulating production of IgG to combine with antigens
13. A patient with a diagnosis of cirrhosis has experienced an acute rejection of a
donor liver. Which of the following cells is central to the rejection of the
patients transplanted organ?
A) Natural killer cells
B) Mast cells
C) T cells
D) Neutrophils
14. A patient with a diagnosis of aplastic anemia has undergone allogenic bone
marrow transplantation. Which of the following signs and symptoms would
most clearly suggest the existence of graft-versus-host disease (GVHD)?
A) Shortness of breath, audible crackles, and decreasing PaO2
B) Presence of a pruritic rash that has begun to slough off
C) Development of metabolic acidosis
D) Diaphoresis, fever, and anxiety
15. A patient has developed pericarditis after developing acute glomerulonephritis,
a development that may be attributable to the presence of similar epitopes on
group A, b-hemolytic streptococci and the antigens in the patients heart tissue.
Which of the following has most likely accounted for this patients autoimmune
response?
A) Breakdown of T-cell anergy
B) Release of sequestered antigens
C) Superantigens
D) Molecular mimicry
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16. A 70-year-old female patient has had her mobility and independence
significantly reduced by rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following processes
likely contributed to the development of her health problem?
A) Delayed-type hypersensitivity (DTH) reaction
B) Proliferation of cytotoxic T cells
C) Failure of normal self-tolerance
D) Deletion of autoreactive B cells
17. Which of the following would constitute a normal assessment finding in a
neonate?
A) Minimal or absent levels of IgA and IgM
B) Absence of plasma cells in the lymph nodes and spleen
C) Undetectable levels of all immunoglobulins
D) Absence of mature B cells with normal T-cell levels and function
18. A patient was diagnosed as HIV positive several years ago. Which of the
following blood tests is most clinically useful for determining the stage and
severity of her disease?
A) Plasma levels
B) CD4+ cell counts
C) Viral load
D) White blood cell count with differential
19. A patient has been admitted to the hospital for the treatment of HIV infection,
which has recently progressed to overt AIDS. Which of the following nursing
actions should the nurse prioritize when providing care for this patient?
A) Frequent neurologic vital signs and thorough skin care
B) Hemodynamic monitoring and physical therapy
C) Careful monitoring of fluid balance and neurologic status
D) Astute infection control and respiratory assessments
20. Shortly after being diagnosed with HIV, a patient has begun highly active
antiretroviral therapy (HAART). What is the primary goal of the patients drug
regimen?
significantly reduced by rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following processes
likely contributed to the development of her health problem?
A) Delayed-type hypersensitivity (DTH) reaction
B) Proliferation of cytotoxic T cells
C) Failure of normal self-tolerance
D) Deletion of autoreactive B cells
17. Which of the following would constitute a normal assessment finding in a
neonate?
A) Minimal or absent levels of IgA and IgM
B) Absence of plasma cells in the lymph nodes and spleen
C) Undetectable levels of all immunoglobulins
D) Absence of mature B cells with normal T-cell levels and function
18. A patient was diagnosed as HIV positive several years ago. Which of the
following blood tests is most clinically useful for determining the stage and
severity of her disease?
A) Plasma levels
B) CD4+ cell counts
C) Viral load
D) White blood cell count with differential
19. A patient has been admitted to the hospital for the treatment of HIV infection,
which has recently progressed to overt AIDS. Which of the following nursing
actions should the nurse prioritize when providing care for this patient?
A) Frequent neurologic vital signs and thorough skin care
B) Hemodynamic monitoring and physical therapy
C) Careful monitoring of fluid balance and neurologic status
D) Astute infection control and respiratory assessments
20. Shortly after being diagnosed with HIV, a patient has begun highly active
antiretroviral therapy (HAART). What is the primary goal of the patients drug
regimen?
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A) To limit the latent period of HIV
B) To slow the progression of the disease
C) To minimize opportunities for transmission
D) To prevent seroconversion
Answer Key
1. A
2. A
3. B
4. A
5. B
6. B
7. B
8. A
9. B
10. D
11. C
12. D
13. C
14. B
15. D
16. C
17. A
18. B
19. D
20. B
B) To slow the progression of the disease
C) To minimize opportunities for transmission
D) To prevent seroconversion
Answer Key
1. A
2. A
3. B
4. A
5. B
6. B
7. B
8. A
9. B
10. D
11. C
12. D
13. C
14. B
15. D
16. C
17. A
18. B
19. D
20. B
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Chapter 5 Infection
1. Although growth rate is variable among types of bacteria, the growth of
bacteria is dependent on:
A) biofilm communication.
B) availability of nutrients.
C) an intact protein capsid.
D) individual cell motility.
2. Treponema pallidum, the cause of syphilis, is a spirochete bacterium that is
spread from human to human by:
A) tick or lice vector bites.
B) direct physical contact.
C) exposure to infected urine.
D) inhaling airborne particles.
3. Chlamydiaceae, a rather common sexually transmitted infectious organism, has
characteristics of both viruses and bacteria. The infectious form of this
organisms life cycle is until it enters the host cell.
A) an elementary body
B) adhered to cholesterol
C) propelled by filaments
D) encapsulated hyphae
4. Because dermatophytes are capable of growing , the infection is
mainly found on cutaneous surfaces of the body.
A) a powdery colony
B) in moist skin folds
C) on cooler tissue
D) branching filaments
5. Although both eukaryotes and prokaryotes are capable of causing infectious
diseases in humans, eukaryotes are unique because they have a distinct:
1. Although growth rate is variable among types of bacteria, the growth of
bacteria is dependent on:
A) biofilm communication.
B) availability of nutrients.
C) an intact protein capsid.
D) individual cell motility.
2. Treponema pallidum, the cause of syphilis, is a spirochete bacterium that is
spread from human to human by:
A) tick or lice vector bites.
B) direct physical contact.
C) exposure to infected urine.
D) inhaling airborne particles.
3. Chlamydiaceae, a rather common sexually transmitted infectious organism, has
characteristics of both viruses and bacteria. The infectious form of this
organisms life cycle is until it enters the host cell.
A) an elementary body
B) adhered to cholesterol
C) propelled by filaments
D) encapsulated hyphae
4. Because dermatophytes are capable of growing , the infection is
mainly found on cutaneous surfaces of the body.
A) a powdery colony
B) in moist skin folds
C) on cooler tissue
D) branching filaments
5. Although both eukaryotes and prokaryotes are capable of causing infectious
diseases in humans, eukaryotes are unique because they have a distinct:
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A) organized nucleus.
B) circular plasmid DNA.
C) cytoplasmic membrane.
D) variation of shape and size.
6. Whatever the mechanism of entry, the human-to-human transmission of
infectious agents is directly related to the:
A) source of contact.
B) site of infection.
C) number of pathogens absorbed.
D) virulence factors.
7. The course of any infectious disease progresses through several distinct stages
after the pathogen enters the host. Although the duration may vary, the
hallmark of the prodromal stage is:
A) tissue inflammation and damage.
B) initial appearance of symptoms.
C) progressive pathogen elimination.
D) containment of infectious pathogens.
8. Although bacterial toxins vary in their activity and effects on host cells, a small
amount of gram-negative bacteria endotoxin:
A) is released during cell growth.
B) inactivates key cellular functions.
C) uses protein to activate enzymes.
D) in the cell wall activates inflammation.
9. Serology testing includes the measurement of which of the following?
A) Antibody titers
B) Culture growth
C) Direct antigens
D) DNA sequencing
B) circular plasmid DNA.
C) cytoplasmic membrane.
D) variation of shape and size.
6. Whatever the mechanism of entry, the human-to-human transmission of
infectious agents is directly related to the:
A) source of contact.
B) site of infection.
C) number of pathogens absorbed.
D) virulence factors.
7. The course of any infectious disease progresses through several distinct stages
after the pathogen enters the host. Although the duration may vary, the
hallmark of the prodromal stage is:
A) tissue inflammation and damage.
B) initial appearance of symptoms.
C) progressive pathogen elimination.
D) containment of infectious pathogens.
8. Although bacterial toxins vary in their activity and effects on host cells, a small
amount of gram-negative bacteria endotoxin:
A) is released during cell growth.
B) inactivates key cellular functions.
C) uses protein to activate enzymes.
D) in the cell wall activates inflammation.
9. Serology testing includes the measurement of which of the following?
A) Antibody titers
B) Culture growth
C) Direct antigens
D) DNA sequencing
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10. Prions cause transmissible neurodegenerative diseases and are characterized by:
A) a lack of reproductive capacity.
B) hypermetabolism.
C) enzyme production.
D) chronic inflammation.
11. Which of the following individuals is experiencing a health problem that is the
result of a parasite?
A) A college student who contracted Chlamydia trachomatis during an
unprotected sexual encounter
B) A man who acquired malaria while on a tropical vacation
C) A hospital patient who has developed postoperative pneumonia
D) A woman who developed hepatitis A from eating at an unhygienic
restaurant
12. Which of the following traits is characteristic of saprophytes?
A) They derive energy from decaying organic matter.
B) They are beneficial components of human microflora.
C) They have RNA or DNA, but never both.
D) They are capable of spore production.
13. A hospital patient was swabbed on admission for antibiotic-resistant organisms
and has just been informed that methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
(MRSA) is present in his groin. The patient has a normal core temperature and
white blood cell count. This patient is experiencing which of the following?
A) Infection
B) Proliferation
C) Colonization
D) Inflammation
14. A 33-year-old patient who is a long-term intravenous user of heroin has been
recently diagnosed with hepatitis C. Which of the following portals of entry
most likely led to the patients infection?
A) a lack of reproductive capacity.
B) hypermetabolism.
C) enzyme production.
D) chronic inflammation.
11. Which of the following individuals is experiencing a health problem that is the
result of a parasite?
A) A college student who contracted Chlamydia trachomatis during an
unprotected sexual encounter
B) A man who acquired malaria while on a tropical vacation
C) A hospital patient who has developed postoperative pneumonia
D) A woman who developed hepatitis A from eating at an unhygienic
restaurant
12. Which of the following traits is characteristic of saprophytes?
A) They derive energy from decaying organic matter.
B) They are beneficial components of human microflora.
C) They have RNA or DNA, but never both.
D) They are capable of spore production.
13. A hospital patient was swabbed on admission for antibiotic-resistant organisms
and has just been informed that methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus
(MRSA) is present in his groin. The patient has a normal core temperature and
white blood cell count. This patient is experiencing which of the following?
A) Infection
B) Proliferation
C) Colonization
D) Inflammation
14. A 33-year-old patient who is a long-term intravenous user of heroin has been
recently diagnosed with hepatitis C. Which of the following portals of entry
most likely led to the patients infection?
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A) Direct contact
B) Vertical transmission
C) Ingestion
D) Penetration
15. A 9-month-old infant has been diagnosed with botulism after he was fed honey.
The childs mother was prompted to seek care because of this childs sudden
onset of neuromuscular deficits, which were later attributed to the release of
substances by Clostridium botulinum bacteria. Which virulence factor
contributed to this childs illness?
A) Endotoxins
B) Adhesion factors
C) Exotoxins
D) Evasive factors
16. A patient with a long-standing diagnosis of Crohn disease has developed a
perianal abscess. Which of the following treatments will this patient most likely
require?
A) Antiviral therapy
B) Antibiotic therapy
C) Surgical draining
D) Pressure dressing
17. A patients primary care provider has ordered direct antigen detection in the care
of a patient with a serious symptomatology of unknown origin. Which of the
following processes will be conducted?
A) Detecting DNA sequences that are unique to the suspected pathogen
B) Growth of biofilms on various media in the laboratory setting
C) Quantification of IgG and IgM antibodies in the patients blood
D) Introduction of monoclonal antibodies to a blood sample from the patient
18. A patient has begun taking acyclovir, an antiviral medication, to control herpes
simplex outbreaks. What is this drugs mechanism of action?
A) Inhibition of viral adhesion to cells
B) Vertical transmission
C) Ingestion
D) Penetration
15. A 9-month-old infant has been diagnosed with botulism after he was fed honey.
The childs mother was prompted to seek care because of this childs sudden
onset of neuromuscular deficits, which were later attributed to the release of
substances by Clostridium botulinum bacteria. Which virulence factor
contributed to this childs illness?
A) Endotoxins
B) Adhesion factors
C) Exotoxins
D) Evasive factors
16. A patient with a long-standing diagnosis of Crohn disease has developed a
perianal abscess. Which of the following treatments will this patient most likely
require?
A) Antiviral therapy
B) Antibiotic therapy
C) Surgical draining
D) Pressure dressing
17. A patients primary care provider has ordered direct antigen detection in the care
of a patient with a serious symptomatology of unknown origin. Which of the
following processes will be conducted?
A) Detecting DNA sequences that are unique to the suspected pathogen
B) Growth of biofilms on various media in the laboratory setting
C) Quantification of IgG and IgM antibodies in the patients blood
D) Introduction of monoclonal antibodies to a blood sample from the patient
18. A patient has begun taking acyclovir, an antiviral medication, to control herpes
simplex outbreaks. What is this drugs mechanism of action?
A) Inhibition of viral adhesion to cells
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B) Elimination of exotoxin production
C) Antagonism of somatic cell binding sites
D) Interference with viral replication processes
19. International travel has contributed to increased prevalence and incidence of
nonindigenous diseases by increasing which of the following?
A) Portals of entry
B) Sources of infection
C) Virulence
D) Disease course
20. A public health nurse should recognize that sexually transmitted infections
(STIs) are typically spread by which of the following mechanisms?
A) Penetration
B) Vertical transmission
C) Direct contact
D) Ingestion
Answer Key
1. B
2. B
3. A
4. C
5. A
6. C
7. B
8. D
9. A
10. A
C) Antagonism of somatic cell binding sites
D) Interference with viral replication processes
19. International travel has contributed to increased prevalence and incidence of
nonindigenous diseases by increasing which of the following?
A) Portals of entry
B) Sources of infection
C) Virulence
D) Disease course
20. A public health nurse should recognize that sexually transmitted infections
(STIs) are typically spread by which of the following mechanisms?
A) Penetration
B) Vertical transmission
C) Direct contact
D) Ingestion
Answer Key
1. B
2. B
3. A
4. C
5. A
6. C
7. B
8. D
9. A
10. A
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11. B
12. A
13. C
14. D
15. C
16. C
17. D
18. D
19. B
20. C
Chapter 6 Genetic and Developmental Disorders
1. Genetic disorders that involve a single gene trait are characterized by:
A) multifactorial gene mutations.
B) chromosome rearrangements.
C) Mendelian patterns of transmission.
D) abnormal numbers of chromosomes.
2. In addition to having a 50% chance of inheriting an autosomal dominant
disorder from an affected parent, such a disorder is characterized by:
A) aneuploidy of genes in all cells.
B) deficiencies in enzyme synthesis.
C) affected X transmission to daughters.
D) varied gene penetration and expression.
3. Autosomal recessive disorders are characterized by:
A) age of onset later in life.
B) abnormal protein structure.
C) inborn errors of metabolism.
12. A
13. C
14. D
15. C
16. C
17. D
18. D
19. B
20. C
Chapter 6 Genetic and Developmental Disorders
1. Genetic disorders that involve a single gene trait are characterized by:
A) multifactorial gene mutations.
B) chromosome rearrangements.
C) Mendelian patterns of transmission.
D) abnormal numbers of chromosomes.
2. In addition to having a 50% chance of inheriting an autosomal dominant
disorder from an affected parent, such a disorder is characterized by:
A) aneuploidy of genes in all cells.
B) deficiencies in enzyme synthesis.
C) affected X transmission to daughters.
D) varied gene penetration and expression.
3. Autosomal recessive disorders are characterized by:
A) age of onset later in life.
B) abnormal protein structure.
C) inborn errors of metabolism.
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D) one in two risk of a carrier child.
4. When a male child inherits an X-linked disorder from his heterozygous carrier
mother,
A) his sons will be carriers.
B) his father has the disorder.
C) some of his sisters will be carriers.
D) his daughters will have the disorder.
5. Multifactorial inheritance disorders, such as cleft palate, are often caused
by during fetal development.
A) multiple gene mutations
B) dominant gene expression
C) X-linked crossover problem
D) polyploidy of chromosomes
6. The newborn has the distinctive physical features of trisomy 21, Down
syndrome, which includes:
A) upward slanting of eyes.
B) large, protruding ears.
C) thin lips and small tongue.
D) long fingers with extra creases.
7. Aneuploidy of the X chromosome can result in a monosomy or polysomy
disorder. The manifestations of monosomy X, Turner syndrome, differ from
polysomy X disorders in numerous ways that include:
A) short-stature female individual..
B) mental retardation.
C) enlarged breasts.
D) early onset puberty.
8. A teratogenic environmental agent can cause birth defects when:
A) inherited as a recessive trait.
4. When a male child inherits an X-linked disorder from his heterozygous carrier
mother,
A) his sons will be carriers.
B) his father has the disorder.
C) some of his sisters will be carriers.
D) his daughters will have the disorder.
5. Multifactorial inheritance disorders, such as cleft palate, are often caused
by during fetal development.
A) multiple gene mutations
B) dominant gene expression
C) X-linked crossover problem
D) polyploidy of chromosomes
6. The newborn has the distinctive physical features of trisomy 21, Down
syndrome, which includes:
A) upward slanting of eyes.
B) large, protruding ears.
C) thin lips and small tongue.
D) long fingers with extra creases.
7. Aneuploidy of the X chromosome can result in a monosomy or polysomy
disorder. The manifestations of monosomy X, Turner syndrome, differ from
polysomy X disorders in numerous ways that include:
A) short-stature female individual..
B) mental retardation.
C) enlarged breasts.
D) early onset puberty.
8. A teratogenic environmental agent can cause birth defects when:
A) inherited as a recessive trait.
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Medicine