Test Bank For Emergency Care, 12th Edition

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Test Questions for Appendix B, Emergency Care, 12th Edition
Correlation
(Note: all references are to pages in Appendix B, Emergency Care, 12th
Edition)
1. To determine whether or not a child has a pulse, you would assess the __________
artery.
a. Carotid (p. 1130)
b. Femoral
c. Radial
d. Brachial
2. As you attempt to ventilate your patient, the first breath is unsuccessful. Your next step
would be to:
a. Reposition the head. (p. 1128, Table B-2)
b. Assess the brachial pulse.
c. Assess the carotid pulse.
d. Begin chest compressions.
3. When performing CPR, what is the rate of chest compressions per minute for an adult
patient?
a. At least 80
b. At least 90
c. At least 100 (p. 1135, Table B-3)
d. 120
4. The compression-to-ventilation ratio for a newborn is:
a. 3:1. (p. 1135, Table B-3)
b. 30:2.
c. 15:2.
d. 5:1.
5. When performing two-person CPR on an infant, the correct compression-to-ventilation
ratio is:
a. 30:2.
b. 5:1.
c. 3:1.
d. 15:2. (p. 1135, Table B-3)

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6. Do not perform finger sweeps on unresponsive victims with a foreign body airway
obstruction:
a. Because the patient may bite.
b. Unless your gloves are sterile.
c. Unless the object is visible. (p. 1138, Table B-4)
d. Because the patient may cough.
7. The rate of compressions for a newborn in cardiac arrest is:
a. 100 per minute.
b. 60 per minute.
c. 80 per minute.
d. 120 per minute. (p. 1135, Table B-3)
8. To prevent fatigue while performing CPR, you should switch positions with your partner:
a. Every five cycles of CPR. (p. 113, Scan B-3)
b. Every minute.
c. Each time you deliver a shock.
d. Each time you ventilate.
9. Which of the following is considered a sign of life?
a. Gasping breaths
b. Wheezing (p. 1124, Table B-1)
c. Pulselessness
d. Breathlessness
10. The depth of compressions when performing CPR on an adult is:
a. 1 to 1 ½ inches.
b. ½–¾ inch.
c. At least 2 inches. (p. 1135, Table B-3)
d. ¾ –1 inch.
11. Which of the following describes the first action you would take when encountering a
person who has collapsed?
a. Determine if the patient has an airway
b. Determine if the patient has a pulse
c. Determine if the patient is unresponsive (p. 1124)
d. Determine if the patient is breathing

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12. What is the compression-to-ventilation ratio when performing two-person CPR on a
child?
a. 15:2 (p. 1135, Table B-3)
b. 30:2
c. 15:1
d. 30:1
13. The ratio of compressions to ventilations for single-rescuer CPR for adult, child, and
infant patients is:
a. 1 compression:6 ventilations
b. 2 compressions:15 ventilations
c. 15 compressions:2 ventilations
d. 30 compressions:2 ventilations (p. 1135, Table B-3)
14. Most common airway obstructions are caused by:
a. Dentures.
b. Vomitus.
c. Broken teeth.
d. The tongue. (p. 1126)
15. For an unresponsive patient less than 1 year of age, you would check for a pulse at the:
a. Carotid artery.
b. Femoral artery.
c. Brachial artery. (p. 1125)
d. Radial artery.
16. When performing CPR on a child, you should use the:
a. Tips of the middle and ring fingers.
b. Heel of one or two hands. (p. 1133)
c. Thumbs of both hands.
d. Index finger.
17. What is the preferred method of performing CPR on an infant when two rescuers are
present?
a. Heel of one hand
b. Heel of both hands
c. Two-thumb–encircling hands technique (p. 1134, Scan B-4)
d. Index fingers
18. When ventilating a patient, it is important to avoid gastric distention. The best way to
avoid gastric distention or make it worse if it develops is to:
a. Deliver breaths that are enough to cause the chest to rise. (p. 1130)
b. Deliver forceful breaths.
c. Deliver quick breaths.
d. Deliver deep breaths.

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19. As you are performing rescue breathing on a patient with no spinal injury, you notice that
the person is resuming adequate breathing. In which position would you place this
person?
a. Recovery position (p. 1130)
b. Supine position
c. Prone position
d. Shock position
20. In order to minimize a delay in beginning compressions for a person in suspected cardiac
arrest, you should:
a. Open the airway while determining unresponsiveness.
b. Look, listen, and feel for breathing.
c. Look for signs of breathing while checking for a pulse. (p. 1125)
d. Immediately begin chest compressions.
21. You are on location with an adult patient with a known cardiac history. You have already
determined that the patient is unresponsive. What would your next step be?
a. Open the airway
b. Place the patient in the recovery position
c. Check for a carotid pulse (p. 1125)
d. Look, listen, and feel for breathing
22. What is the ventilation rate when performing rescue breathing for a child?
a. 10–12 breaths per minute
b. 12–20 breaths per minute (p. 1128, Table B-2)
c. 15–30 breaths per minute
d. 25–50 breaths per minute
23. For the purposes of CPR, a child is defined as a person who is:
a. Less than 1 year of age.
b. Age 1 to puberty. (p. 1132)
c. Age 1 to age 8.
d. Age 1 to age 17.
24. Despite your best efforts to help, a child with a known airway obstruction has become
unresponsive. You should next:
a. Perform abdominal thrusts.
b. Open the airway and attempt to ventilate. (p. 1138, Table B-4)
c. Perform back blows.
d. Ventilate the patient.

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Chapter 1—Introduction to Emergency Medical Care
Select the BEST answer to the following multiple-‐choice questions.
1. You and another new EMT are studying your local protocols. The other EMT notices
that you may give oral glucose without utilizing on-line medical control, but you must get
an on-line order from a physician before assisting a patient in taking his nitroglycerin for
chest pain. The EMT asks you why some drugs require on-line medical control while
others do not. What is the best answer to give him?
A. Glucose is only sugar so it cannot hurt the patient.
B. The physician does not trust EMTs.
C. The patient’s nitroglycerin might be expired.
D. The physician wants to be sure it is appropriate for the patient.
Answer: D
Rationale:
Glucose is sugar and relatively safe; however, it can be harmful if given to an unresponsive
patient. This answer does not explain why not to give nitroglycerin without a physician’s
order. The reason protocols are written is not because physicians do not trust EMTs; they are
written because EMTs do not have the advanced training that physicians have. Although
medications may be expired, this does not require contacting medical control to confirm.
Nitroglycerin, although indicated for most chest pain patients, is not appropriate for all
cardiac patients. The physician, with his advanced training, is better suited to make that
determination.
2. You have just come on duty. The EMT on the previous shift complains to you that the QI
manager was giving him grief because he did not document three sets of vital signs on the
patient record. The EMT is angry and does not understand why documenting three sets of
vital signs is so important. What is the best answer you could give him?
A. Vital signs are something you have to fill out because the state requires it.
B. The recording of three sets of vital signs demonstrates that you were trending the
patient’s condition.
C. It is important you show the QI manager that you are a team player.
D. The report looks better when all the boxes are filled out.
Answer: B
Rationale:
The local or state governmental authority may or may not require three sets of vital signs;
regardless, this should not be the primary reason to document them. Teamwork is an

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important trait in an EMT, but is not the driving factor for recording vital signs. QI is not
concerned with how the report looks, but rather that the information in the report is complete
and accurate. Recording three sets of vital signs demonstrates to the QI manager that the
EMT is appropriately reassessing the patient at the appropriate periodic intervals. This
demonstrates to the QI manager that the EMT is providing quality patient care.
3. You and your EMT partner are assigned to spend a day at the senior center where you are
to provide free blood pressure screenings for the community. Your partner is upset that
he is not in the ambulance where the “action is.” He complains that taking blood
pressures is a waste of his time. What would be the best response to his complaints?
A. It is good practice for the next emergency call.
B. It makes the taxpayers happy.
C. Illness prevention is an important component of EMS.
D. It minimizes the number of 911 calls late at night.
Answer: C
Rationale:
EMTs should already have competency in blood pressure techniques prior to hosting any
screening clinics. Although community relations are important, it is not the primary reason
for checking blood pressures. Blood pressure screening clinics do not impact the number of
late night 911 calls. Illness prevention is an important component of EMS as EMTs are
always in the field, and the role of EMS in public health is expected to only increase in the
future.
4. During the new employee orientation, the training officer meets with the new EMTs and
explains to them the monthly training schedule and the classes they must attend for EMT
recertification. One of the new EMTs asks the training officer why they have to keep
taking EMT courses if they already passed the EMT examination. What is the best
answer?
A. The state requires the training.
B. EMTs forget everything once they pass the EMT exam.
C. It looks good to a jury should the service be sued.
D. EMS is constantly evolving in response to evidence-based research.
Answer: D
Rationale:
Although continuing education is mandated by most states, it is not the reason continuing
education is performed. Continuing education does provide EMTs with a good review of

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rarely used material; however, it is not accurate that EMTs forget everything once they
pass the EMT exam. Although continuing education can demonstrate to a jury that the
service is providing adequate training, one of the goals of continuing education is to
prevent lawsuits from happening in the first place, rather than to look good once a lawsuit
has been filed. Evidence-based scientific research is what drives changes in EMS. New
and improved treatment techniques are derived from this research and the EMT needs to
keep abreast of these dynamic changes to his profession.
5. A fellow EMT is talking with the Medical Director at a staff meeting. The EMT states
that the neighboring ambulance service is carrying special clotting bandages for serious
bleeding wounds. The special bandages cost five times as much as the regular bandages,
but the EMT claims they work ten times better. The EMT wants the Medical Director to
approve the bandages for use in their ambulances. The Medical Director responds to the
EMT by saying he will not approve the bandages until he can prove they are worth the
additional cost. How can the EMT best do this?
A. Have a member of the other ambulance service call the Medical Director to
provide firsthand information on how the special bandages are much better.
B. Call the manufacturer of the special bandage and request literature to give to the
Medical Director.
C. Perform a literature search to see what studies have been done on the special
bandages and report the findings to the Medical Director.
D. Order a small number of the special bandages and compare them side by side to
the regular bandages.
Answer: C
Rationale:
Firsthand accounts or anecdotal information do not provide any actual scientific proof
that the special bandages are superior. Literature from the manufacturer is designed to
sell the bandages and will only present the positives of the bandages without any negative
information. Product testing of the bandages is a good idea to determine how the
bandages will work for that particular service, but does not provide proof that they are
actually better. Finding objective, unbiased, evidence-based research that validates the
claims of the special bandage is the only way to actually prove that the special bandages
are superior.

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1. Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of the modern emergency medical
services (EMS) system?
A) To have trained personnel respond quickly and provide emergency care on the scene, during
transport, and at the hospital
B) To have trained personnel capable of assessing and caring for injured and ill patients on the
scene
C) To have trained personnel understand the limitations of their training and "do no harm," while
providing prompt transport to the hospital
D) To have trained personnel knowledgeable in all aspects of prehospital care
Answer: A
Page Ref: 7–18
Objective: 1.4
2. Which of the following groups is credited with developing the earliest documented emergency
medical service?
A) The Spanish
B) The Egyptians
C) The Mayans
D) The French
Answer: D
Page Ref: 5–7
Objective: 1.2
3. In 1966 the National Highway Safety Act charged which of the following agencies with the
development of emergency medical service standards?
A) The U.S. Department of Transportation
B) The U.S. Department of the Interior
C) The U.S. Department of Health Services
D) The U.S. Department of Homeland Security
Answer: A
Page Ref: 6–7

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Objective: 1.3
4. The National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians was founded to establish which of
the following?
A) An education curriculum for EMT courses
B) Quality oversight of emergency medical services practices
C) Professional standards for emergency medical services personnel
D) Quality improvement and quality assurance programs for emergency medical services
Answer: C
Page Ref: 13
Objective: 1.9
5. What is the minimum level of certification required of ambulance personnel in most areas?
A) Emergency Medical Technician
B) Emergency Medical Responder
C) Advanced EMT
D) Emergency Ambulance Driver
Answer: A
Page Ref: 8–9
Objective: 1.5
6. Which of the following is the primary responsibility of the EMT?
A) Protect and stabilize the patient
B) Communicate with other responders on the scene
C) Maintain personal health and safety
D) Provide emergency care
Answer: C
Page Ref: 6
Objective: 1.6
7. Upon arrival at the hospital, the EMT advises hospital personnel of the patient's condition,

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observations from the scene, treatment rendered, and other pertinent data to assure continuity of
care. This process is known as which of the following?
A) Transfer of care
B) Breach of duty
C) Definitive care
D) End of tour
Answer: A
Page Ref: 10
Objective: 1.6
8. Which of the following BEST describes a person who speaks up on behalf of the patient and
supports his cause?
A) Guardian
B) Assistant
C) Advocate
D) Representative
Answer: C
Page Ref: 11–12
Objective: 1.7
9. Which of the following is an example of patient advocacy?
A) Immobilizing the neck of a patient with a possible spinal injury
B) Granting patient wishes and not reporting spousal abuse to the authorities
C) Building rapport with the patient during transport to the hospital
D) Providing oxygen to a patient that is short of breath
Answer: C
Page Ref: 10
Objective: 1.6
10. Why is it important for EMTs to participate in quality improvement programs?
A) To ensure that individuals making false calls for EMS are prosecuted

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B) To identify problem employees and create a corrective action plan
C) To identify problems and develop a plan to prevent their recurrence
D) To ensure adequate personnel are available for emergencies
Answer: C
Page Ref: 13–16
Objective: 1.10
11. Which of the following is a role of the EMT in the quality improvement process?
A) Taking responsibility for the actions of one's partner
B) Writing complete patient care reports
C) Critiquing performance of one’s partner
D) Assuring personal safety
Answer: B
Page Ref: 14–15
Objective: 1.11
12. Who assumes the ultimate responsibility for patient care rendered by the EMT?
A) EMS supervisor
B) EMT
C) Director of quality assurance
D) Medical Director
Answer: D
Page Ref: 15–16
Objective: 1.1, 1.12
13. Which of the following BEST describes a list of steps the EMT should perform while
assessing and managing emergency medical situations?
A) Standing orders
B) On-line medical direction
C) Protocols
D) Standard operating procedures

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Answer: C
Page Ref: 15–16
Objective: 1.1, 1.12
14. A written authorization for an EMS provider to perform a particular skill in a specific
situation is a(n):
A) on-line protocol.
B) standard of care.
C) direct medical order.
D) standing order.
Answer: D
Page Ref: 15–16
Objective: 1.1, 1.12
15. Which of the following is a physical trait necessary for performing the duties of an EMT?
A) Nonjudgmental and fair
B) Ability to lift and carry 200 pounds
C) Giving and receiving written instructions
D) Ability to remain calm in stressful situations
Answer: C
Page Ref: 11–12
Objective: 1.7
16. Which of the following is a personal trait an EMT should demonstrate?
A) A self-starter
B) A strong student
C) Strong communication
D) Good eyesight
Answer: A
Page Ref: 12
Objective: 1.8

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17. Centralized coordination of emergency medical access, transportation, and care most refers
to which of the following?
A) An emergency preparedness plan
B) A trauma system
C) Resource management
D) Central deployment
Answer: C
Page Ref: 6–7
Objective: 1.3
18. Which of the following is professionally equivalent to the EMT?
A) Ambulance technician
B) Physician assistant
C) Ambulance driver
D) None of the above
Answer: D
Page Ref: 8–9
Objective: 1.5
19. All of the following are EMS system components as defined by the National Highway
Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA) EXCEPT:
A) safety and security of EMS personnel.
B) facilities.
C) regulation and policy.
D) public information and education.
Answer: A
Page Ref: 6–7
Objective: 1.3
20. Which of the following agencies is responsible for establishing EMS system assessment

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programs?
A) Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS)
B) National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB)
C) National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA)
D) United States Health Services Agency (HSA)
Answer: C
Page Ref: 6–7
Objective: 1.3
21. Which of the following refers to a program or process for evaluating and improving the
effectiveness of an EMS system?
A) Quality improvement
B) System effectiveness management
C) Quality assurance
D) Total quality management
Answer: A
Page Ref: 13–15
Objective: 1.10
22. Which of the following best describes training that supplements the EMT's original training
and that is usually taken in regular intervals?
A) Distance education
B) EMT training program
C) Recertification
D) Continuing education
Answer: D
Page Ref: 14–15
Objective: 1.11
23. Which of the following is the most common gateway for hospital services for patients who
need emergency medical assistance?

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