Test Bank for Lilley's Pharmacology for Canadian Health Care Practice, 4th Edition (Chapters 1-58)
Test Bank for Lilley's Pharmacology for Canadian Health Care Practice, 4th Edition (Chapters 1-58) helps you familiarize yourself with exam formats and key concepts.
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1
Chapter 01: Nursing Practice in Canada and Drug Therapy
Sealock: Lilley’s Pharmacology for Canadian Health Care Practice, 4th Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which is a judgement about a particular patient’s potential need or problem?
a. A goal
b. An assessment
c. Subjective data
d. A nursing diagnosis
ANS: D
Nursing diagnosis is the phase of the nursing process during which a clinical judgement is made about how a patient responds to
heath conditions and life processes or vulnerability for that response.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge
2. The patient is to receive oral furosemide (Lasix) every day; however, because the patient is unable to swallow, he cannot take
medication orally, as ordered. The nurse needs to contact the physician. What type of problem is this?
a. A “right time” problem
b. A “right dose” problem
c. A “right route” problem
d. A “right medication” problem
ANS: C
This is a “right route” problem: the nurse cannot assume the route and must clarify the route with the prescriber. This is not a “right
time” problem because the ordered frequency has not changed. This is not a “right dose” problem because the dose is not related to
an inability to swallow. This is not a “right medication” problem because the medication ordered will not change, just the route.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
3. The nurse has been monitoring the patient’s progress on his new drug regimen since the first dose and has been documenting signs
of possible adverse effects. What nursing process phase is the nurse practising?
a. Planning
b. Evaluation
c. Implementation
d. Nursing diagnosis
ANS: B
Monitoring the patient’s progress is part of the evaluation phase. Planning, implementation, and nursing diagnosis are not
illustrated by this example.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
4. The nurse is caring for a patient who has been newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which statement best illustrates an
outcome criterion for this patient?
a. The patient will follow instructions.
b. The patient will not experience complications.
c. The patient adheres to the new insulin treatment regimen.
d. The patient demonstrates safe insulin self-administration technique.
ANS: D
Having the patient demonstrate safe insulin self-administration technique is a specific and measurable outcome criterion. Following
instructions and avoiding complications are not specific criteria. Adherence to the new insulin treatment regimen is not objective
and would be difficult to measure.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
5. Which activity best reflects the implementation phase of the nursing process for the patient who is newly diagnosed with type 1
diabetes mellitus?
a. Providing education regarding self-injection technique
b. Setting goals and outcome criteria with the patient’s input
c. Recording a history of over-the-counter medications used at home
d. Formulating nursing diagnoses regarding knowledge deficits related to the new
treatment regimen
ANS: A
Education is an intervention that occurs during the implementation phase. Setting goals and outcome criteria reflects the planning
phase. Recording a drug history reflects the assessment phase. Formulating nursing diagnoses regarding a knowledge deficit
reflects analysis of data as part of the planning phase.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis
lOMoARcPSD|13778330
Chapter 01: Nursing Practice in Canada and Drug Therapy
Sealock: Lilley’s Pharmacology for Canadian Health Care Practice, 4th Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which is a judgement about a particular patient’s potential need or problem?
a. A goal
b. An assessment
c. Subjective data
d. A nursing diagnosis
ANS: D
Nursing diagnosis is the phase of the nursing process during which a clinical judgement is made about how a patient responds to
heath conditions and life processes or vulnerability for that response.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge
2. The patient is to receive oral furosemide (Lasix) every day; however, because the patient is unable to swallow, he cannot take
medication orally, as ordered. The nurse needs to contact the physician. What type of problem is this?
a. A “right time” problem
b. A “right dose” problem
c. A “right route” problem
d. A “right medication” problem
ANS: C
This is a “right route” problem: the nurse cannot assume the route and must clarify the route with the prescriber. This is not a “right
time” problem because the ordered frequency has not changed. This is not a “right dose” problem because the dose is not related to
an inability to swallow. This is not a “right medication” problem because the medication ordered will not change, just the route.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
3. The nurse has been monitoring the patient’s progress on his new drug regimen since the first dose and has been documenting signs
of possible adverse effects. What nursing process phase is the nurse practising?
a. Planning
b. Evaluation
c. Implementation
d. Nursing diagnosis
ANS: B
Monitoring the patient’s progress is part of the evaluation phase. Planning, implementation, and nursing diagnosis are not
illustrated by this example.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
4. The nurse is caring for a patient who has been newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which statement best illustrates an
outcome criterion for this patient?
a. The patient will follow instructions.
b. The patient will not experience complications.
c. The patient adheres to the new insulin treatment regimen.
d. The patient demonstrates safe insulin self-administration technique.
ANS: D
Having the patient demonstrate safe insulin self-administration technique is a specific and measurable outcome criterion. Following
instructions and avoiding complications are not specific criteria. Adherence to the new insulin treatment regimen is not objective
and would be difficult to measure.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
5. Which activity best reflects the implementation phase of the nursing process for the patient who is newly diagnosed with type 1
diabetes mellitus?
a. Providing education regarding self-injection technique
b. Setting goals and outcome criteria with the patient’s input
c. Recording a history of over-the-counter medications used at home
d. Formulating nursing diagnoses regarding knowledge deficits related to the new
treatment regimen
ANS: A
Education is an intervention that occurs during the implementation phase. Setting goals and outcome criteria reflects the planning
phase. Recording a drug history reflects the assessment phase. Formulating nursing diagnoses regarding a knowledge deficit
reflects analysis of data as part of the planning phase.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis
lOMoARcPSD|13778330
1
Chapter 01: Nursing Practice in Canada and Drug Therapy
Sealock: Lilley’s Pharmacology for Canadian Health Care Practice, 4th Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which is a judgement about a particular patient’s potential need or problem?
a. A goal
b. An assessment
c. Subjective data
d. A nursing diagnosis
ANS: D
Nursing diagnosis is the phase of the nursing process during which a clinical judgement is made about how a patient responds to
heath conditions and life processes or vulnerability for that response.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge
2. The patient is to receive oral furosemide (Lasix) every day; however, because the patient is unable to swallow, he cannot take
medication orally, as ordered. The nurse needs to contact the physician. What type of problem is this?
a. A “right time” problem
b. A “right dose” problem
c. A “right route” problem
d. A “right medication” problem
ANS: C
This is a “right route” problem: the nurse cannot assume the route and must clarify the route with the prescriber. This is not a “right
time” problem because the ordered frequency has not changed. This is not a “right dose” problem because the dose is not related to
an inability to swallow. This is not a “right medication” problem because the medication ordered will not change, just the route.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
3. The nurse has been monitoring the patient’s progress on his new drug regimen since the first dose and has been documenting signs
of possible adverse effects. What nursing process phase is the nurse practising?
a. Planning
b. Evaluation
c. Implementation
d. Nursing diagnosis
ANS: B
Monitoring the patient’s progress is part of the evaluation phase. Planning, implementation, and nursing diagnosis are not
illustrated by this example.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
4. The nurse is caring for a patient who has been newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which statement best illustrates an
outcome criterion for this patient?
a. The patient will follow instructions.
b. The patient will not experience complications.
c. The patient adheres to the new insulin treatment regimen.
d. The patient demonstrates safe insulin self-administration technique.
ANS: D
Having the patient demonstrate safe insulin self-administration technique is a specific and measurable outcome criterion. Following
instructions and avoiding complications are not specific criteria. Adherence to the new insulin treatment regimen is not objective
and would be difficult to measure.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
5. Which activity best reflects the implementation phase of the nursing process for the patient who is newly diagnosed with type 1
diabetes mellitus?
a. Providing education regarding self-injection technique
b. Setting goals and outcome criteria with the patient’s input
c. Recording a history of over-the-counter medications used at home
d. Formulating nursing diagnoses regarding knowledge deficits related to the new
treatment regimen
ANS: A
Education is an intervention that occurs during the implementation phase. Setting goals and outcome criteria reflects the planning
phase. Recording a drug history reflects the assessment phase. Formulating nursing diagnoses regarding a knowledge deficit
reflects analysis of data as part of the planning phase.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis
lOMoARcPSD|13778330
Chapter 01: Nursing Practice in Canada and Drug Therapy
Sealock: Lilley’s Pharmacology for Canadian Health Care Practice, 4th Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which is a judgement about a particular patient’s potential need or problem?
a. A goal
b. An assessment
c. Subjective data
d. A nursing diagnosis
ANS: D
Nursing diagnosis is the phase of the nursing process during which a clinical judgement is made about how a patient responds to
heath conditions and life processes or vulnerability for that response.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge
2. The patient is to receive oral furosemide (Lasix) every day; however, because the patient is unable to swallow, he cannot take
medication orally, as ordered. The nurse needs to contact the physician. What type of problem is this?
a. A “right time” problem
b. A “right dose” problem
c. A “right route” problem
d. A “right medication” problem
ANS: C
This is a “right route” problem: the nurse cannot assume the route and must clarify the route with the prescriber. This is not a “right
time” problem because the ordered frequency has not changed. This is not a “right dose” problem because the dose is not related to
an inability to swallow. This is not a “right medication” problem because the medication ordered will not change, just the route.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
3. The nurse has been monitoring the patient’s progress on his new drug regimen since the first dose and has been documenting signs
of possible adverse effects. What nursing process phase is the nurse practising?
a. Planning
b. Evaluation
c. Implementation
d. Nursing diagnosis
ANS: B
Monitoring the patient’s progress is part of the evaluation phase. Planning, implementation, and nursing diagnosis are not
illustrated by this example.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
4. The nurse is caring for a patient who has been newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus. Which statement best illustrates an
outcome criterion for this patient?
a. The patient will follow instructions.
b. The patient will not experience complications.
c. The patient adheres to the new insulin treatment regimen.
d. The patient demonstrates safe insulin self-administration technique.
ANS: D
Having the patient demonstrate safe insulin self-administration technique is a specific and measurable outcome criterion. Following
instructions and avoiding complications are not specific criteria. Adherence to the new insulin treatment regimen is not objective
and would be difficult to measure.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
5. Which activity best reflects the implementation phase of the nursing process for the patient who is newly diagnosed with type 1
diabetes mellitus?
a. Providing education regarding self-injection technique
b. Setting goals and outcome criteria with the patient’s input
c. Recording a history of over-the-counter medications used at home
d. Formulating nursing diagnoses regarding knowledge deficits related to the new
treatment regimen
ANS: A
Education is an intervention that occurs during the implementation phase. Setting goals and outcome criteria reflects the planning
phase. Recording a drug history reflects the assessment phase. Formulating nursing diagnoses regarding a knowledge deficit
reflects analysis of data as part of the planning phase.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis
lOMoARcPSD|13778330
2
6. The nurse is working during a very busy night shift, and the health care provider has just given the nurse a medication order over
the telephone, but the nurse does not recall the route. What is the best way for the nurse to avoid medication errors?
a. Recopy the order neatly on the order sheet, with the most common route indicated
b. Consult with the pharmacist for clarification about the most common route
c. Call the health care provider to clarify the route of administration
d. Withhold the drug until the health care provider visits the patient
ANS: C
If a medication order does not include the route, the nurse must ask the health care provider to clarify it. Never assume the route of
administration.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application | Cognitive Level: Analysis
7. Which constitutes the traditional Five Rights of medication administration?
a. Right drug, right route, right dose, right time, and right patient
b. Right drug, the right effect, the right route, the right time, and the right patient
c. Right patient, right strength, right diagnosis, right drug, and right route
d. Right patient, right diagnosis, right drug, right route, and right time
ANS: A
The traditional Five Rights of medication administration were considered to be Right drug, Right route, Right dose, Right time, and
Right patient. Right effect, right strength, and right diagnosis are not part of the traditional Five Rights.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
8. What correctly describes the nursing process?
a. Diagnosing, planning, assessing, implementing, and finally evaluating
b. Assessing, then diagnosing, implementing, and ending with evaluating
c. A linear direction that begins with assessing and continues through diagnosing,
planning, and finally implementing
d. An ongoing process that begins with assessing and continues with diagnosing,
planning, implementing, and evaluating
ANS: D
The nursing process is an ongoing, flexible, adaptable, and adjustable five-step process that begins with assessing and continues
through diagnosing, planning, implementing, and finally evaluating, which may then lead back to any of the other phases.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
9. When the nurse is considering the timing of a drug dose, which is most important to assess?
a. The patient’s identification
b. The patient’s weight
c. The patient’s last meal
d. Any drug or food allergies
ANS: C
The pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic properties of the drug need to be assessed with regard to any drug–food interactions or
compatibility issues. The patient’s identification, weight, and drug or food allergies are not affected by the drug’s timing.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
10. The nurse is writing nursing diagnoses for a plan of care. Which reflects the correct format for her nursing diagnosis?
a. Anxiety
b. Anxiety related to new drug therapy
c. Anxiety related to anxious feelings about drug therapy, as evidenced by
statements such as “I’m upset about having to give myself shots”
d. Anxiety related to new drug therapy, as evidenced by statements such as “I’m
upset about having to give myself shots”
ANS: D
Formulation of nursing diagnoses is usually a three-step process. The only complete answer is “Anxiety related to new drug
therapy, as evidenced by statements such as ‘I’m upset about having to give myself shots.’” The answer “Anxiety” is missing the
“related to” and “as evidenced by” portions. The answer “Anxiety related to new drug therapy” is missing the “as evidenced by”
portion of defining characteristics. The “related to” section in “Anxiety related to anxious feelings about drug therapy, as evidenced
by statements such as ‘I’m upset about having to give myself shots’” is simply a restatement of the problem “anxiety,” not a
separate factor related to the response.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis
OTHER
1. Place the phases of the nursing process in the correct order, starting with the first phase.
a. Planning
b. Evaluation
c. Assessment
d. Implementation
e. Diagnosing
ANS:
C, E, A, D, B
DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis
lOMoARcPSD|13778330
6. The nurse is working during a very busy night shift, and the health care provider has just given the nurse a medication order over
the telephone, but the nurse does not recall the route. What is the best way for the nurse to avoid medication errors?
a. Recopy the order neatly on the order sheet, with the most common route indicated
b. Consult with the pharmacist for clarification about the most common route
c. Call the health care provider to clarify the route of administration
d. Withhold the drug until the health care provider visits the patient
ANS: C
If a medication order does not include the route, the nurse must ask the health care provider to clarify it. Never assume the route of
administration.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application | Cognitive Level: Analysis
7. Which constitutes the traditional Five Rights of medication administration?
a. Right drug, right route, right dose, right time, and right patient
b. Right drug, the right effect, the right route, the right time, and the right patient
c. Right patient, right strength, right diagnosis, right drug, and right route
d. Right patient, right diagnosis, right drug, right route, and right time
ANS: A
The traditional Five Rights of medication administration were considered to be Right drug, Right route, Right dose, Right time, and
Right patient. Right effect, right strength, and right diagnosis are not part of the traditional Five Rights.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
8. What correctly describes the nursing process?
a. Diagnosing, planning, assessing, implementing, and finally evaluating
b. Assessing, then diagnosing, implementing, and ending with evaluating
c. A linear direction that begins with assessing and continues through diagnosing,
planning, and finally implementing
d. An ongoing process that begins with assessing and continues with diagnosing,
planning, implementing, and evaluating
ANS: D
The nursing process is an ongoing, flexible, adaptable, and adjustable five-step process that begins with assessing and continues
through diagnosing, planning, implementing, and finally evaluating, which may then lead back to any of the other phases.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
9. When the nurse is considering the timing of a drug dose, which is most important to assess?
a. The patient’s identification
b. The patient’s weight
c. The patient’s last meal
d. Any drug or food allergies
ANS: C
The pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic properties of the drug need to be assessed with regard to any drug–food interactions or
compatibility issues. The patient’s identification, weight, and drug or food allergies are not affected by the drug’s timing.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
10. The nurse is writing nursing diagnoses for a plan of care. Which reflects the correct format for her nursing diagnosis?
a. Anxiety
b. Anxiety related to new drug therapy
c. Anxiety related to anxious feelings about drug therapy, as evidenced by
statements such as “I’m upset about having to give myself shots”
d. Anxiety related to new drug therapy, as evidenced by statements such as “I’m
upset about having to give myself shots”
ANS: D
Formulation of nursing diagnoses is usually a three-step process. The only complete answer is “Anxiety related to new drug
therapy, as evidenced by statements such as ‘I’m upset about having to give myself shots.’” The answer “Anxiety” is missing the
“related to” and “as evidenced by” portions. The answer “Anxiety related to new drug therapy” is missing the “as evidenced by”
portion of defining characteristics. The “related to” section in “Anxiety related to anxious feelings about drug therapy, as evidenced
by statements such as ‘I’m upset about having to give myself shots’” is simply a restatement of the problem “anxiety,” not a
separate factor related to the response.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis
OTHER
1. Place the phases of the nursing process in the correct order, starting with the first phase.
a. Planning
b. Evaluation
c. Assessment
d. Implementation
e. Diagnosing
ANS:
C, E, A, D, B
DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis
lOMoARcPSD|13778330
1
Chapter 02: Pharmacological Principles
Sealock: Lilley’s Pharmacology for Canadian Health Care Practice, 4th Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. A patient is receiving two different drugs, which, at their current dose forms and dosages, are both absorbed into the circulation in
identical amounts. Which term best denotes that the drugs have the same absorption rates?
a. Equivalent
b. Synergistic
c. Compatible
d. Bioequivalent
ANS: D
Two drugs absorbed into the circulation at the same amount (in specific dosage forms) have the same bioavailability; thus, they are
bioequivalent. “Equivalent” is incorrect because the term “bioavailability” is used to express the extent of drug absorption.
“Synergistic” is incorrect because this term refers to two drugs given together whose resulting effect is greater than the sum of the
effects of each drug given alone. “Compatible” is incorrect because this term is a general term used to indicate that two substances
do not have a chemical reaction when mixed (or given, in the case of drugs) together.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
2. A patient is receiving medication via intravenous injection. Which information should the nurse provide for patient education?
a. The medication will cause fewer adverse effects when given intravenously.
b. The medication will be absorbed slowly into the tissues over time.
c. The medication’s action will begin faster when given intravenously.
d. Most of the drug is inactivated by the liver before it reaches the target area.
ANS: C
Intravenous injections are the fastest route of absorption. The intravenous route does not affect the number of adverse effects, the
intravenous route is not a slow route of absorption, and the intravenous route does not cause inactivation of the drug by the liver
before it reaches the target area.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
3. Which is true regarding parenteral drugs?
a. They bypass the first-pass effect.
b. They decrease blood flow to the stomach.
c. They are altered by the presence of food in the stomach.
d. They exert their effects while circulating in the bloodstream.
ANS: A
Drugs given by the parenteral route bypass the first-pass effect, but they still must be absorbed into cells and tissues before they can
exert their effects. Enteral drugs (drugs taken orally), not parenteral drugs, decrease blood flow to the stomach and are altered by
the presence of food in the stomach. Parenteral drugs must be absorbed into cells and tissues from the circulation before they can
exert their effects; they do not exert their effects while circulating in the bloodstream.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis
4. A drug’s half-life is best defined as
a. The time it takes for the drug to elicit half its therapeutic response.
b. The time it takes one-half of the original amount of a drug to reach the target
cells.
c. The time it takes one-half of the original amount of a drug to be removed from the
body.
d. The time it takes one-half of the original amount of a drug to be absorbed into the
circulation.
ANS: C
A drug’s half-life is the time it takes for one-half of the original amount of a drug to be removed from the body. It is a measure of
the rate at which drugs are removed from the body. Answers A, B, and D are not correct definitions of a drug’s half-life.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
5. The term “duration of action” is best defined as
a. The time it takes for the drug to elicit a therapeutic response.
b. The time it takes a drug to reach its maximum therapeutic response.
c. The length of time it takes to remove a drug from circulation.
d. The time during which drug concentration is sufficient to elicit a therapeutic
response.
ANS: D
Duration of action is the time during which drug concentration is sufficient to elicit a therapeutic response. The time it takes for a
drug to elicit a therapeutic response is the drug’s “onset of action.” The time it takes a drug to reach its maximum therapeutic
response is a drug’s “peak effect.” “The length of time it takes to remove a drug from circulation” defines a drug’s elimination and
does not correctly define a drug’s duration of action.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
lOMoARcPSD|13778330
Chapter 02: Pharmacological Principles
Sealock: Lilley’s Pharmacology for Canadian Health Care Practice, 4th Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. A patient is receiving two different drugs, which, at their current dose forms and dosages, are both absorbed into the circulation in
identical amounts. Which term best denotes that the drugs have the same absorption rates?
a. Equivalent
b. Synergistic
c. Compatible
d. Bioequivalent
ANS: D
Two drugs absorbed into the circulation at the same amount (in specific dosage forms) have the same bioavailability; thus, they are
bioequivalent. “Equivalent” is incorrect because the term “bioavailability” is used to express the extent of drug absorption.
“Synergistic” is incorrect because this term refers to two drugs given together whose resulting effect is greater than the sum of the
effects of each drug given alone. “Compatible” is incorrect because this term is a general term used to indicate that two substances
do not have a chemical reaction when mixed (or given, in the case of drugs) together.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
2. A patient is receiving medication via intravenous injection. Which information should the nurse provide for patient education?
a. The medication will cause fewer adverse effects when given intravenously.
b. The medication will be absorbed slowly into the tissues over time.
c. The medication’s action will begin faster when given intravenously.
d. Most of the drug is inactivated by the liver before it reaches the target area.
ANS: C
Intravenous injections are the fastest route of absorption. The intravenous route does not affect the number of adverse effects, the
intravenous route is not a slow route of absorption, and the intravenous route does not cause inactivation of the drug by the liver
before it reaches the target area.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
3. Which is true regarding parenteral drugs?
a. They bypass the first-pass effect.
b. They decrease blood flow to the stomach.
c. They are altered by the presence of food in the stomach.
d. They exert their effects while circulating in the bloodstream.
ANS: A
Drugs given by the parenteral route bypass the first-pass effect, but they still must be absorbed into cells and tissues before they can
exert their effects. Enteral drugs (drugs taken orally), not parenteral drugs, decrease blood flow to the stomach and are altered by
the presence of food in the stomach. Parenteral drugs must be absorbed into cells and tissues from the circulation before they can
exert their effects; they do not exert their effects while circulating in the bloodstream.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis
4. A drug’s half-life is best defined as
a. The time it takes for the drug to elicit half its therapeutic response.
b. The time it takes one-half of the original amount of a drug to reach the target
cells.
c. The time it takes one-half of the original amount of a drug to be removed from the
body.
d. The time it takes one-half of the original amount of a drug to be absorbed into the
circulation.
ANS: C
A drug’s half-life is the time it takes for one-half of the original amount of a drug to be removed from the body. It is a measure of
the rate at which drugs are removed from the body. Answers A, B, and D are not correct definitions of a drug’s half-life.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
5. The term “duration of action” is best defined as
a. The time it takes for the drug to elicit a therapeutic response.
b. The time it takes a drug to reach its maximum therapeutic response.
c. The length of time it takes to remove a drug from circulation.
d. The time during which drug concentration is sufficient to elicit a therapeutic
response.
ANS: D
Duration of action is the time during which drug concentration is sufficient to elicit a therapeutic response. The time it takes for a
drug to elicit a therapeutic response is the drug’s “onset of action.” The time it takes a drug to reach its maximum therapeutic
response is a drug’s “peak effect.” “The length of time it takes to remove a drug from circulation” defines a drug’s elimination and
does not correctly define a drug’s duration of action.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
lOMoARcPSD|13778330
2
6. A drug interacts with enzymes by
a. altering cell membrane permeability.
b. “fooling” a receptor on the cell wall.
c. enhancing the drug’s effectiveness within the cells.
d. “fooling” the enzyme into binding with it instead of its normal target cell.
ANS: D
When drugs interact with enzymes, they inhibit the action of a specific enzyme by “fooling” the enzyme into binding to it instead
of to its normal target cell. Thus, the target cells are protected from the action of the enzymes to result in a drug effect. The
alteration of cell membrane permeability, the “fooling” of a receptor on the cell wall, and the enhancement of the effectiveness of
drugs within cells do not occur with selective enzyme interactions.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
7. When administering a new medication to a patient, the nurse reads that it is highly protein bound. Which consequence will result
from this protein binding?
a. Renal excretion will take longer.
b. The drug will be metabolized quickly.
c. The duration of action of the medication will be longer.
d. The duration of action of the medication will be shorter.
ANS: C
Drugs that are bound to plasma proteins are characterized by a longer duration of action. Protein binding does not make renal
excretion longer and does not increase metabolism of the drug. Protein binding of a drug means that the duration of action is
longer, not shorter.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
8. When monitoring a patient on an insulin drip to reduce blood glucose levels, the nurse notes that the patient’s glucose level is
extremely low, and the patient is lethargic and difficult to awaken. Which adverse drug reaction is the nurse observing?
a. An adverse effect
b. An allergic reaction
c. An idiosyncratic reaction
d. A pharmacological reaction
ANS: D
A pharmacological reaction is an extension of the drug’s normal effects in the body. In this case, the insulin lowered the patient’s
blood glucose levels too much. An adverse effect is a predictable, well-known adverse drug reaction that results in minor or no
changes in patient management. An allergic reaction (also known as a hypersensitivity reaction) involves the patient’s immune
system. An idiosyncratic reaction is unexpected and is defined as a genetically determined abnormal response to normal dosages of
a drug.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
9. A patient is experiencing chest pain and needs to take a sublingual form of nitroglycerin. Where should the nurse tell the patient to
place the tablet?
a. Under the tongue
b. In the space between the cheek and gum
c. At the back of the throat, for easy swallowing
d. On a non-hairy area on the chest
ANS: A
Drugs taken by the sublingual route are placed under the tongue. Placing the tablet in the space between the cheek and gum is done
for the buccal route; placing the tablet at the back of the throat (for easy swallowing) is done in the oral route; and placing the tablet
on a non-hairy area on the chest is done in the topical or transdermal route.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
10. The nurse is administering medications to a patient who is in liver failure due to end-stage cirrhosis. The nurse is aware that
patients with liver failure are most likely to have problems with which pharmacokinetic phase?
a. Absorption
b. Distribution
c. Metabolism
d. Excretion
ANS: C
The liver is the organ that is most responsible for drug metabolism. Decreased liver function will most affect a drug’s metabolism.
The absorption of a drug is not affected by liver function, and distribution is not affected by liver function. Excretion is affected
only because decreased liver function may not transform drugs into water-soluble substances for elimination via the kidneys, but
this is not the best answer to this question.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
lOMoARcPSD|13778330
6. A drug interacts with enzymes by
a. altering cell membrane permeability.
b. “fooling” a receptor on the cell wall.
c. enhancing the drug’s effectiveness within the cells.
d. “fooling” the enzyme into binding with it instead of its normal target cell.
ANS: D
When drugs interact with enzymes, they inhibit the action of a specific enzyme by “fooling” the enzyme into binding to it instead
of to its normal target cell. Thus, the target cells are protected from the action of the enzymes to result in a drug effect. The
alteration of cell membrane permeability, the “fooling” of a receptor on the cell wall, and the enhancement of the effectiveness of
drugs within cells do not occur with selective enzyme interactions.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
7. When administering a new medication to a patient, the nurse reads that it is highly protein bound. Which consequence will result
from this protein binding?
a. Renal excretion will take longer.
b. The drug will be metabolized quickly.
c. The duration of action of the medication will be longer.
d. The duration of action of the medication will be shorter.
ANS: C
Drugs that are bound to plasma proteins are characterized by a longer duration of action. Protein binding does not make renal
excretion longer and does not increase metabolism of the drug. Protein binding of a drug means that the duration of action is
longer, not shorter.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
8. When monitoring a patient on an insulin drip to reduce blood glucose levels, the nurse notes that the patient’s glucose level is
extremely low, and the patient is lethargic and difficult to awaken. Which adverse drug reaction is the nurse observing?
a. An adverse effect
b. An allergic reaction
c. An idiosyncratic reaction
d. A pharmacological reaction
ANS: D
A pharmacological reaction is an extension of the drug’s normal effects in the body. In this case, the insulin lowered the patient’s
blood glucose levels too much. An adverse effect is a predictable, well-known adverse drug reaction that results in minor or no
changes in patient management. An allergic reaction (also known as a hypersensitivity reaction) involves the patient’s immune
system. An idiosyncratic reaction is unexpected and is defined as a genetically determined abnormal response to normal dosages of
a drug.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
9. A patient is experiencing chest pain and needs to take a sublingual form of nitroglycerin. Where should the nurse tell the patient to
place the tablet?
a. Under the tongue
b. In the space between the cheek and gum
c. At the back of the throat, for easy swallowing
d. On a non-hairy area on the chest
ANS: A
Drugs taken by the sublingual route are placed under the tongue. Placing the tablet in the space between the cheek and gum is done
for the buccal route; placing the tablet at the back of the throat (for easy swallowing) is done in the oral route; and placing the tablet
on a non-hairy area on the chest is done in the topical or transdermal route.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
10. The nurse is administering medications to a patient who is in liver failure due to end-stage cirrhosis. The nurse is aware that
patients with liver failure are most likely to have problems with which pharmacokinetic phase?
a. Absorption
b. Distribution
c. Metabolism
d. Excretion
ANS: C
The liver is the organ that is most responsible for drug metabolism. Decreased liver function will most affect a drug’s metabolism.
The absorption of a drug is not affected by liver function, and distribution is not affected by liver function. Excretion is affected
only because decreased liver function may not transform drugs into water-soluble substances for elimination via the kidneys, but
this is not the best answer to this question.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
lOMoARcPSD|13778330
1
Chapter 03: Legal and Ethical Considerations
Sealock: Lilley’s Pharmacology for Canadian Health Care Practice, 4th Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. In the development of a new drug by a pharmaceutical company, the researcher must ensure that the participants in experimental
drug studies do not have unrealistic expectations of the new drug’s usefulness. What will the researcher include in the design of the
study to prevent bias that may occur?
a. A placebo
b. Health Canada approval
c. Informed consent
d. Efficacy information
ANS: A
To prevent bias that may occur as a result of unrealistic expectations of an investigational new drug, a placebo will be incorporated
into the study. Health Canada approval, if given, does not be obtained until after phase III of the study. Informed consent is
required in all drug studies. Efficacy information is not determined until the study is under way.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
2. A member of an investigational drug study team is working with healthy volunteers whose participation will help determine the
optimal dosage range and pharmacokinetics of the drug. In what type of study is the team member participating?
a. Phase I
b. Phase II
c. Phase III
d. Phase IV
ANS: A
Phase I studies involve small numbers of healthy volunteers to determine the optimal dosage range and the pharmacokinetics of the
drug. Phases II, III, and IV involve progressively larger numbers of volunteers who have the disease or ailment that the drug is
designed to diagnose or treat.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
3. A patient has a prescription for a drug classified as Schedule F. What important information should the nurse give this patient about
obtaining refills for this medication?
a. No prescription refills are permitted.
b. Refills may be obtained via telephone order.
c. Refills are indicated by the prescriber.
d. The patient may have no more than six refills in a 12-month period.
ANS: C
Schedule F contains a list of drugs that can be sold and refilled only on prescription; prescriptions can be refilled as often as
indicated by the prescriber.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis
4. A patient has been chosen to be a recipient of an investigational drug for heart failure and has given informed consent. Which is
indicated by the patient’s informed consent?
a. The patient has been informed of the possible benefits of the new therapy.
b. The patient will be informed of the details of the study as the research continues.
c. The patient will not be assured of receiving the actual drug during the experiment.
d. The patient has received an explanation of the study’s purpose, procedures, and
the benefits and risks involved.
ANS: D
Informed consent involves the careful explanation of the purpose of the study, procedures to be used, and the possible benefits and
risks involved. Being informed of the possible benefits of the new therapy, being informed of the study details as research
continues, and being assured of receiving the actual drug during the experiment do not describe informed consent.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
5. Which is the most significant part of legislation in regard to professional nursing practice?
a. Canada Health Act
b. Nursing Practice Act
c. Controlled Drugs and Substances Act
d. Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act
ANS: B
Nurse practice acts (NPAs) are regulatory laws that are instrumental in defining the scope of nursing practice and that protect
public health, safety, and welfare. Nursing practice in Canada is regulated by separate acts in each of the 10 provinces and 3
territories. These acts grant self-governance to the nursing profession, direct entry into nursing practice, define the scopes of
practice, and identify disciplinary actions. NPAs are the most significant part of legislation in regard to professional nursing
practice.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
lOMoARcPSD|13778330
Chapter 03: Legal and Ethical Considerations
Sealock: Lilley’s Pharmacology for Canadian Health Care Practice, 4th Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. In the development of a new drug by a pharmaceutical company, the researcher must ensure that the participants in experimental
drug studies do not have unrealistic expectations of the new drug’s usefulness. What will the researcher include in the design of the
study to prevent bias that may occur?
a. A placebo
b. Health Canada approval
c. Informed consent
d. Efficacy information
ANS: A
To prevent bias that may occur as a result of unrealistic expectations of an investigational new drug, a placebo will be incorporated
into the study. Health Canada approval, if given, does not be obtained until after phase III of the study. Informed consent is
required in all drug studies. Efficacy information is not determined until the study is under way.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
2. A member of an investigational drug study team is working with healthy volunteers whose participation will help determine the
optimal dosage range and pharmacokinetics of the drug. In what type of study is the team member participating?
a. Phase I
b. Phase II
c. Phase III
d. Phase IV
ANS: A
Phase I studies involve small numbers of healthy volunteers to determine the optimal dosage range and the pharmacokinetics of the
drug. Phases II, III, and IV involve progressively larger numbers of volunteers who have the disease or ailment that the drug is
designed to diagnose or treat.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
3. A patient has a prescription for a drug classified as Schedule F. What important information should the nurse give this patient about
obtaining refills for this medication?
a. No prescription refills are permitted.
b. Refills may be obtained via telephone order.
c. Refills are indicated by the prescriber.
d. The patient may have no more than six refills in a 12-month period.
ANS: C
Schedule F contains a list of drugs that can be sold and refilled only on prescription; prescriptions can be refilled as often as
indicated by the prescriber.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis
4. A patient has been chosen to be a recipient of an investigational drug for heart failure and has given informed consent. Which is
indicated by the patient’s informed consent?
a. The patient has been informed of the possible benefits of the new therapy.
b. The patient will be informed of the details of the study as the research continues.
c. The patient will not be assured of receiving the actual drug during the experiment.
d. The patient has received an explanation of the study’s purpose, procedures, and
the benefits and risks involved.
ANS: D
Informed consent involves the careful explanation of the purpose of the study, procedures to be used, and the possible benefits and
risks involved. Being informed of the possible benefits of the new therapy, being informed of the study details as research
continues, and being assured of receiving the actual drug during the experiment do not describe informed consent.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
5. Which is the most significant part of legislation in regard to professional nursing practice?
a. Canada Health Act
b. Nursing Practice Act
c. Controlled Drugs and Substances Act
d. Personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act
ANS: B
Nurse practice acts (NPAs) are regulatory laws that are instrumental in defining the scope of nursing practice and that protect
public health, safety, and welfare. Nursing practice in Canada is regulated by separate acts in each of the 10 provinces and 3
territories. These acts grant self-governance to the nursing profession, direct entry into nursing practice, define the scopes of
practice, and identify disciplinary actions. NPAs are the most significant part of legislation in regard to professional nursing
practice.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
lOMoARcPSD|13778330
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2
6. What potential failure is identified when a patient with a documented penicillin allergy receives 1.2 g of benzylpenicillin IV?
a. Failure to assess
b. Failure to evaluate
c. Failure to ensure safety
d. Failure to identify the patient
ANS: C
Failure to ensure safety includes lack of adequate monitoring, failure to identify patient allergies and other risk factors related to
medication therapy, inappropriate drug administration technique, and failure to implement appropriate nursing actions because of
improper assessment of the patient’s condition. Whereas failure to assess or evaluate includes failure to see significant changes in
the patient’s condition after taking a medication, failure to report these changes, failure to take a complete medication history and
nursing assessment/history, and failure to monitor the patient after medication administration. Failure to identify the patient’s
identity is a medication error.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
7. Which statement correctly describes drugs in Part G, Part II of the Food and Drugs Act?
a. They are drugs with high potential for misuse that have an accepted medical use.
b. They are drugs with high potential for misuse that do not have an accepted
medical use.
c. They are medically accepted drugs that may cause mild physical or psychological
dependence.
d. They are medically accepted drugs with very limited potential for causing mild
physical or psychological dependence.
ANS: A
Part G, Part II drugs are those with high potential for misuse that have an accepted medical use (e.g., barbiturates).
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
8. Miss Knox, a 26-year-old, has returned to the surgical unit post appendectomy. The physician has prescribed intravenous (IV)
morphine for pain. According to the Controlled Drugs and Substances ACT (CDSA), morphine is classified under which schedule?
a. Schedule I
b. Schedule IV
c. Schedule V
d. Schedule III
ANS: A
The CDSA is based on eight schedules that list controlled drugs and substances based on potential for misuse or harm or how easy
they are to manufacture into illicit substances. A summary of Schedule I contains the most dangerous drugs, including opiates
(opium, heroin, morphine, cocaine), fentanyls, and methamphetamine.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
1. Which are elements of ethical principles in nursing and health care according to the Canadian Nurses Association (CNA) Code of
Ethics? (Select all that apply.)
a. Promoting justice
b. Maintaining anonymity
c. Demonstrating responsibility
d. Preserving dignity
e. Promoting health and well-being
ANS: A, D, E
Elements of ethical principles in nursing and health care according to the CNA Code of Ethics include providing safe,
compassionate, competent, and ethical nursing care; maintaining privacy and confidentiality; promoting justice, being accountable,
preserving dignity, and promoting and respecting informed decision making; and promoting health and well-being.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Critical Thinking
2. The personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act (PIPEDA) is a federal law governing the collection, use and
disclosure of personal health details. Protected health information includes? (Select all that apply.)
a. Patients’ health conditions
b. Payment information
c. Prescription numbers
d. Dietary restrictions
e. Medications
ANS: A, B, C, E
The personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act (PIPEDA) requires all health care providers, health insurance
and life insurance companies, public health authorities, employers, and schools to maintain patient privacy regarding protected
health information. Protected health information includes any individually identifying information such as patients’ health
conditions, account numbers, prescription numbers, medications, and payment information. A postal code on its own covers a wide
geographical area.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
lOMoARcPSD|13778330
6. What potential failure is identified when a patient with a documented penicillin allergy receives 1.2 g of benzylpenicillin IV?
a. Failure to assess
b. Failure to evaluate
c. Failure to ensure safety
d. Failure to identify the patient
ANS: C
Failure to ensure safety includes lack of adequate monitoring, failure to identify patient allergies and other risk factors related to
medication therapy, inappropriate drug administration technique, and failure to implement appropriate nursing actions because of
improper assessment of the patient’s condition. Whereas failure to assess or evaluate includes failure to see significant changes in
the patient’s condition after taking a medication, failure to report these changes, failure to take a complete medication history and
nursing assessment/history, and failure to monitor the patient after medication administration. Failure to identify the patient’s
identity is a medication error.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
7. Which statement correctly describes drugs in Part G, Part II of the Food and Drugs Act?
a. They are drugs with high potential for misuse that have an accepted medical use.
b. They are drugs with high potential for misuse that do not have an accepted
medical use.
c. They are medically accepted drugs that may cause mild physical or psychological
dependence.
d. They are medically accepted drugs with very limited potential for causing mild
physical or psychological dependence.
ANS: A
Part G, Part II drugs are those with high potential for misuse that have an accepted medical use (e.g., barbiturates).
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
8. Miss Knox, a 26-year-old, has returned to the surgical unit post appendectomy. The physician has prescribed intravenous (IV)
morphine for pain. According to the Controlled Drugs and Substances ACT (CDSA), morphine is classified under which schedule?
a. Schedule I
b. Schedule IV
c. Schedule V
d. Schedule III
ANS: A
The CDSA is based on eight schedules that list controlled drugs and substances based on potential for misuse or harm or how easy
they are to manufacture into illicit substances. A summary of Schedule I contains the most dangerous drugs, including opiates
(opium, heroin, morphine, cocaine), fentanyls, and methamphetamine.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
1. Which are elements of ethical principles in nursing and health care according to the Canadian Nurses Association (CNA) Code of
Ethics? (Select all that apply.)
a. Promoting justice
b. Maintaining anonymity
c. Demonstrating responsibility
d. Preserving dignity
e. Promoting health and well-being
ANS: A, D, E
Elements of ethical principles in nursing and health care according to the CNA Code of Ethics include providing safe,
compassionate, competent, and ethical nursing care; maintaining privacy and confidentiality; promoting justice, being accountable,
preserving dignity, and promoting and respecting informed decision making; and promoting health and well-being.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Critical Thinking
2. The personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act (PIPEDA) is a federal law governing the collection, use and
disclosure of personal health details. Protected health information includes? (Select all that apply.)
a. Patients’ health conditions
b. Payment information
c. Prescription numbers
d. Dietary restrictions
e. Medications
ANS: A, B, C, E
The personal Information Protection and Electronic Documents Act (PIPEDA) requires all health care providers, health insurance
and life insurance companies, public health authorities, employers, and schools to maintain patient privacy regarding protected
health information. Protected health information includes any individually identifying information such as patients’ health
conditions, account numbers, prescription numbers, medications, and payment information. A postal code on its own covers a wide
geographical area.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
lOMoARcPSD|13778330
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1
Chapter 04: Patient-Focused Considerations
Sealock: Lilley’s Pharmacology for Canadian Health Care Practice, 4th Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. During the last trimester of pregnancy, drug transfer to the fetus is more likely to occur. Which is a reason for this possibility?
a. Fetal size
b. Decreased surface area
c. Enhanced placental blood flow
d. Increased amount of bound drug in maternal circulation
ANS: C
Drug transfer to the fetus is more likely during the last trimester, as a result of enhanced placental blood flow, increased fetal
surface area, and an increased amount of free drug in the mother’s circulation. Increased, not decreased, fetal surface area affects
drug transfer to the fetus. The placenta’s surface area does not increase during this time. Drug transfer is increased due to an
increased amount of free drug, not protein-bound drug, in the mother’s circulation. “Fetal size” is incorrect because the first
trimester of pregnancy is the period of greatest danger of drug-induced developmental defects. During this period, the fetus
undergoes rapid cell proliferation. Gestational age is more important than fetal size.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
2. Which type of dosage calculation is used most commonly when calculating drug dosages for children?
a. Fried’s rule
b. Clark’s rule
c. Young’s rule
d. The mg/kg formula
ANS: D
The body weight method, using the mg/kg formula, is the most common and reliable method for calculating doses for young
patients. Fried’s rule, Clark’s rule, and Young’s rule are not methods used for calculating drug dosages for young patients.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge
3. While assessing an 82-year-old woman, the nurse determines that the patient is experiencing polypharmacy. What is this
experience most likely to indicate?
a. The patient has a lower risk of drug interactions.
b. The patient takes medications for one illness several times a day.
c. The patient risks problems only if she also takes over-the-counter medications.
d. The patient takes multiple medications for several different illnesses.
ANS: D
Polypharmacy usually occurs when a patient has several illnesses and takes medications for each of them, medications possibly
prescribed by different specialists who may be unaware of the patient’s other treatments. This situation puts the patient at increased
risk of drug interactions and adverse reactions. Polypharmacy means that the patient has a higher, not lower, risk of drug
interactions, and that the patient is taking several different medications, not just one. Polypharmacy can include prescription drugs,
over-the-counter medications, and natural health products.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
4. Which statement is true in regard to children?
a. Their levels of microsomal enzymes are decreased compared to those of adults.
b. Their total body water content is much less than that of adults.
c. Their first-pass elimination is increased because of higher portal circulation.
d. Gastric emptying is more rapid than that of adults because of increased peristaltic
activity.
ANS: A
In children, the levels of microsomal enzymes are decreased. A child’s gastric emptying is slowed because of slow or irregular
peristalsis. Total body water content is greater in children than in adults, and first-pass elimination by the liver is reduced because
of immaturity of the liver and reduced levels of microsomal enzymes.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
5. For accurate medication administration to young patients, the nurse must take into account which information?
a. Weight, height, age, and organ maturity
b. Age, glomerular filtration rate, and weight
c. Weight, height, body temperature, and age
d. Weight, height, and total body water content
ANS: A
To accurately administer medications to young patients, their weight, height, age, physical condition, metabolism and organ
maturity must be taken into account. Glomerular filtration rate, body temperature, and total body water content are not
considerations when administering medications to young patients.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
lOMoARcPSD|13778330
Chapter 04: Patient-Focused Considerations
Sealock: Lilley’s Pharmacology for Canadian Health Care Practice, 4th Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. During the last trimester of pregnancy, drug transfer to the fetus is more likely to occur. Which is a reason for this possibility?
a. Fetal size
b. Decreased surface area
c. Enhanced placental blood flow
d. Increased amount of bound drug in maternal circulation
ANS: C
Drug transfer to the fetus is more likely during the last trimester, as a result of enhanced placental blood flow, increased fetal
surface area, and an increased amount of free drug in the mother’s circulation. Increased, not decreased, fetal surface area affects
drug transfer to the fetus. The placenta’s surface area does not increase during this time. Drug transfer is increased due to an
increased amount of free drug, not protein-bound drug, in the mother’s circulation. “Fetal size” is incorrect because the first
trimester of pregnancy is the period of greatest danger of drug-induced developmental defects. During this period, the fetus
undergoes rapid cell proliferation. Gestational age is more important than fetal size.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
2. Which type of dosage calculation is used most commonly when calculating drug dosages for children?
a. Fried’s rule
b. Clark’s rule
c. Young’s rule
d. The mg/kg formula
ANS: D
The body weight method, using the mg/kg formula, is the most common and reliable method for calculating doses for young
patients. Fried’s rule, Clark’s rule, and Young’s rule are not methods used for calculating drug dosages for young patients.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge
3. While assessing an 82-year-old woman, the nurse determines that the patient is experiencing polypharmacy. What is this
experience most likely to indicate?
a. The patient has a lower risk of drug interactions.
b. The patient takes medications for one illness several times a day.
c. The patient risks problems only if she also takes over-the-counter medications.
d. The patient takes multiple medications for several different illnesses.
ANS: D
Polypharmacy usually occurs when a patient has several illnesses and takes medications for each of them, medications possibly
prescribed by different specialists who may be unaware of the patient’s other treatments. This situation puts the patient at increased
risk of drug interactions and adverse reactions. Polypharmacy means that the patient has a higher, not lower, risk of drug
interactions, and that the patient is taking several different medications, not just one. Polypharmacy can include prescription drugs,
over-the-counter medications, and natural health products.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
4. Which statement is true in regard to children?
a. Their levels of microsomal enzymes are decreased compared to those of adults.
b. Their total body water content is much less than that of adults.
c. Their first-pass elimination is increased because of higher portal circulation.
d. Gastric emptying is more rapid than that of adults because of increased peristaltic
activity.
ANS: A
In children, the levels of microsomal enzymes are decreased. A child’s gastric emptying is slowed because of slow or irregular
peristalsis. Total body water content is greater in children than in adults, and first-pass elimination by the liver is reduced because
of immaturity of the liver and reduced levels of microsomal enzymes.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
5. For accurate medication administration to young patients, the nurse must take into account which information?
a. Weight, height, age, and organ maturity
b. Age, glomerular filtration rate, and weight
c. Weight, height, body temperature, and age
d. Weight, height, and total body water content
ANS: A
To accurately administer medications to young patients, their weight, height, age, physical condition, metabolism and organ
maturity must be taken into account. Glomerular filtration rate, body temperature, and total body water content are not
considerations when administering medications to young patients.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
lOMoARcPSD|13778330
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2
6. An older adult patient will often experience a reduction in the stomach’s ability to produce hydrochloric acid. This change will
result in which alteration?
a. Delayed gastric emptying
b. Increased gastric acidity
c. Decreased intestinal absorption of medications
d. Altered absorption of select drugs
ANS: D
This aging-related change results in a decrease in gastric acidity and may alter the absorption of some drugs. Delayed gastric
emptying, increased gastric acidity, and decreased intestinal absorption of medications are not results of reduced hydrochloric acid
production.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
7. Which is the reason drug toxicity is more likely to occur in the neonate?
a. The lungs are immature.
b. The kidneys are smaller.
c. The liver is not fully developed.
d. Renal excretion of the drug is faster.
ANS: C
A neonate’s liver is not fully developed and cannot detoxify many drugs; thus, drug toxicity is more likely to occur in the neonate.
The lungs and kidneys do not play major roles in drug metabolism. Renal excretion of the drug is slower, not faster, due to organ
immaturity.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
8. An 83-year-old female patient has been given a thiazide diuretic to treat mild heart failure. She and her daughter should be taught to
watch for which complications?
a. Dizziness and constipation
b. Fatigue and dehydration
c. Daytime sedation and lethargy
d. Edema and blurred vision
ANS: B
Electrolyte imbalance, fatigue, and dehydration are common complications of thiazide diuretics in older adult patients. Dizziness
and constipation, daytime sedation and lethargy, and edema and blurred vision are not complications that occur when these drugs
are given to older adults.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
9. Which complication is common with an older adult patient who is taking digoxin?
a. Hallucinations
b. Edema
c. Dry mouth
d. Constipation
ANS: A
Common complications for older adults taking digoxin include visual disorders, nausea, diarrhea, dysrhythmias, hallucinations,
decreased appetite, and weight loss. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs may cause edema, anticholinergics and antihistamines
may cause dry mouth, and opioids may cause constipation.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
10. The nurse is aware that confusion, ataxia, and increased risk for falls are older adult patients’ common responses to which
medication?
a. Laxatives
b. Anticoagulants
c. Sedatives
d. Diuretics
ANS: C
In older adults, sedatives and hypnotics often cause confusion, daytime sedation, ataxia, lethargy, and increased risk for falls.
Laxatives, anticoagulants, and diuretics may cause adverse effects in older adults, but not the adverse effects specified in the
question.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
lOMoARcPSD|13778330
6. An older adult patient will often experience a reduction in the stomach’s ability to produce hydrochloric acid. This change will
result in which alteration?
a. Delayed gastric emptying
b. Increased gastric acidity
c. Decreased intestinal absorption of medications
d. Altered absorption of select drugs
ANS: D
This aging-related change results in a decrease in gastric acidity and may alter the absorption of some drugs. Delayed gastric
emptying, increased gastric acidity, and decreased intestinal absorption of medications are not results of reduced hydrochloric acid
production.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
7. Which is the reason drug toxicity is more likely to occur in the neonate?
a. The lungs are immature.
b. The kidneys are smaller.
c. The liver is not fully developed.
d. Renal excretion of the drug is faster.
ANS: C
A neonate’s liver is not fully developed and cannot detoxify many drugs; thus, drug toxicity is more likely to occur in the neonate.
The lungs and kidneys do not play major roles in drug metabolism. Renal excretion of the drug is slower, not faster, due to organ
immaturity.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
8. An 83-year-old female patient has been given a thiazide diuretic to treat mild heart failure. She and her daughter should be taught to
watch for which complications?
a. Dizziness and constipation
b. Fatigue and dehydration
c. Daytime sedation and lethargy
d. Edema and blurred vision
ANS: B
Electrolyte imbalance, fatigue, and dehydration are common complications of thiazide diuretics in older adult patients. Dizziness
and constipation, daytime sedation and lethargy, and edema and blurred vision are not complications that occur when these drugs
are given to older adults.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
9. Which complication is common with an older adult patient who is taking digoxin?
a. Hallucinations
b. Edema
c. Dry mouth
d. Constipation
ANS: A
Common complications for older adults taking digoxin include visual disorders, nausea, diarrhea, dysrhythmias, hallucinations,
decreased appetite, and weight loss. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs may cause edema, anticholinergics and antihistamines
may cause dry mouth, and opioids may cause constipation.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
10. The nurse is aware that confusion, ataxia, and increased risk for falls are older adult patients’ common responses to which
medication?
a. Laxatives
b. Anticoagulants
c. Sedatives
d. Diuretics
ANS: C
In older adults, sedatives and hypnotics often cause confusion, daytime sedation, ataxia, lethargy, and increased risk for falls.
Laxatives, anticoagulants, and diuretics may cause adverse effects in older adults, but not the adverse effects specified in the
question.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
lOMoARcPSD|13778330
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3
11. The nurse is trying to give a liquid medication to a 2-year-old child and notes that the medication has a strong taste. The best way
for the nurse to give this medication to a child is to
a. Give the medication with spoonfuls of sherbet.
b. Add the medication to the child’s bottle.
c. Tell the child you have candy.
d. Add the medication to a cup of milk.
ANS: A
Using sherbet or another non-essential food that makes the medication taste better is the best way to give a strong-tasting
medication to a child. Adding the medication to the child’s bottle is not correct because the child may not drink the entire contents
of the bottle, thus wasting the medication. Telling the child that the medication is candy is not correct because using the word
“candy” with drugs may lead to the child’s thinking that drugs are actually candy. Adding the medication to a cup of milk is not
correct because the child may not drink the entire cup of milk, and the distasteful drug may cause the child to refuse milk in the
future.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
12. For which cultural group must the nurse respect the value placed on natural health products, the use of heat, and a concern for the
balance of opposing forces that lead to illness or health?
a. Hispanic Canadians
b. Asian Canadians
c. Indigenous peoples
d. Black people of African descent
ANS: B
Some Asian Canadians believe in yin and yang, which are opposing forces leading to illness or health, depending on which force is
in balance. Other health practices for this cultural group include belief in the use of heat and in the value of herbal remedies.
Hispanic Canadians, Indigenous peoples, and Black people of African descent do not typically engage in these practices.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
13. A nurse is assessing an older adult Indigenous woman who is being treated for hypertension. During the assessment, what
important information should the nurse remember or expect in regard to culture?
a. The patient should be discouraged from using traditional remedies and rituals.
b. The nurse should expect the patient to value protective bracelets and herbal teas.
c. The nurse should remember that the balance between body, mind, and
environment is important to this patient’s health beliefs.
d. The assessment should include information about cultural practices and beliefs
regarding medication, treatment, and healing.
ANS: D
All beliefs need to be strongly considered to prevent a conflict between the goals of nursing and health care and the dictates of a
patient’s cultural background. Assessing cultural practices and beliefs is part of a thorough assessment. The nurse should not ignore
a patient’s cultural practices. Protective bracelets, use of herbal teas, and balance between body, mind, and environment do not
describe beliefs and practices that usually apply to this patient’s cultural group.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
14. Which ethnocultural group believes in harmony with nature and views ill spirits as causing disease?
a. Black people of African descent
b. South Asian Canadians
c. Filipino Canadians
d. Indigenous peoples
ANS: D
Indigenous peoples believe in harmony with nature and view ill spirits as causing disease.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
15. Which contributes to drug polymorphism?
a. The number of drugs ordered by the physician
b. The patient’s drug history
c. The patient’s age, sex, and body composition
d. Different dosage forms of the same drug
ANS: C
A patient’s age, sex, size, and body composition are some of the factors that contribute to drug polymorphism, which is the effect
of such variables on how an individual absorbs or metabolizes specific drugs. The number of drugs ordered by the physician, the
patient’s drug history, and different dosage forms of the same drug are not factors that contribute to drug polymorphism.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
16. Which best describes drug polymorphism?
a. Cultural and genetic effects on drug metabolism and excretion
b. Gender and cultural effects on drug absorption and distribution
c. Age or body composition effects on drug absorption or metabolism
d. Multidrug use resulting in impaired excretion
ANS: C
Drug polymorphism is the variation in response to a drug because of a patient’s age, sex, size, and body composition.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
lOMoARcPSD|13778330
11. The nurse is trying to give a liquid medication to a 2-year-old child and notes that the medication has a strong taste. The best way
for the nurse to give this medication to a child is to
a. Give the medication with spoonfuls of sherbet.
b. Add the medication to the child’s bottle.
c. Tell the child you have candy.
d. Add the medication to a cup of milk.
ANS: A
Using sherbet or another non-essential food that makes the medication taste better is the best way to give a strong-tasting
medication to a child. Adding the medication to the child’s bottle is not correct because the child may not drink the entire contents
of the bottle, thus wasting the medication. Telling the child that the medication is candy is not correct because using the word
“candy” with drugs may lead to the child’s thinking that drugs are actually candy. Adding the medication to a cup of milk is not
correct because the child may not drink the entire cup of milk, and the distasteful drug may cause the child to refuse milk in the
future.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
12. For which cultural group must the nurse respect the value placed on natural health products, the use of heat, and a concern for the
balance of opposing forces that lead to illness or health?
a. Hispanic Canadians
b. Asian Canadians
c. Indigenous peoples
d. Black people of African descent
ANS: B
Some Asian Canadians believe in yin and yang, which are opposing forces leading to illness or health, depending on which force is
in balance. Other health practices for this cultural group include belief in the use of heat and in the value of herbal remedies.
Hispanic Canadians, Indigenous peoples, and Black people of African descent do not typically engage in these practices.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
13. A nurse is assessing an older adult Indigenous woman who is being treated for hypertension. During the assessment, what
important information should the nurse remember or expect in regard to culture?
a. The patient should be discouraged from using traditional remedies and rituals.
b. The nurse should expect the patient to value protective bracelets and herbal teas.
c. The nurse should remember that the balance between body, mind, and
environment is important to this patient’s health beliefs.
d. The assessment should include information about cultural practices and beliefs
regarding medication, treatment, and healing.
ANS: D
All beliefs need to be strongly considered to prevent a conflict between the goals of nursing and health care and the dictates of a
patient’s cultural background. Assessing cultural practices and beliefs is part of a thorough assessment. The nurse should not ignore
a patient’s cultural practices. Protective bracelets, use of herbal teas, and balance between body, mind, and environment do not
describe beliefs and practices that usually apply to this patient’s cultural group.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
14. Which ethnocultural group believes in harmony with nature and views ill spirits as causing disease?
a. Black people of African descent
b. South Asian Canadians
c. Filipino Canadians
d. Indigenous peoples
ANS: D
Indigenous peoples believe in harmony with nature and view ill spirits as causing disease.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
15. Which contributes to drug polymorphism?
a. The number of drugs ordered by the physician
b. The patient’s drug history
c. The patient’s age, sex, and body composition
d. Different dosage forms of the same drug
ANS: C
A patient’s age, sex, size, and body composition are some of the factors that contribute to drug polymorphism, which is the effect
of such variables on how an individual absorbs or metabolizes specific drugs. The number of drugs ordered by the physician, the
patient’s drug history, and different dosage forms of the same drug are not factors that contribute to drug polymorphism.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
16. Which best describes drug polymorphism?
a. Cultural and genetic effects on drug metabolism and excretion
b. Gender and cultural effects on drug absorption and distribution
c. Age or body composition effects on drug absorption or metabolism
d. Multidrug use resulting in impaired excretion
ANS: C
Drug polymorphism is the variation in response to a drug because of a patient’s age, sex, size, and body composition.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
lOMoARcPSD|13778330
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4
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
1. Which is true regarding young patients? (Select all that apply.)
a. The levels of microsomal enzymes are decreased.
b. Perfusion to the kidneys may be decreased, which may result in reduced renal
function.
c. First-pass elimination is increased because of higher portal circulation.
d. First-pass elimination is reduced because of the immaturity of the liver.
e. Total body water content is much less than in adults.
f. Gastric emptying is slowed because of slow or irregular peristalsis.
g. Gastric emptying is more rapid because of increased peristaltic activity.
ANS: A, B, D, F
In children, microsomal enzymes are decreased and first-pass elimination by the liver is reduced because of the immaturity of the
liver. In addition, gastric emptying is reduced because of slow or irregular peristalsis. Perfusion to the kidneys may be decreased,
resulting in reduced renal function. “First-pass elimination is increased because of higher portal circulation” and “Gastric emptying
is more rapid because of increased peristaltic activity” are not correct statements. Total body water content is greater in children
than in adults.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
2. Which is true regarding older adults? (Select all that apply.)
a. The levels of microsomal enzymes are decreased.
b. Fat content is increased because of decreased lean body mass.
c. Fat content is decreased because of increased lean body mass.
d. The number of intact nephrons is increased.
e. The number of intact nephrons is decreased.
f. Gastric pH is less acidic.
g. Gastric pH is more acidic.
ANS: A, B, E, F
In older adults, levels of microsomal enzymes are decreased because the aging liver is less able to produce them; fat content is
increased because of decreased lean body mass; the number of intact nephrons is decreased due to aging; and gastric pH is less
acidic due to a gradual reduction of the production of hydrochloric acid. “Fat content is decreased because of increased lean body
mass,” “The number of intact nephrons is increased,” and “Gastric pH is more acidic” are incorrect statements.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
lOMoARcPSD|13778330
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
1. Which is true regarding young patients? (Select all that apply.)
a. The levels of microsomal enzymes are decreased.
b. Perfusion to the kidneys may be decreased, which may result in reduced renal
function.
c. First-pass elimination is increased because of higher portal circulation.
d. First-pass elimination is reduced because of the immaturity of the liver.
e. Total body water content is much less than in adults.
f. Gastric emptying is slowed because of slow or irregular peristalsis.
g. Gastric emptying is more rapid because of increased peristaltic activity.
ANS: A, B, D, F
In children, microsomal enzymes are decreased and first-pass elimination by the liver is reduced because of the immaturity of the
liver. In addition, gastric emptying is reduced because of slow or irregular peristalsis. Perfusion to the kidneys may be decreased,
resulting in reduced renal function. “First-pass elimination is increased because of higher portal circulation” and “Gastric emptying
is more rapid because of increased peristaltic activity” are not correct statements. Total body water content is greater in children
than in adults.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
2. Which is true regarding older adults? (Select all that apply.)
a. The levels of microsomal enzymes are decreased.
b. Fat content is increased because of decreased lean body mass.
c. Fat content is decreased because of increased lean body mass.
d. The number of intact nephrons is increased.
e. The number of intact nephrons is decreased.
f. Gastric pH is less acidic.
g. Gastric pH is more acidic.
ANS: A, B, E, F
In older adults, levels of microsomal enzymes are decreased because the aging liver is less able to produce them; fat content is
increased because of decreased lean body mass; the number of intact nephrons is decreased due to aging; and gastric pH is less
acidic due to a gradual reduction of the production of hydrochloric acid. “Fat content is decreased because of increased lean body
mass,” “The number of intact nephrons is increased,” and “Gastric pH is more acidic” are incorrect statements.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
lOMoARcPSD|13778330
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1
Chapter 05: Gene Therapy and Pharmacogenomics
Sealock: Lilley’s Pharmacology for Canadian Health Care Practice, 4th Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which is the most important compound that transfers genes from parents to offspring?
a. Chromatin
b. Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)
c. Alleles
d. Ribonucleic acid
ANS: B
It is now recognized that DNA is the most important body compound that serves to transfer genes from parents to offspring.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge
2. Which is manufactured as a result of indirect gene therapy?
a. Vitamin K
b. epoetin (Eprex)
c. Human insulin
d. Heparin
ANS: C
A recombinant form of human insulin is one of the most widespread uses of indirect gene therapy.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
3. Eugenics is defined as
a. the use of gene therapy to prevent disease.
b. the development of new drugs based on gene therapy.
c. the intentional selection, before birth, of genotypes that are considered more
desirable than others.
d. the determination of genetic factors that influence a person’s response to
medications.
ANS: C
Eugenics is the intentional selection, before birth, of genotypes that are considered more desirable than others. Eugenics is a major
ethical issue related to gene therapy.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge
4. What is the main purpose of the Human Genome Project?
a.
Chapter 05: Gene Therapy and Pharmacogenomics
Sealock: Lilley’s Pharmacology for Canadian Health Care Practice, 4th Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which is the most important compound that transfers genes from parents to offspring?
a. Chromatin
b. Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)
c. Alleles
d. Ribonucleic acid
ANS: B
It is now recognized that DNA is the most important body compound that serves to transfer genes from parents to offspring.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge
2. Which is manufactured as a result of indirect gene therapy?
a. Vitamin K
b. epoetin (Eprex)
c. Human insulin
d. Heparin
ANS: C
A recombinant form of human insulin is one of the most widespread uses of indirect gene therapy.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Comprehension
3. Eugenics is defined as
a. the use of gene therapy to prevent disease.
b. the development of new drugs based on gene therapy.
c. the intentional selection, before birth, of genotypes that are considered more
desirable than others.
d. the determination of genetic factors that influence a person’s response to
medications.
ANS: C
Eugenics is the intentional selection, before birth, of genotypes that are considered more desirable than others. Eugenics is a major
ethical issue related to gene therapy.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge
4. What is the main purpose of the Human Genome Project?
a.
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1
Chapter 06: Medication Errors: Preventing and Responding
Sealock: Lilley’s Pharmacology for Canadian Health Care Practice, 4th Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which situation is an example of a medication error?
a. A patient refuses her morning medications.
b. A patient receives a double dose of a medication because the nurse did not cut the
pill in half.
c. A patient develops hives after starting an intravenous antibiotic 24 hours earlier.
d. A patient reports severe pain still present 60 minutes after a pain medication was
given.
ANS: B
A medication error is defined as a preventable adverse drug event that involves inappropriate medication use by a patient or health
care provider. Refusing morning medications and reporting severe pain after having been given medication are examples of patient
behaviours. The development of hives is a possible allergic reaction. None of these situations is preventable.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
2. Which is the proper notation for the dose of the drug ordered?
a. digoxin .125 mg
b. digoxin .1250 mg
c. digoxin 0.125 mg
d. digoxin 0.1250 mg
ANS: C
Always use a leading zero for decimal dosages (e.g., digoxin 0.125 mg) with medication orders or their transcription. Omitting the
leading zero may cause the order to be misread, resulting in a large drug overdose. Never use trailing zeros.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
3. When the nurse is giving a scheduled morning medication, the patient states, “I haven’t seen that pill before. Are you sure it’s
correct?” The nurse checks the medication administration record and sees that medication is listed. Which is the nurse’s best
response to the patient?
a. “It’s listed here on the medication sheet, so you should take it.”
b. “Go ahead and take it, and then I’ll check with your doctor about it.”
c. “It wouldn’t be listed here if it wasn’t ordered for you!”
d. “I’ll check on the order first, before you take it.”
ANS: D
When giving medications, the nurse must always listen to and honour any concerns or doubts expressed by the patient. If the
patient doubts an order, the nurse should check the written order, check with the prescriber, or both. The other options included
with this example illustrate the nurse’s not listening to the patient’s concerns.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
4.
Chapter 06: Medication Errors: Preventing and Responding
Sealock: Lilley’s Pharmacology for Canadian Health Care Practice, 4th Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which situation is an example of a medication error?
a. A patient refuses her morning medications.
b. A patient receives a double dose of a medication because the nurse did not cut the
pill in half.
c. A patient develops hives after starting an intravenous antibiotic 24 hours earlier.
d. A patient reports severe pain still present 60 minutes after a pain medication was
given.
ANS: B
A medication error is defined as a preventable adverse drug event that involves inappropriate medication use by a patient or health
care provider. Refusing morning medications and reporting severe pain after having been given medication are examples of patient
behaviours. The development of hives is a possible allergic reaction. None of these situations is preventable.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
2. Which is the proper notation for the dose of the drug ordered?
a. digoxin .125 mg
b. digoxin .1250 mg
c. digoxin 0.125 mg
d. digoxin 0.1250 mg
ANS: C
Always use a leading zero for decimal dosages (e.g., digoxin 0.125 mg) with medication orders or their transcription. Omitting the
leading zero may cause the order to be misread, resulting in a large drug overdose. Never use trailing zeros.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
3. When the nurse is giving a scheduled morning medication, the patient states, “I haven’t seen that pill before. Are you sure it’s
correct?” The nurse checks the medication administration record and sees that medication is listed. Which is the nurse’s best
response to the patient?
a. “It’s listed here on the medication sheet, so you should take it.”
b. “Go ahead and take it, and then I’ll check with your doctor about it.”
c. “It wouldn’t be listed here if it wasn’t ordered for you!”
d. “I’ll check on the order first, before you take it.”
ANS: D
When giving medications, the nurse must always listen to and honour any concerns or doubts expressed by the patient. If the
patient doubts an order, the nurse should check the written order, check with the prescriber, or both. The other options included
with this example illustrate the nurse’s not listening to the patient’s concerns.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
4.
Loading page 13...
2
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
1. Which statements are true regarding an adverse drug reactions (ADRs)? (Select all that apply.)
a. Adverse effects are ADRs that are usually predictable.
b. ADRs always result in harm to patients.
c. All ADRs are preventable if proper precautions are taken.
d. ADRs can be unexpected and unintended responses to medications.
ANS: A, D
An ADR is defined as any unexpected, undesired, or excessive response to a medication. Adverse effects are ADRs that are usually
not severe enough to warrant stopping the medication. Not all ADRs result in harm to the patient. Some ADRs, such as allergic or
idiosyncratic reactions, may not be preventable or predicted.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge
lOMoARcPSD|13778330
MULTIPLE RESPONSE
1. Which statements are true regarding an adverse drug reactions (ADRs)? (Select all that apply.)
a. Adverse effects are ADRs that are usually predictable.
b. ADRs always result in harm to patients.
c. All ADRs are preventable if proper precautions are taken.
d. ADRs can be unexpected and unintended responses to medications.
ANS: A, D
An ADR is defined as any unexpected, undesired, or excessive response to a medication. Adverse effects are ADRs that are usually
not severe enough to warrant stopping the medication. Not all ADRs result in harm to the patient. Some ADRs, such as allergic or
idiosyncratic reactions, may not be preventable or predicted.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Knowledge
lOMoARcPSD|13778330
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1
Chapter 07: Patient Education and Drug Therapy
Sealock: Lilley’s Pharmacology for Canadian Health Care Practice, 4th Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which diagnosis is appropriate for the patient who has just received a prescription for a new medication?
a. Nonadherence related to a new drug therapy
b. High risk for nonadherence related to new drug therapy
c. Knowledge deficit related to newly prescribed drug therapy
d. Deficient knowledge related to newly prescribed drug therapy
ANS: D
The patient who has a limited understanding of newly prescribed drug therapy may have the nursing diagnosis of deficient
knowledge. “Nonadherence” implies that the patient does not follow a recommended regimen, which is not the case with a newly
prescribed drug. “High risk for nonadherence related to new drug therapy” is not a North American Nursing Diagnosis Association
nursing diagnosis, and “Deficient knowledge related to newly prescribed drug therapy” is an outdated nursing diagnosis.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis
2. Which statement reflects a measurable goal?
a. The patient will know about insulin injections.
b. The patient will understand the principles of insulin preparation.
c. The patient will demonstrate the proper technique of mixing insulin.
d. The patient will comprehend the proper technique of preparing insulin.
ANS: C
The word “demonstrate” is a measurable verb, and measurable terms should be used when developing goals and outcome criteria
statements. The terms “know,” “understand” and “comprehend” are not measurable terms.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis
3. During an assessment, which question allows the nurse to clarify and open up discussion with the patient?
a. “Are you allergic to penicillin?”
b. “What medications do you take?”
c. “Have you had a reaction to this drug?”
d. “Are you taking this medication with meals?”
ANS: B
“What medications do you take?” is an open-ended question that will encourage more clarification and discussion from the patient.
“Are you allergic to penicillin?” is a closed-ended question, as are “Have you had a reaction to this drug?” and “Are you taking this
medication with meals?” Closed-ended questions prompt only a “yes” or “no” answer and provide limited information.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
4.
Chapter 07: Patient Education and Drug Therapy
Sealock: Lilley’s Pharmacology for Canadian Health Care Practice, 4th Edition
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which diagnosis is appropriate for the patient who has just received a prescription for a new medication?
a. Nonadherence related to a new drug therapy
b. High risk for nonadherence related to new drug therapy
c. Knowledge deficit related to newly prescribed drug therapy
d. Deficient knowledge related to newly prescribed drug therapy
ANS: D
The patient who has a limited understanding of newly prescribed drug therapy may have the nursing diagnosis of deficient
knowledge. “Nonadherence” implies that the patient does not follow a recommended regimen, which is not the case with a newly
prescribed drug. “High risk for nonadherence related to new drug therapy” is not a North American Nursing Diagnosis Association
nursing diagnosis, and “Deficient knowledge related to newly prescribed drug therapy” is an outdated nursing diagnosis.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis
2. Which statement reflects a measurable goal?
a. The patient will know about insulin injections.
b. The patient will understand the principles of insulin preparation.
c. The patient will demonstrate the proper technique of mixing insulin.
d. The patient will comprehend the proper technique of preparing insulin.
ANS: C
The word “demonstrate” is a measurable verb, and measurable terms should be used when developing goals and outcome criteria
statements. The terms “know,” “understand” and “comprehend” are not measurable terms.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Analysis
3. During an assessment, which question allows the nurse to clarify and open up discussion with the patient?
a. “Are you allergic to penicillin?”
b. “What medications do you take?”
c. “Have you had a reaction to this drug?”
d. “Are you taking this medication with meals?”
ANS: B
“What medications do you take?” is an open-ended question that will encourage more clarification and discussion from the patient.
“Are you allergic to penicillin?” is a closed-ended question, as are “Have you had a reaction to this drug?” and “Are you taking this
medication with meals?” Closed-ended questions prompt only a “yes” or “no” answer and provide limited information.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Application
4.
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Subject
Pharmacology