2019 NURS-6630N Nursing Diagnosis Week 11 Final Exam With Answers (76 Solved Questions)
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User Cynthia Rochelle Archie
Course NURS-6630N
Test Week 11 Final Exam
Started 2/6/19 9:14 AM
Submitted 2/6/19 11:08 AM
Due Date 2/11/19 1:59 AM
Status Completed
Attempt Score 73 out of 75 points
Time Elapsed 1 hour, 54 minutes out of
2 hours
Results
Displayed
Submitted Answers
Question 1
1 out of 1 points
Mrs. Rosen is a 49-year-old patient who is experiencing fibro-fog. What does the PMHNP
prescribe for Mrs. Rosen to improve this condition?
Selected
Answer:
D.
All of the
above
Question 2
0 out of 1 points
An elderly woman with a history of Alzheimer’s disease, coronary artery disease, and
myocardial infarction had a fall at home 3 months ago that resulted in her receiving an
open reduction internal fixation. While assessing this patient, the PMHNP is made aware
that the patient continues to experience mild to moderate pain. What is the PMHNP most
likely to do?
Selected
Answer:
A.
Order an X-ray because it is possible that she
dislocated her hip.
Question 3
1 out of 1 points
The PMHNP is caring for a patient who reports excessive arousal at nighttime. What could
the PMHNP use for a time-limited duration to shift the patient’s brain from a hyperactive
state to a sleep state?
Selected
Answer:
B.
Benzodiazepi
Course NURS-6630N
Test Week 11 Final Exam
Started 2/6/19 9:14 AM
Submitted 2/6/19 11:08 AM
Due Date 2/11/19 1:59 AM
Status Completed
Attempt Score 73 out of 75 points
Time Elapsed 1 hour, 54 minutes out of
2 hours
Results
Displayed
Submitted Answers
Question 1
1 out of 1 points
Mrs. Rosen is a 49-year-old patient who is experiencing fibro-fog. What does the PMHNP
prescribe for Mrs. Rosen to improve this condition?
Selected
Answer:
D.
All of the
above
Question 2
0 out of 1 points
An elderly woman with a history of Alzheimer’s disease, coronary artery disease, and
myocardial infarction had a fall at home 3 months ago that resulted in her receiving an
open reduction internal fixation. While assessing this patient, the PMHNP is made aware
that the patient continues to experience mild to moderate pain. What is the PMHNP most
likely to do?
Selected
Answer:
A.
Order an X-ray because it is possible that she
dislocated her hip.
Question 3
1 out of 1 points
The PMHNP is caring for a patient who reports excessive arousal at nighttime. What could
the PMHNP use for a time-limited duration to shift the patient’s brain from a hyperactive
state to a sleep state?
Selected
Answer:
B.
Benzodiazepi
nes
Question 4
1 out of 1 points
A patient addicted to heroin is receiving treatment for detoxification. He begins to
experience tachycardia, tremors, and diaphoresis. What medication will the PMHNP
prescribe for this patient?
Selected
Answer:
D.
Clonidine
(Catapres)
Question 5
1 out of 1 points
The PMHNP prescribes gabapentin (Neurontin) for a patient’s chronic pain. How does the
PMHNP anticipate the drug to work?
Selected
Answer:
A.
It will bind to the alpha-2-delta ligand subunit of voltage-sensitive
calcium channels.
Question 6
1 out of 1 points
A patient with hypersexual disorder is being assessed for possible pharmacologic
treatment. Why does the PMHNP prescribe an antiandrogen for this patient?
Selected
Answer:
C.
It will block
testosterone.
Question 7
1 out of 1 points
Which statement best describes a pharmacological approach to treating patients for
impulsive aggression?
Selected
Answer:
D.
Opioid antagonists can be used to
reduce drive.
Question 4
1 out of 1 points
A patient addicted to heroin is receiving treatment for detoxification. He begins to
experience tachycardia, tremors, and diaphoresis. What medication will the PMHNP
prescribe for this patient?
Selected
Answer:
D.
Clonidine
(Catapres)
Question 5
1 out of 1 points
The PMHNP prescribes gabapentin (Neurontin) for a patient’s chronic pain. How does the
PMHNP anticipate the drug to work?
Selected
Answer:
A.
It will bind to the alpha-2-delta ligand subunit of voltage-sensitive
calcium channels.
Question 6
1 out of 1 points
A patient with hypersexual disorder is being assessed for possible pharmacologic
treatment. Why does the PMHNP prescribe an antiandrogen for this patient?
Selected
Answer:
C.
It will block
testosterone.
Question 7
1 out of 1 points
Which statement best describes a pharmacological approach to treating patients for
impulsive aggression?
Selected
Answer:
D.
Opioid antagonists can be used to
reduce drive.
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Document Details
University
Walden University
Subject
Nursing