2023 NR602 Clinical Analysis Final Real Exam With Answers (51 Solved Questions)
Prepare with 2023 NR602 Clinical Analysis Final Real Exam With Answers, covering all past exam scenarios in detail.
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NR 602 FINAL EXAM LATEST 2023 REAL EXAM
(COMPLETE EXAM) QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS|AGRADE
• A sexually active 18-years old presents with postcoital spotting, dysuria and a
yellow discharge. On exam you find her cervix is erythematous and bleeds with
contact. The most likely diagnosis is
• Cervical cancer
• Chlamydia
• Primary syphilis
• Tampon injury
• One of the leading causes of female infertility, Stein-Leventhal syndrome is
• Pelvic inflammatory disease
• Polycystic ovary disease
• Multiple sex partners
• Ectopic pregnancy syndrome
• HIV test is indicated for a (n)
• 18-year-old female whose sex partner has a history of genital warts
• 24-year-old female with current genital warts as adjunct to routine pap test
• 30-year-old female with no history of genital warts as adjunct to routine
pap test
• 67-year old female with new sex partner in past year who has history of
genital warts
• Which of the following contraceptive methods would be best for a woman with
sickle cell anemia?
• Combination oral contraceptives
• Transdermal contraceptive patch
• Progestin-only contraceptives
• Female condom
• A Patient taking metronidazole and cimetidine at the same time is at risk for:
• Bothersome side effect from the metronidazole
• Decreased effectiveness of cimetidine
• Renal impairment
• Severe disulfiram type reaction
• A 58-year old woman complain of severe vulvular pruritis. On examination of the
vulva, you note thinning of the epidermis and loss of pigmentation, as well as
maculopapular lesions. You suspect the diagnosis may be
• Lichen sclerosus
• Local allergic reaction
• Lichen simplex chonicus
(COMPLETE EXAM) QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS|AGRADE
• A sexually active 18-years old presents with postcoital spotting, dysuria and a
yellow discharge. On exam you find her cervix is erythematous and bleeds with
contact. The most likely diagnosis is
• Cervical cancer
• Chlamydia
• Primary syphilis
• Tampon injury
• One of the leading causes of female infertility, Stein-Leventhal syndrome is
• Pelvic inflammatory disease
• Polycystic ovary disease
• Multiple sex partners
• Ectopic pregnancy syndrome
• HIV test is indicated for a (n)
• 18-year-old female whose sex partner has a history of genital warts
• 24-year-old female with current genital warts as adjunct to routine pap test
• 30-year-old female with no history of genital warts as adjunct to routine
pap test
• 67-year old female with new sex partner in past year who has history of
genital warts
• Which of the following contraceptive methods would be best for a woman with
sickle cell anemia?
• Combination oral contraceptives
• Transdermal contraceptive patch
• Progestin-only contraceptives
• Female condom
• A Patient taking metronidazole and cimetidine at the same time is at risk for:
• Bothersome side effect from the metronidazole
• Decreased effectiveness of cimetidine
• Renal impairment
• Severe disulfiram type reaction
• A 58-year old woman complain of severe vulvular pruritis. On examination of the
vulva, you note thinning of the epidermis and loss of pigmentation, as well as
maculopapular lesions. You suspect the diagnosis may be
• Lichen sclerosus
• Local allergic reaction
• Lichen simplex chonicus
• Vulvodynia
• Measuring waist circumference is most appropriate when the client’s BMI place her in
which of the following categories?
• Underweight
• Normal weight
• Overweight
• Extreme obesity
• The levonogestrel releasing IUC may be a better choice then the copper releasing IUC
for a woman who:
• Has never been pregnant
• Has dysmenorrhea
• Is currently breastfeeding
• Is sure she does not want more children
• A 30-year old is seen in your office on day 18 of her cycle for her routine
annual examination. She has no complaints. Pelvic exam reveals a 9-cm firm,
pelvic mass anterior to the uterus. The most likely diagnosis is
• Benign cystic teratoma
• Ectopic pregnancy
• Endometrioma
• Follicular cyst
• First line treatment for polycystic ovary
syndrome is Bilateral oophorectomy
Beginning androgen therapies
A combination of diet modification, weight loss, and stress management
A laparotomy with a bilateral wedge resection
• A 45-year old female presents with complaint of lower abdominal pain with urinary
urgency and frequency for the past three months. The pain is worse during sexual intercourse
and relieved somewhat when she urinates. Physical exam reveals suprapubic tenderness as
well as tenderness along the anterior vaginal wall and urethra. The remainder of her exam is
normal. What diagnosis best fits these findings?
Chronic urinary tract infection
Interstitial cystitis/ painful bladder syndrome
• Measuring waist circumference is most appropriate when the client’s BMI place her in
which of the following categories?
• Underweight
• Normal weight
• Overweight
• Extreme obesity
• The levonogestrel releasing IUC may be a better choice then the copper releasing IUC
for a woman who:
• Has never been pregnant
• Has dysmenorrhea
• Is currently breastfeeding
• Is sure she does not want more children
• A 30-year old is seen in your office on day 18 of her cycle for her routine
annual examination. She has no complaints. Pelvic exam reveals a 9-cm firm,
pelvic mass anterior to the uterus. The most likely diagnosis is
• Benign cystic teratoma
• Ectopic pregnancy
• Endometrioma
• Follicular cyst
• First line treatment for polycystic ovary
syndrome is Bilateral oophorectomy
Beginning androgen therapies
A combination of diet modification, weight loss, and stress management
A laparotomy with a bilateral wedge resection
• A 45-year old female presents with complaint of lower abdominal pain with urinary
urgency and frequency for the past three months. The pain is worse during sexual intercourse
and relieved somewhat when she urinates. Physical exam reveals suprapubic tenderness as
well as tenderness along the anterior vaginal wall and urethra. The remainder of her exam is
normal. What diagnosis best fits these findings?
Chronic urinary tract infection
Interstitial cystitis/ painful bladder syndrome
Pelvic inflammatory
disease Pyelonephritis
• If you diagnose a cervical gonococcal infection, which other infection is probably
present? Candidiasis
Syphilis
Trichomoniasis
Chlamydia
• A 24-year old female presents to your office with a request for combination
contraceptives. Her current medications include a bronchodilator for asthma. Management
for this client should include advising her that:
Combination oral contraceptives are not recommended for women with asthma
Combination oral contraceptives may potentiate the action of her
bronchodilator She should use a backup method if using the bronchodilator
several days in a row Progestin-only contraceptive injections may reduce her
asthma attacks
• The CDC recommendation for follow-up of a female treated for PID with a
recommended outpatient regimen is:
Advise patient to return if pain and/or fever persists more than five
days Re-examine patient within 72 hours after initiation of
treatment Retest for chlamydia and gonorrhea in two weeks
See patient in one week for second dose ceftriaxone IM
• A 16-year old woman has not yet begun menstruating but does have secondary
sexual characteristics. She is best described as having:
Asherman’s syndrome
Oligomenorrhea
Primary amenorrhea
Secondary amenorrhea
• The glands located posteriorly on each side of the vaginal orifice are the:
Bartholin’s glands
disease Pyelonephritis
• If you diagnose a cervical gonococcal infection, which other infection is probably
present? Candidiasis
Syphilis
Trichomoniasis
Chlamydia
• A 24-year old female presents to your office with a request for combination
contraceptives. Her current medications include a bronchodilator for asthma. Management
for this client should include advising her that:
Combination oral contraceptives are not recommended for women with asthma
Combination oral contraceptives may potentiate the action of her
bronchodilator She should use a backup method if using the bronchodilator
several days in a row Progestin-only contraceptive injections may reduce her
asthma attacks
• The CDC recommendation for follow-up of a female treated for PID with a
recommended outpatient regimen is:
Advise patient to return if pain and/or fever persists more than five
days Re-examine patient within 72 hours after initiation of
treatment Retest for chlamydia and gonorrhea in two weeks
See patient in one week for second dose ceftriaxone IM
• A 16-year old woman has not yet begun menstruating but does have secondary
sexual characteristics. She is best described as having:
Asherman’s syndrome
Oligomenorrhea
Primary amenorrhea
Secondary amenorrhea
• The glands located posteriorly on each side of the vaginal orifice are the:
Bartholin’s glands
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Document Details
University
Chamberlain College of Nursing
Subject
Medicine