Urinalysis and Body Fluids 6th Edition Test Bank

Name: Urinalysis and Body Fluids 6th Edition Test Bank
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Urinalysis and Body Fluids 6th Edition Test Bank prepares you thoroughly with real-world examples, key concepts, and solved practice questions.

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Chapter 1: Safety and Quality Assessment
Multiple Choice
1. Laboratory equipment and other inanimate objects serve as what in the chain of infection?
A. Host
B. Reservoir
C. Point of entry
D. Point of exit
ANS: B
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 1
TOP: Biologic hazards
2. The chain of infection includes all of the following except a:
A. Source
B. Host
C. Disinfectant
D. Transmission method
ANS: C
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 1
TOP: Biologic hazards
3. You arrive to work in the clinical laboratory with a small cut on your hand. Your supervisor
pulls you from specimen collection (phlebotomy) duties for the day, citing chain of infection
protocols. Why is your supervisor concerned about the cut on your hand?
A. Because you will not have the mobility in your hand to properly collect blood
B. Because you are going to have to wear a bandage all day long
C. Because you have a point of entry that could expose you to infectious agents
D. Because you are going to be an active transmitter of infection onto general surfaces
ANS: C
DIF: Level 3
OBJ: 1
TOP: Biologic hazards

4. Centrifuging an uncapped tube of urine is most likely to produce a/an:
A. Electrical shock
B. Broken tube
C. Unbalancing
D. Aerosol
ANS: D
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 2
TOP: Biologic hazards
5. Which of the following guidelines tells laboratory personnel to consider all patients as
possible carriers of blood-borne pathogens?
A. Urinalysis precautions
B. Blood-borne pathogen precautions
C. Standard precautions
D. Body fluid precautions
ANS: C
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 2
TOP: Biologic hazards
6. The Centers for Disease Control (CDC) recommends that universal precautions be followed
when encountering:
A. Specimens containing visible blood
B. Patients who are infected with blood-borne pathogens
C. All body fluid specimens
D. Specimens that may produce aerosols
ANS: A
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 2
TOP: Biologic hazards
7. Which of the following CDC guidelines considers all moist body substances to be potentially
infectious and stresses hand washing?

A. Universal precautions
B. Body fluid precautions
C. Standard precautions
D. Health-care personnel standards
ANS: C
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 3
TOP: Biologic hazards
8. The Occupational Exposure to Blood-Borne Pathogens Standard is:
A. A guideline developed by the FDA
B. An additional precaution associated with urinalysis
C. A guideline recommended by the CDC
D. A law enforced by Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)
ANS: D
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 3
TOP: Biologic hazards
9. A laboratory worker who observes a red hand rash after removing gloves should:
A. Avoid wearing gloves for 2 days
B. Wash the hands with antimicrobial soap
C. Apply cortisone cream to the hands
D. Avoid wearing latex gloves in the future
ANS: D
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 4
TOP: Biologic hazards
10. Plexiglas shields are used in the laboratory when urine tube specimens are being:
A. Sorted according to lab
B. Uncapped for analysis
C. Centrifuged for analysis
D. Observed for color characteristics
ANS: B
DIF: Level 2

OBJ: 4
TOP: Biologic hazards
11. A urine specimen received in the laboratory is leaking in a transport bag. What is the next
course of action?
A. It should be relabeled
B. It should be rejected
C. It should be processed with no special handling
D. It should be poured into a clean container
ANS: B
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 6
TOP: Biologic hazards
12. Lab coats worn in the urinalysis lab should:
A. Be worn loosely over uniforms
B. Have short sleeves
C. Be completely buttoned
D. Be worn at all times in and outside of the laboratory
ANS: C
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 4
TOP: Biologic hazards
13. Proper hand washing includes all of the following procedures except:
A. Rubbing to create a lather
B. Using warm water
C. Rinsing hands in a downward position
D. Using a paper towel to turn on the water faucet
ANS: D
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 5
TOP: Biologic hazards
14. The acceptable method for disposing of urine specimens is:

A. Autoclaving in the entire collection
B. Pouring down the sink followed by copious amounts of water
C. Placing the specimen in a biohazard bag
D. Diluting with sodium hypochlorite
ANS: B
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 6
TOP: Biologic hazards
15. Disinfection of the sink in the urinalysis laboratory should be performed:
A. On a daily basis
B. When a positive bilirubin is detected
C. Following an accidental spill
D. By using dilute hydrochloric acid
ANS: A
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 6
TOP: Biologic hazards
16. Safety precautions observed in the urinalysis laboratory include all of the following except:
A. Wearing goggles or a face shield
B. Checking tube balance in the centrifuge
C. Centrifuging only uncapped tubes
D. Wearing a fluid-resistant lab coat
ANS: C
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 6
TOP: Biologic hazards
17. The source, method of transmission, and host are all deemed:
A. Steps in the urinalysis
B. Components of the chain of infection
C. Problems encountered in urinalysis
D. Considerations in urine specimen transport
ANS: B
DIF: Level 1

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OBJ: 1
TOP: Biologic hazards
18. Which of the following is a practice that all laboratory workers must avoid?
A. Changing gloves that are soiled
B. Centrifuging conical tubes
C. Moving puncture-resistant containers
D. Manually recapping needles
ANS: D
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 6
TOP: Sharp hazards
19. Before using a water hose on a burning chemical cabinet, a firefighter would visually check
that what is posted on the outside of the cabinet?
A. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) symbol
B. Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
C. Chemical Hygiene Plan
D. Occupational Safety and Health Administration manual
ANS: A
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 8
TOP: Chemical hazards
20. Immediate information concerning the health hazards, flammability, and reactivity of a
chemical can be obtained from the:
A. MSDS
B. NFPA symbol
C. CDC
D. OSHA
ANS: B
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 8
TOP: Chemical hazards

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21. Laboratory personnel wear special monitory badges when working frequently with which of
the following hazards?
A. Biologic
B. Chemical
C. Radioactive
D. Explosive
ANS: C
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 9
TOP: Radioactive hazards
22. When encountering a person experiencing an electrical shock, the first thing to do is:
A. Turn off the circuit breaker for area
B. Lower the person's head below the heart
C. Wrap the person in a wet fire blanket
D. Move the person away from the electrical object
ANS: A
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 9
TOP: Electrical hazards
23. When a fire is discovered in the laboratory, you should do all of the following except:
A. Activate the fire alarm
B. Evacuate the area using the stairs
C. Use an appropriate fire extinguisher
D. Leave the door open when evacuating
ANS: D
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 10
TOP: Fire hazards
24. The acronym RACE is used when encountering a/an:
A. Fire
B. Chemical spill
C. Electrical shock
D. Needlestick

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ANS: A
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 10
TOP: Fire hazards
25. Which of the following items found in the laboratory should be securely fastened to a
nonmovable object?
A. Biohazard bags
B. Compressed gas cylinders
C. Chemical spill kits
D. Radiation detectors
ANS: B
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 7
TOP: Fire hazards
26. The most commonly available fire extinguisher in a hospital is:
A. Type A
B. Type B
C. Type C
D. Type ABC
ANS: D
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 9
TOP: Fire hazards
27. When using a fire extinguisher, which action do you perform first?
A. Point the nozzle
B. Pull the pin
C. Protect the patient samples
D. Position the extinguisher
ANS: B
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 10
TOP: Fire hazards

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28. Variables that are included in a quality assurance program include all of the following
except:
A. Pre-examination
B. Clinical
C. Examination
D. Post-examination
ANS: B
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 12
TOP: Quality assessment
29. Clinical laboratory personnel have the least control over which of the following conditions?
A. Pre-examination variables
B. Examination variables
C. Post-examination variables
D. Post-discharge variables
ANS: A
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 12
TOP: Quality assessment
30. When you receive a specimen and a requisition form that do not match, you should:
A. Notify the personnel who collected the specimen
B. Test the specimen and note the error on the requisition
C. Immediately discard the specimen
D. Analyze the error and make appropriate changes to the label
ANS: A
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 12
TOP: Quality assessment
31. When a critical value is obtained in the laboratory:
A. The test should be repeated
B. The pathologist should be notified
C. A new specimen must be requested
D. The result must be reported to the health-care provider

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ANS: D
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 12
TOP: Quality assessment
32. The ability to obtain the published result on a control sample is referred to as:
A. Precision
B. Accuracy
C. Standardization
D. Reliability
ANS: B
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 13
TOP: Quality assessment
33. Obtaining the same result after testing the same specimen three times is called test:
A. Reliability
B. Quality control
C. Precision
D. Accuracy
ANS: C
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 13
TOP: Quality assessment
34. The highest acceptable range for confidence limits in the clinical laboratory is:
A. ±1 SD
B. ±2 SD
C. ±3 SD
D. ±4 SD
ANS: C
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 13
TOP: Quality assessment

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35. A procedure with a coefficient of variation of 10% is considered:
A. Reliable
B. Precise
C. Confident
D. Imprecise
ANS: D
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 13
TOP: Quality assessment
36. When plotted on a Levy-Jennings chart, a control that has been left on the counter overnight
instead of being refrigerated might show a/an:
A. Shift
B. Increased CV
C. Trend
D. Change in precision
ANS: A
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 13
TOP: Quality assessment
37. Proficiency testing should be performed:
A. When control results exceed the confidence limits
B. By personnel performing the tests routinely
C. By the laboratory supervisor only
D. During an accreditation site inspection
ANS: B
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 13
TOP: Quality assessment
38. The least regulated level of Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) testing
categories is:
A. Waived
B. Provider-performed microscopy
C. Moderate-complexity

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D. High-complexity
ANS: A
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 13
TOP: Quality assessment
39. A urinalysis laboratory that subscribes to an external proficiency testing program from which
all samples are tested by the supervisor is an example of:
A. Right things done right
B. Wrong things done wrong
C. Right things done wrong
D. Wrong things done right
ANS: C
DIF: Level 3
OBJ: 13
TOP: Quality assessment
True/False
40. Personnel in the urinalysis laboratory are best protected from blood-borne pathogen exposure
when following standard precautions.
ANS: True
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 3
TOP: Biologic hazards
41. It is not necessary to change gloves when performing tasks on the same patient.
ANS: False
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 4
TOP: Biologic hazards

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42. OSHA requires employers to provide free immunization for hepatitis B virus (HBV) to
workers in urinalysis.
ANS: True
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 3
TOP: Biologic hazards
43. Hands should be washed before and after testing each urine specimen.
ANS: False
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 5
TOP: Biologic hazards
44. A paper towel used to absorb a urine spill is discarded in a biohazard container.
ANS: True
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 6
TOP: Biologic hazards
45. It is acceptable to recap a needle on a syringe containing urine, but not blood.
ANS: False
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 6
TOP: Sharp hazards
46. Only nontoxic chemicals can be pipetted by mouth.
ANS: False
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 7
TOP: Chemical hazards

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47. The MSDS should be provided to laboratories by chemical manufacturers or vendors.
ANS: True
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 7
TOP: Chemical hazards
48. Electrical current can pass through glass and wood.
ANS: False
DIF: Level 2
OBJ: 9
TOP: Electrical hazards
49. Flammable chemicals must be stored in explosion-proof refrigerators.
ANS: True
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 7
TOP: Fire hazards
50. When lifting heavy objects, laboratory workers should bend their knees.
ANS: True
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 2
TOP: Physical hazards
Matching
Match the burning material with the type of fire:
A. Type A
B. Type B
C. Type C
D. Type D

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51. Electrical
52. Organic chemicals
53. Combustible metals
54. Wood
51. ANS: C DIF: Level 1 OBJ: 9 TOP: Fire hazards
52. ANS: B DIF: Level 1 OBJ: 9 TOP: Fire hazards
53. ANS: D DIF: Level 1 OBJ: 9 TOP: Fire hazards
54. ANS: A DIF: Level 1 OBJ: 9 TOP: Fire hazards
Match the following safety hazards with the possible injury:
A. Carcinogen exposure
B. Strained back
C. Viral infection
D. Shock
55. Biologic
56. Chemical
57. Electrical
58. Physical
55. ANS: C DIF: Level 1 OBJ: 2 TOP: Biologic
hazards
56. ANS: A DIF: Level 1 OBJ: 7 TOP: Chemical
hazards
57. ANS: D DIF: Level 1 OBJ: 9 TOP: Electrical
hazards
58. ANS: B DIF: Level 1 OBJ: 2 TOP: Physical
hazards
Short Answer
59. State the six components of the chain of infection.
ANS: Infectious agent, reservoir, portal of exit, means of transmission, portal of entry,
susceptible host
DIF: Level 1
OBJ: 1
TOP: Biologic hazards

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