FES Nursing Diagnosis Written Exam With Answers (178 Solved Questions)

Name: FES Nursing Diagnosis Written Exam With Answers (178 Solved Questions)
Brand: Academic Documents Platform
Price: 3 USD
Availability: InStock
Author: Leah Howard

Develop exam familiarity with FES Nursing Diagnosis Written Exam With Answers, covering a wide range of past questions.

Leah Howard

Contributor

4.7

4 months ago

Preview (7 of 22)

FES written Exam With Questions And
Answers 100% Verified
(blank) are designed to view the lumen either in a front or side viewing
manner --correct answer--Flexible scopes
(blank) allow for optimal access to certain areas of the stomach and
duodenum and are most commonly utilized during ERCP --correct answer--
side-viewing
What is a charge coupled device or complementary metal oxide
semioconducter chip based camera? --correct answer--sends digital message
to a digital processor
the suction button and the biopsy cap share a **** --correct answer--
common channel
The suction/biopsy channel is usually between what position on a clock face
--correct answer--5 and 7 oclock
The (blank) cable connects to the video processing unit either wirelessly or
via a separate cable. --correct answer--umbilical
Can you use saline in your water channel? --correct answer--NO it can
crystalize
Do not activate (blank) until the functioning end of the device is fully exited
from the endoscope channel. --correct answer--energy sources
What scope is a side viewing scope? --correct answer--A duodenoscope
What are external sources of endoscopic illumination? --correct answer--
Xenon Arc, halogen filled tungsten filament lamp, LED
What happens when the blue button of the scope handle is depressed? --
correct answer--Provides water to clear the lens
If the endoscope does not have a dedicated auxillary channel for irrigation,
what channel can be used? --correct answer--The suction/biopsy channel

Informed consent is based on what 2 ethical principles? --correct answer--
Autonomy and self-determination
Is routine testing recommended prior to endoscopy? --correct answer--No
When should you do a pregnancy test? --correct answer--All females of child
bearing age
Who should get coag tests? --correct answer--active bleeding, history of
bleeding, acquired coagulopathy
Who should get a CXR? --correct answer--Patients with a suspected
pulmonary or cardiac decompensation
Who should get a chem panel? --correct answer--pts with impaired renal,
hepatic or endocrine function
Is there a perfect bowel prep? --correct answer--nope
What would be an ideal prep? --correct answer--Reliable empties colon
No effect on mucosa
Short time for ingestion and evacuation
No discomfort or signif SE
No fluid or electrolyte shifts
What is a split dose bowel regiment? --correct answer--half fluid given in
the evening and then half in the morning of the colonoscopy completing at
least 3 hours prior to procedure.
If you are doing rectum and sigmoid colon endoscopy what can be the prep?
--correct answer--1 or 2 enemas morning of procedure
If your patient is older than 65, what type of bowel prep should you use? --
correct answer--PEG solutions to avoid electrolyte and fluid shifts
(blank) are osmotically balanced, non-absorbable electrolyte solutions that
effect bowel cleansing by washing out the ingested fluid without producing
significant fluid or electrolyte shifts --correct answer--Isosmotic
preparations

What fragile patient populations can use isosmotic preps? --correct answer--
Liver and renal failures, CHF, and electrolyte imbalances
(Blank) draw plasma water into the bowel lumen to promote the evacuation
of colonic contents. They are better tolerated due to lower volume, resulting
in better patient compliance. --correct answer--Hyperosmotic preparations.
What is the downside to hyperosomotic solutions? --correct answer--cause
fluid loss, dehydration and are costly. Cant give it to people with any type of
failure, ileus, malabsorption or ascites
Antibiotics (are vs Are not?) generally recommended before most
endoscopic procedures. --correct answer--Are NOT
Who should you give antibiotic prophylaxis to? --correct answer--All patients
before PEJ or PG
People undergoing peritoneal dialysis
Cirrhotic patients with Gi bleed
High risk cardiac conditions like endocarditis or prosthetic valves
In patients with liver transplant or suspected biliary obstructions
Many endoscopic procedures may be performed safely in the setting of
antithrombotics. Cold forceps mucosal biopsies may be obtained while
patient is on anticoagulation. T or F? --correct answer--True
T or F
When anticoagulation is temporary (e.g. warfarin for VTE), elective
endoscopic procedures should be delayed when possible until
anticoagulation is no longer necessary. --correct answer--True
Procedures with a high risk of significant bleeding include: --correct answer-
-Polypectomy • Biliary sphincterotomy • Pneumatic or bougie dilation •
Percutaneous endoscopic gastrostomy (PEG) placement • Endoscopic
mucosal resection / endoscopic submucosal dissection (EMD/ESD) •
Endosonographic-guided fine needle aspiration and pseudocyst drainage •
Laser ablation and coagulation • Treatment of varices

Low-risk conditions for embolic event --correct answer--Deep vein
thrombosis • Uncomplicated or paroxysmal nonvalvular atrial fibrillation •
Bioprosthetic valve • Mechanical valve in the aortic position
High-risk conditions for embolic event --correct answer--• Atrial fibrillation
associated with valvular heart disease • Mechanical valve in the mitral
position • Mechanical valve and prior thromboembolic event
The risk of major embolism in patients with mechanical heart valves
without anticoagulation is(Blank) per 100 person-years, and is reduced to
(blank) per 100 person-years in patients with antiplatelet therapy, and to
(blank) per 100 person-years in patients with warfarin. --correct answer--4
2.2
1
Patients with atrial fibrillation but without valvular disease have a risk of
thromboembolism of (blank) per year in the absence of anticoagulation. The
risk is higher in the presence of dilated cardiomyopathy, valvular heart
disease, or recent thromboembolic events --correct answer--5% to 7%
The absolute risk of any embolic event in a patient with a low-risk condition
in whom anticoagulation is stopped for 4 to 7 days is (blanK) per 1000
patients. --correct answer--1 to 2
Pre-procedural management of antithrombotic therapy for procedures with
low risk of significant bleed are as follows: •Endoscopic procedures may be
performed in patients taking antithrombotic therapy (WITH OR
WITHOUT***)any alterations. --correct answer--Without
Pre-procedural management of antithrombotic therapy for procedures with
high-risk of significant bleed are as follows: • (blank) does not need to be
stopped. • Patients on a single antiplatelet drug, should be switched to
(blank) 5-7 days before. • Patients on dual antiplatelet drugs, (blank) should
be continued and the second drug should be stopped 5-7 days before. •

Patients at high-risk for a thromboembolic event on long-acting
anticoagulants should be given (blank). --correct answer--Aspirin
Aspirin
Aspirin
Bridge Therapy
When should you resume antithrombotic therapy? --correct answer--No
consensus
In patients with (CIED) Cardiovascular Implantable Electronic Device, what
type of device are preferred? --correct answer--Bipolar and ultrasonic
devices
How do you know if a patient has a pacemaer? --correct answer--there
should be pacing spikes on EKG in front of P waves
When do you place a magnet? --correct answer---In non pacing patients to
prevent arrythmia detection
-In non pacing depending but has pacing ability patients, do need but should
be available
-in pacing dependent without ICD, place a magnet if procedure above
umbilicus
-in pacing dependent with an ICD
If patients have an CIED, what else should you do besides have a magnet
handy? --correct answer--monitored with either plethysmography or an
arterial line and should have transcutaneous patches for emergent
defibrillation and/or emergent transcutaneous pacing.
Make sure CIED is working before they leave
NPO guidelines:
CLD?
Breast milk?
Infant formula?
Non human Milk?

Loading page 6...

Light meal?
Fried food, fatty foods, meat? --correct answer--2 hours
4 hr
6 hr
6 hr
6 hr
8 hr
Which are isomostic bowel preps?
Hyperosomolar? --correct answer--polyethylene base and triLyte (movi prep,
golytelY)
Mag citrate, sodium phosphate
Which of the following is considered a high-risk procedure for bleeing?
a. EUS assessment of vessel encasement for pancreatic cancer
B. Colonoscopy with cold forceps biopsy
C. Push enteroscopy
D. Balloon dilation of esophageal stricture --correct answer--D. balloon
dilation of esophageal stricture
What characterizes moderate sedation? --correct answer--Mildly depressed
level of consciousness
Patient response to verbal commands
maintenance of patients own airway
Intact airway reflexes
hemodynamic equilibrium
Deep sedation is characterized by: --correct answer--• Significant depression
of level of consciousness • Painful stimulus is necessary to evoke a
withdrawal response • Airway protective reflexes cannot be relied upon •
Hemodynamics are usually preserved although instability can occur
Updated Practice Guidelines for Sedation and Analgesia for Non-
Anesthesiologists set forth by the American Society of Anesthesiology Task

Loading page 7...

4 more pages available. Scroll down to load them.

Preview Mode

100%

Study Now!

XY-Copilot AI

Unlimited Access

Secure Payment

Instant Access

24/7 Support

Document Chat

Document Details

Subject

Nursing

FES Nursing Diagnosis Written Exam With Answers (178 Solved Questions)

Study Now!

Document Details

Related Documents

Laboratory 8 Muscle Soreness Lab Manual

Case Diana

Identifying a Local Healthcare Economic Issue

Dashboard Metrics Evaluation 1 Dashboard Metrics E

NRP 563 DQ 2

NRP 563 DQ 7

Clinical Supervision Report Week 2

NU 185 Exam 5 Final

NURS FPX 4010 Assessment 3

Strategies for Difficult Venipuncture

Company

Explore

Study Tools