Test Bank for Biological Science, 6th Edition

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1
Biological Science, 6e (Freeman/Quillin/Allison)
Chapter 1 Biology and the Tree of Life
1) Which of the following is NOT related to the five fundamental characteristics of life?
A) A bacterial cell divides to produce two cells.
B) Sugars are transported on carrier proteins into cells across the plasma membrane.
C) Sugars are broken down inside cells to produce energy.
D) The gene that specifies skin color in frogs is expressed during its development from a tadpole
into an adult frog.
E) Giraffes have longer necks so that they can reach food sources unavailable to other animals.
Answer: E
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing
V&C Core Concept: E
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 1.1, 1.2
Section: 1.1
2) Pasteur's experiments proved that ________.
A) cells cannot survive in swan-necked flasks
B) in order to grow, cells need to be supplied with oxygen
C) spontaneous generation can only occur if nutrient broth is left open to the environment
D) sterilizing nutrient broth prevents spontaneous generation
E) preexisting cells present in the air can grow in sterilized nutrient broth
Answer: E
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
V&C Core Concept: EM
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 1.1, 1.2
Section: 1.2
3) Recall Pasteur's experiment on spontaneous generation. If he had just warmed the nutrient-
rich broth, rather than boiled it, what would have been the likely outcome of his experiment?
Cells would ________.
A) not have appeared in either flask
B) have appeared in both flasks
C) have appeared in the swan-neck but not the straight-neck flask
D) have appeared in the straight-neck but not the swan-neck flask
Answer: B
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing
V&C Core Concept: EM
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 1.1, 1.2
Section: 1.2

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4) Spontaneous generation ________.
A) was demonstrated to occur under normal laboratory conditions by Pasteur
B) apparently occurred at least once–when life on Earth began
C) occurs every time a new species evolves from a preexisting species
D) addresses the formation of new cells from existing cells
Answer: B
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
V&C Core Concept: EM
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 1.1, 1.2
Section: 1.2
5) Algae in the genus Caulerpa typically grow to a length of over half a meter and have
structures similar to stems, leaves, and roots. Reproduction occurs when adults produce sperm
and eggs that fuse to form offspring. Each adult Caulerpa consists of just a single cell, however.
Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A) Caulerpa violate the pattern component of the cell theory that all organisms consist of cells.
B) Caulerpa violate the process component of the cell theory that all cells come from preexisting
cells.
C) Caulerpa violate both the pattern and process components of the cell theory.
D) The existence of Caulerpa is consistent with the cell theory.
Answer: D
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing
V&C Core Concept: SF
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 1.1, 1.2
Section: 1.2
6) Cotton-topped tamarins are small primates with tufts of long white hair on their heads. While
studying these creatures, you notice that males with longer hair get more opportunities to mate
and father more offspring. To test the hypothesis that having longer hair is adaptive in these
males, you should ________.
A) test whether other traits in these males are also adaptive
B) look for evidence of hair in ancestors of tamarins
C) determine if hair length is heritable
D) test whether males with shaved heads are still able to mate
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing
V&C Core Concept: E
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 1.1, 1.2
Section: 1.3

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The following experiment is used for the corresponding question(s).
A researcher discovered a species of moth that lays its eggs on oak trees. Eggs are laid at two
distinct times of the year: early in spring when the oak trees are flowering and in midsummer
when flowering is past. Caterpillars from eggs that hatch in spring feed on oak flowers and look
like oak flowers. But caterpillars that hatch in summer feed on oak leaves and look like oak
twigs.
How does the same population of moths produce such different-looking caterpillars on the same
trees? To answer this question, the biologist caught many female moths from the same
population and collected their eggs. He put at least one egg from each female into eight identical
cups. The eggs hatched, and at least two larvae from each female were maintained in one of the
four temperature and light conditions listed below.
In each of the four environments, one of the caterpillars was fed oak flowers; the other, oak
leaves. Thus, there were a total of eight treatment groups (4 environments × 2 diets).
7) Refer to the accompanying figure. Which one of the following is NOT a plausible hypothesis
to explain the differences in caterpillar appearance observed in this population?
A) The longer day lengths of summer trigger the development of twiglike caterpillars.
B) The cooler temperatures of spring trigger the development of flowerlike caterpillars.
C) Differences in air pressure, due to differences in elevation, trigger the development of
different types of caterpillars.
D) Differences in diet trigger the development of different types of caterpillars.
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing
V&C Core Concept: SF, E
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 1.1
Section: 1.3

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8) Refer to the accompanying figure. In every case, caterpillars that feed on oak flowers looked
like oak flowers. In every case, caterpillars that were raised on oak leaves looked like twigs.
These results support which of the following hypotheses?
A) The longer day lengths of summer trigger the development of twiglike caterpillars.
B) Differences in air pressure, due to elevation, trigger the development of different types of
caterpillars.
C) Differences in diet trigger the development of different types of caterpillars.
D) The differences are genetic. A female will either produce all flowerlike caterpillars or all
twiglike caterpillars.
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing
V&C Core Concept: SF, E
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 1.2
Section: 1.3
9) Refer to the accompanying figure. Recall that eggs from the same female were exposed to
each of the eight treatments used. This aspect of the experimental design tested which of the
following hypotheses?
A) The longer day lengths of summer trigger the development of twiglike caterpillars.
B) Differences in air pressure, due to elevation, trigger the development of different types of
caterpillars.
C) Differences in diet trigger the development of different types of caterpillars.
D) The differences are genetic. A female will either produce all flowerlike caterpillars or all
twiglike caterpillars.
Answer: D
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing
V&C Core Concept: SF, E
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 1.2
Section: 1.3

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10) Recall the caterpillar experiment in which caterpillars born in the spring looked like flowers,
and caterpillars born in the summer looked like twigs. What is the most likely selective
advantage for this difference in body shape?
A) Looking like their food sources allows the caterpillars to move through their environment
more efficiently.
B) Development into the adult moth form is faster for caterpillars shaped like twigs than like
flowers.
C) Looking like their food source lets the caterpillars blend into their surroundings, reducing
predation.
D) Looking like their food source will increase the caterpillars' feeding efficiency; this would
increase their growth rate and survival rate.
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing
V&C Core Concept: SF, E
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 1.1, 1.2
Section: 1.3
11) Cells are ________.
A) only found in pairs, because single cells cannot exist independently
B) limited in size to 200 and 500 micrometers in diameter
C) characteristic of eukaryotic but not prokaryotic organisms
D) characteristic of prokaryotic and eukaryotic organisms
Answer: D
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
V&C Core Concept: SF
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 1.1, 1.2
Section: 1.2, 1.5
12) In comparison to eukaryotes, prokaryotes ________.
A) are more structurally complex
B) use RNA to store genetic information
C) are smaller
D) do not have membranes
E) have chromosomes composed of single-stranded DNA
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
V&C Core Concept: SF, E
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 1.1
Section: 1.4, 1.5

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13) The structure of double helical DNA ________.
A) serves as a template for protein synthesis
B) is used to synthesize messenger RNA
C) contains two identical single strands of DNA
D) must be accurately copied to ensure variation in organisms
Answer: B
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
V&C Core Concept: I
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 1.1
Section: 1.5
14) Which of these provides evidence of the common ancestry of all life?
A) ubiquitous use of catalysts by living systems
B) near universality of the genetic code
C) structure of the nucleus
D) the flow of genetic information from DNA to RNA to protein
E) the directionality of protein synthesis
Answer: B
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing
V&C Core Concept: SF, E
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 1.1, 1.2, 1.3
Section: 1.5
15) Protists and bacteria are grouped into different domains because ________.
A) protists eat bacteria
B) bacteria are not made of cells
C) protists have a membrane-bounded nucleus, which bacterial cells lack
D) bacteria decompose protists
E) protists lack the genetic diversity that bacteria have
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
V&C Core Concept: SF, E
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 1.1, 1.2, 1.3
Section: 1.5

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16) You have isolated and purified a new species of cells from the rain forest and you want to
place this new species in the appropriate branch of the tree of life. You sequence the ribosomal
RNA genes from these cells and discover that for one particular region of the ribosomal gene
(the rRNA) the RNA sequence is AAUGAAGG. You have sequences from the same region of
the ribosomal genes (the rRNA) from each of these species: bacteria, eukaryote and archaea,
which are listed below.
bacteria AUAGAUGG
eukaryote AAAGAAGG
archaea AAUGGAGU
Based on these sequence results, to which branch of the tree of life should you assign this new
species?
A) archaea
B) bacteria
C) eukaryote
D) bacteria and archaea
E) There is not enough information.
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing
V&C Core Concept: E
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 1.3
Section: 1.5
17) How does a scientific theory differ from a scientific hypothesis?
A) Theories are proposed to test scientific hypotheses.
B) Theories are usually an explanation for a more general phenomenon; hypotheses typically
address more specific issues.
C) Hypotheses are usually an explanation for a more general phenomenon; theories typically
address more specific issues.
D) Confirmed theories become scientific laws; hypotheses become theories.
Answer: B
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 1.4
Section: 1.6

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18) Louis Pasteur's experiment had a good design because ________.
A) simple equipment was used
B) a major question, spontaneous generation, was tested
C) the possible outcomes led to distinct, unambiguous conclusions
D) the experiment was a success
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 1.4
Section: 1.6
19) Recall the experiment on ant navigation. To run a controlled experiment, what parameters
were held constant for the test group of 75 ants?
A) stride number
B) leg length
C) stride number, leg length, and environmental temperature
D) all variables except leg length
Answer: D
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 1.4
Section: 1.6
20) Your colleague proposes to test the mechanism of ant navigation by placing a food source 7
meters (m) from the nest. She then takes ants from the nest and places them in a spot that is 4 m
from the nest and 3 m from the food source. Based on the previous data, where do you expect the
ants to start searching for their nest on their return trip?
A) after they have traveled 3 m from the food source
B) after they have traveled 4 m from the food source
C) after they have traveled 7 m from the food source
D) as soon as they leave the food source
Answer: A
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing
V&C Core Comp: PS, QR
LO: 1.4
Section: 1.6

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21) For many years, no one bothered to test the food-competition hypothesis for why giraffes
have long necks. Why?
A) It had been much too difficult to test.
B) The hypothesis was so plausible that no one thought to question it.
C) They tried, but the results were inconclusive.
D) The hypothesis did not make clear predictions that could be tested.
Answer: B
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
V&C Core Concept: E
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 1.4
Section: 1.6
22) A friend of yours calls to say that his car would not start this morning. He asks for your help.
You say that you think the battery must be dead. If so, then jump-starting the car from a good
battery will solve the problem. In doing so, you are ________.
A) testing a theory for why the car will not start
B) making observations to inspire a theory for why the car will not start
C) stating a hypothesis and using that hypothesis to make a testable prediction
D) comparing multiple hypotheses for why the car will not start
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 1.4
Section: 1.6
23) Agrobacterium infects plants and causes them to form tumors. You are asked to determine
how long a plant must be exposed to these bacteria to become infected. Which of the following
experiments will provide the best data to address that question?
A) Measure the number of tumors formed on plants, which are exposed to different
concentrations of Agrobacterium for different lengths of time.
B) Measure the number of tumors formed on a plant when exposed to various concentrations of
Agrobacterium.
C) Measure the concentration of Agrobacterium in different soil environments where the plants
grow.
D) Measure the number of tumors formed on plants, which are exposed to a known concentration
of Agrobacterium for different lengths of time.
Answer: D
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing
V&C Core Concept: S
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 1.4
Section: 1.6

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24) Agrobacterium infects plants and causes them to form tumors. You determine that tumor
formation requires a large amount of the plant's energy for tissue formation. How might this
change the number of offspring a plant produces, and what is the most likely explanation for this
change?
A) The number of offspring should increase, because in general, illness increases the
reproductive output of organisms.
B) The number of offspring should increase, because the bacteria will provide energy for the
plant.
C) The number of offspring should decrease, because the plant will divert energy from
reproduction to tumor formation.
D) There should be no effect of infection on offspring production, because energy for
reproduction is independent of infection.
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing
V&C Core Concept: S
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 1.4
Section: 1.6
Use the following information when answering the corresponding question(s).
In 1668, Francesco Redi performed a series of experiments on spontaneous generation. He began
by putting similar pieces of meat into eight identical jars. Four jars were left open to the air, and
four were sealed. He then did the same experiment with one variation: Instead of sealing four of
the jars completely, he covered them with gauze (the gauze excluded the flies while allowing the
meat to be exposed to air). In both experiments, he monitored the jars and recorded whether or
not maggots (young flies) appeared in the meat.
25) Refer to the paragraph on Redi's experiments. What hypothesis was being tested in the initial
experiment with open versus sealed jars?
A) Spontaneous generation is more likely during the long days of summer.
B) The type of meat used affects the likelihood of spontaneous generation.
C) Maggots do not arise spontaneously, but from eggs laid by adult flies.
D) Spontaneous generation can occur only if meat is exposed to air.
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing
V&C Core Concept: S
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 1.4
Section: 1.6

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26) Refer to the paragraph on Redi's experiments. In both experiments, flies appeared in all of
the open jars and only in the open jars. Which one of the following statements is correct?
A) The experiment was inconclusive because Redi used only one kind of meat.
B) The experiment was inconclusive because it did not run long enough.
C) The experiment supports the hypothesis that spontaneous generation occurs in rotting meat.
D) The experiment supports the hypothesis that maggots arise only from eggs laid by adult flies.
Answer: D
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing
V&C Core Concept: S
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 1.4
Section: 1.6
27) The best experimental design ________.
A) includes a large sample size for each condition
B) includes a control
C) alters only one condition between the controls and the experimental condition
D) includes a large sample size and a control and alters only one condition between the controls
and the experimental condition
Answer: D
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 1.4
Section: 1.6
28) In the process of science, which of these is NOT used to test a hypothesis?
A) a theory
B) a result
C) an observation
D) a control group
Answer: A
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 1.4
Section: 1.6

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29) A controlled experiment ________.
A) is repeated many times to ensure that the results are accurate
B) proceeds at a slow pace to guarantee that the scientist can carefully observe all reactions and
process all experimental data
C) includes at least two groups, one of which does not receive the experimental treatment
D) includes at least two groups, one differing from the other by two or more variables
E) includes one group for which the scientist controls all variables
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 1.4
Section: 1.6
30) Which of the following are qualities of any good scientific hypothesis?
I. It is testable.
II. It is falsifiable.
III. It produces quantitative data.
IV. It produces results that can be replicated.
A) I only
B) II only
C) III only
D) I and II
E) III and IV
Answer: D
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 1.4
Section: 1.6
31) In presenting data that result from an experiment, a group of students show that most of their
measurements fall on a straight diagonal line on their graph. However, two of their data points
are "outliers" and fall far to one side of the expected relationship. What should they do?
A) Change their experiment so that the outlier data points are eliminated.
B) Average several trials, rule out the improbable results, and do not show them in the final
work.
C) Show all results obtained and then try to explore the reason(s) for these outliers.
D) Redesign the experiment using a different hypothesis.
E) Change the values on the graph so that only the straight diagonal line is produced.
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating
V&C Core Comp: PS, QR
LO: 1.4
Section: 1.6

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32) Which of the following is the best description of a control for an experiment?
A) The control group is kept in an unchanging environment.
B) The control group is left alone by the experimenters.
C) The control group is matched with the experimental group except for one experimental
variable.
D) The control group is exposed to only one variable rather than several.
E) Only the experimental group is tested or measured.
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 1.4
Section: 1.6
33) Why is a scientific topic best discussed by people of varying points of view, from different
subdisciplines, and representing diverse cultures?
A) They can correct each other's approach to make it scientific.
B) Robust and critical discussion between diverse groups improves scientific thinking.
C) Scientists can coordinate with others to conduct experiments in similar ways.
D) This is a way of ensuring that everyone gets the same results.
E) People need to exchange their ideas with other disciplines and cultures because everyone has
a right to an opinion in science.
Answer: B
Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating
V&C Core Comp: PS, I, CC, SS
LO: 1.4
Section: 1.6
34) A controlled experiment is one that ________.
A) proceeds slowly enough that a scientist can make careful records of the results
B) tests experimental and control groups in parallel
C) is repeated many times to make sure the results are accurate
D) controls all variables
E) is supervised by an experienced scientist
Answer: B
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 1.4
Section: 1.6

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35) Which of the following statements best distinguishes scientific hypotheses from scientific
theories?
A) Hypotheses describe and theories explain.
B) Hypotheses explain and theories describe.
C) Hypotheses are usually narrower in scope; theories have broader explanatory power.
D) Hypotheses are used in experiments. Theories are not tested.
E) Hypotheses are generally supported by more evidence than theories.
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 1.4
Section: 1.6
36) Which of the following best describes the logic of scientific inquiry?
A) If I generate a testable hypothesis, tests and observations will support it.
B) If my prediction is correct, it will lead to a testable hypothesis.
C) If my observations are accurate, they will support my hypothesis.
D) If my hypothesis is correct, I can expect certain test results.
E) If my experiments are set up right, they will lead to a testable hypothesis.
Answer: D
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 1.4
Section: 1.6
37) The formulation of a model for a structure or for a process serves which of the following
purposes?
A) It asks a scientific question.
B) It functions as a testable hypothesis.
C) It records observations.
D) It serves as a data point among results.
E) It can be arrived at only after years of experimentation.
Answer: B
Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating
V&C Core Comp: PS, MS
LO: 1.4
Section: 1.6

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Biological Science, 6e (Freeman/Quillin/Allison)
Chapter 2 Water and Carbon: The Chemical Basis of Life
1) About twenty-five of the 92 natural elements are known to be essential to life. Which 4 of
these 25 elements make up approximately 96 percent of living matter?
A) carbon, sodium, hydrogen, nitrogen
B) carbon, oxygen, phosphorus, hydrogen
C) oxygen, hydrogen, calcium, nitrogen
D) carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen
E) carbon, oxygen, nitrogen, calcium
Answer: D
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
V&C Core Concept: EM
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 2.1
Section: 2.1
2) Why is each element unique with respect to its chemical properties? Each element has a
distinctive ________.
A) atomic mass
B) number of electrons
C) number of protons
D) number of neutrons
E) radioactive property
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
V&C Core Concept: EM
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 2.1
Section: 2.1
3) Knowing the atomic mass of an element allows inferences about which of the following?
A) the number of electrons in the element
B) the number of protons in the element
C) the number of neutrons in the element
D) the number of protons plus neutrons in the element
E) the number of protons plus electrons in the element
Answer: D
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing
V&C Core Concept: EM
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 2.1
Section: 2.1

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4) Carbon-12 is the most common isotope of carbon and has a mass number of 12. However, the
average atomic mass of carbon found on a periodic table is slightly more than 12 daltons. Why?
A) The atomic mass does not include the mass of electrons.
B) Some carbon atoms in nature have an extra proton.
C) Some carbon atoms in nature have more neutrons.
D) Some carbon atoms in nature have a different valence electron distribution.
E) Some carbon atoms in nature have undergone radioactive decay.
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing
V&C Core Concept: EM
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 2.1
Section: 2.1
5) From its atomic number of 15, it is possible to predict that the phosphorus atom has
________.
A) 5 neutrons, 5 protons, and 5 electrons
B) 30 neutrons
C) 15 neutrons and 15 protons
D) 8 electrons in its outermost electron shell
E) 15 protons and 15 electrons
Answer: E
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
V&C Core Concept: EM
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 2.1
Section: 2.1
6) A covalent chemical bond is one in which ________.
A) electrons are removed from one atom and transferred to another atom so that the two atoms
become oppositely charged
B) protons and neutrons are shared by two atoms so as to satisfy the requirements of both atoms
C) outer-shell electrons of two atoms are shared so as to satisfactorily fill their respective orbitals
D) outer-shell electrons of one atom are transferred to fill the inner electron shell of another atom
E) electrons from the same atom, but opposite spins, are paired
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
V&C Core Concept: EM
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 2.1
Section: 2.1

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7) Nitrogen (N) is more electronegative than hydrogen (H). Which of the following is a correct
statement about the atoms in ammonia (NH3)?
A) Each hydrogen atom has a partial positive charge; the nitrogen atom has a partial negative
charge.
B) Ammonia has an overall positive charge.
C) Ammonia has an overall negative charge.
D) The nitrogen atom has a partial positive charge; each hydrogen atom has a partial negative
charge.
E) There are covalent bonds between the hydrogen atoms and polar bonds between each
hydrogen atom and the nitrogen atom.
Answer: A
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
V&C Core Concept: EM
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 2.1
Section: 2.1
8) Bonds between two atoms that are equally electronegative are ________.
A) hydrogen bonds
B) van der Waals interactions
C) polar covalent bonds
D) nonpolar covalent bonds
E) ionic bonds
Answer: D
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
V&C Core Concept: EM
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 2.1
Section: 2.1
9) A covalent bond is likely to be polar when ________.
A) one of the atoms sharing electrons is more electronegative than the other atom
B) the two atoms sharing electrons are equally electronegative
C) carbon is one of the two atoms sharing electrons
D) one of the atoms has absorbed more energy than the other atom
E) the two atoms sharing electrons are the same elements
Answer: A
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
V&C Core Concept: EM
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 2.1
Section: 2.1

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10) What is the difference between covalent bonds and ionic bonds?
A) Covalent bonds require carbon whereas ionic bonds do not.
B) Covalent bonds involve the sharing of pairs of electrons between atoms; ionic bonds involve
the sharing of single electrons between atoms.
C) Covalent bonds involve the sharing of electrons between atoms; ionic bonds involve the
electrical attraction between charged atoms.
D) Covalent bonds involve the sharing of electrons between atoms; ionic bonds involve the
sharing of protons between charged atoms.
E) Covalent bonds involve the transfer of electrons between charged atoms; ionic bonds involve
the sharing of electrons between atoms.
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
V&C Core Concept: EM
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 2.1
Section: 2.1

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12) Which drawing in the figure above depicts the electron configuration of an element with
chemical properties most similar to helium (2He)?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Answer: E
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing
V&C Core Concept: EM
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 2.1
Section: 2.1
13) Which drawing in the figure above depicts an atom with six valence electrons?
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
V&C Core Concept: EM
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 2.1
Section: 2.1

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7
14)
What results from the chemical reaction illustrated above? The reactants have no charge.
A) a cation with a net charge of +1 and an anion with a net charge of +1
B) a cation with a net charge of −1 and an anion with a net charge of −1
C) a cation with a net charge of −1 and an anion with a net charge of +1
D) a cation with a net charge of +1 and an anion with a net charge of −1
Answer: D
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing
V&C Core Concept: EM
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 2.1
Section: 2.1

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9
16) How many electrons are involved in a single covalent bond?
A) one
B) two
C) three
D) four
Answer: B
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
V&C Core Concept: EM
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 2.1
Section: 2.1
17) Elements found on the left side of the periodic table contain outer shells that are ________;
these elements tend to form ________ in solution.
A) almost empty; cations
B) almost empty; anions
C) almost full; cations
D) almost full; anions
Answer: A
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing
V&C Core Concept: EM
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 2.1
Section: 2.1
18) An atom has four electrons in its valence shell. What types of covalent bonds is it capable of
forming?
A) single, double, or triple
B) single and double only
C) single bonds only
D) double bonds only
Answer: A
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing
V&C Core Concept: EM
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 2.1
Section: 2.1

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10
19) When the atoms involved in a covalent bond have the same electronegativity, what type of
bond results?
A) an ionic bond
B) a hydrogen bond
C) a nonpolar covalent bond
D) a polar covalent bond
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
V&C Core Concept: EM
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 2.1
Section: 2.1
20)
The illustration above shows a representation of formic acid. A formic acid molecule ________.
A) will form hydrogen bonds with water molecules
B) has a tetrahedral configuration of hybrid electron orbitals for the carbon atom
C) consists of largely nonpolar covalent bonds
D) is held together by hydrogen bonds
E) has a pyramidal shape and will form hydrogen bonds with water molecules
Answer: A
Bloom's Taxonomy: Evaluating/Creating
V&C Core Concept: EM
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 2.1, 2.2
Section: 2.1, 2.2
21) You need to write down information about a molecule, but need to indicate only the type and
number of atoms it contains. Which representation would work best?
A) molecular formula
B) structural formula
C) ball-and-stick model
D) space-filling model
Answer: A
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
V&C Core Concept: EM
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 2.1
Section: 2.1

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11
22) You need to represent a molecule to best illustrate the relative sizes of the atoms involved
and their interrelationships. Which representation would work best?
A) molecular formula
B) structural formula
C) ball-and-stick model
D) space-filling model
Answer: D
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
V&C Core Concept: EM
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 2.1
Section: 2.1
23) Water has a high specific heat because of the ________.
A) polar covalent bond formed between the oxygen and a hydrogen of a single water molecule
B) ionic bonds formed between the hydrogen of one water molecule and the oxygen of another
water molecule
C) hydrogen bond formed between the hydrogen of one water molecule and the oxygen of
another water molecule
D) covalent bond formed between the hydrogen of one water molecule and the oxygen of
another water molecule
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
V&C Core Concept: EM
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 2.2
Section: 2.2
24) Which of the following is a property of liquid water? Liquid water ________.
A) is less dense than ice
B) has a specific heat that is lower than that for most other substances
C) has a heat of vaporization that is higher than that for most other substances
D) is nonpolar
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
V&C Core Concept: EM
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 2.2
Section: 2.2

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12
25) To act as an effective coolant in a car's radiator, a substance has to have the capacity to
absorb a great deal of heat. You have a reference book with tables listing the physical properties
of many liquids. In choosing a coolant for your car, which table would you check first?
A) pH
B) density at room temperature
C) heat of vaporization
D) specific heat
Answer: D
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing
V&C Core Concept: EM
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 2.2
Section: 2.2
26) A solution with a pH of 5 has how many more protons in it than a solution with a pH of 7?
A) 5 times
B) 10 times
C) 100 times
D) 1000 times
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing
V&C Core Concept: EM
V&C Core Comp: PS, QR
LO: 2.2
Section: 2.2
27) In a single molecule of water, two hydrogen atoms are bonded to a single oxygen atom by
________.
A) hydrogen bonds
B) nonpolar covalent bonds
C) polar covalent bonds
D) ionic bonds
E) van der Waals interactions
Answer: C
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
V&C Core Concept: EM
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 2.2
Section: 2.2

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13
28) The partial negative charge at one end of a water molecule is attracted to the partial positive
charge of another water molecule. What is this attraction called?
A) a covalent bond
B) a hydrogen bond
C) an ionic bond
D) a hydrophilic bond
E) a van der Waals interaction
Answer: B
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
V&C Core Concept: EM
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 2.2
Section: 2.2
29) The partial negative charge in a molecule of water occurs because ________.
A) the oxygen atom donates an electron to each of the hydrogen atoms
B) the electrons shared between the oxygen and hydrogen atoms spend more time around the
oxygen atom nucleus than around the hydrogen atom nucleus
C) the oxygen atom has two pairs of electrons in its valence shell that are not neutralized by
hydrogen atoms
D) the oxygen atom forms hybrid orbitals that distribute electrons unequally around the oxygen
nucleus
E) one of the hydrogen atoms donates an electron to the oxygen atom
Answer: B
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
V&C Core Concept: EM
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 2.2
Section: 2.2
30) Which of the following effects can occur because of the high surface tension of water?
A) Lakes cannot freeze solid in winter, despite low temperatures.
B) A raft spider can walk across the surface of a small pond.
C) Organisms can resist temperature changes, although they give off heat due to chemical
reactions.
D) Sweat can evaporate from the skin, helping to keep people from overheating.
E) Water can flow upward from roots to the leaves in plants.
Answer: B
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing
V&C Core Concept: EM
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 2.2
Section: 2.2

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14
31) Which of the following takes place as an ice cube cools a drink?
A) Molecular collisions in the drink increase.
B) Kinetic energy in the liquid water decreases.
C) A calorie of heat energy is transferred from the ice to the water of the drink.
D) The specific heat of the water in the drink decreases.
E) Evaporation of the water in the drink increases.
Answer: B
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing
V&C Core Concept: EM
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 2.2
Section: 2.2
32) Which type of bond must be broken for water to vaporize?
A) ionic bonds
B) both hydrogen bonds and ionic bonds
C) polar covalent bonds
D) hydrogen bonds
E) both polar covalent bonds and hydrogen bonds
Answer: D
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
V&C Core Concept: EM
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 2.2
Section: 2.2
33) Why does ice float in liquid water?
A) The high surface tension of liquid water keeps the ice on top.
B) The ionic bonds between the molecules in ice prevent the ice from sinking.
C) Ice always has air bubbles that keep it afloat.
D) Stable hydrogen bonds keep water molecules of ice farther apart than water molecules of
liquid water.
E) The crystalline lattice of ice causes it to be denser than liquid water.
Answer: D
Bloom's Taxonomy: Remembering/Understanding
V&C Core Concept: EM
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 2.2
Section: 2.2

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15
34) A strong acid like HCl ________.
A) dissociates completely in an aqueous solution
B) increases the pH when added to an aqueous solution
C) reacts with strong bases to create a buffered solution
D) is a strong buffer at low pH
E) dissociates completely in aqueous solutions and is a strong buffer at low pH
Answer: A
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing
V&C Core Concept: EM
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 2.2
Section: 2.2
35) A solution contains 0.0000001 (10−7) moles of hydroxyl ions [OH−] per liter. Which of the
following best describes this solution?
A) acidic: H+ acceptor
B) basic: H+ acceptor
C) acidic: H+ donor
D) basic: H+ donor
E) neutral
Answer: E
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing
V&C Core Concept: EM
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 2.2
Section: 2.2
36) What is the pH of a solution with a hydroxyl ion (OH−) concentration of 10−12 M?
A) pH 2
B) pH 4
C) pH 10
D) pH 12
E) pH 14
Answer: A
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing
V&C Core Concept: EM
V&C Core Comp: PS QR
LO: 2.2
Section: 2.2

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16
37) One of the buffers that contribute to pH stability in human blood is carbonic acid (H2CO3).
Carbonic acid is a weak acid that, when placed in an aqueous solution, dissociates into a
bicarbonate ion (HCO3−) and a hydrogen ion (H+), as noted below.
If the pH of blood increases, one would expect ________.
A) a decrease in the concentration of H2CO3 and an increase in the concentration of HCO3−
B) an increase in the concentration of H2CO3 and a decrease in the concentration of HCO3−
C) a decrease in the concentration of HCO3− and an increase in the concentration of H+
D) an increase in the concentration of HCO3− and a decrease in the concentration of OH−
E) a decrease in the concentration of HCO3− and an increase in the concentration of H2CO3 and
H+
Answer: A
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing
V&C Core Concept: EM
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 2.2
Section: 2.2
38) Based on your knowledge of the polarity of water molecules, the solute molecule depicted
here is most likely ________.
A) positively charged
B) negatively charged
C) without charge
D) hydrophobic
E) nonpolar
Answer: A
Bloom's Taxonomy: Applying/Analyzing
V&C Core Concept: EM
V&C Core Comp: PS
LO: 2.2
Section: 2.2

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